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OS > OS Test 2 > Flashcards

OS Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the point of the foot arch?

A

Shock absorption, Allows foot to adapt to surface and weight changes

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2
Q

What is in the Medial Longitudinal arch?

A

calcaneus, talus, navicular, 3 cuneiforms and medial 3 Metatarsals

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3
Q

What is in the Lateral Longitudinal arch?

A

Calcaneus, cuboid, lateral 2 metatarsals

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4
Q

Transverse arch contents

A

navicular, cuboid, 3 cuneiforms, proximal metatarsals

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5
Q

Contents of Tarsal Tunnel

A

Tibialis posterior m., flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

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6
Q

Tibialis posterior actions

A

INVERSION and plantar flexion

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7
Q

Flexor digitorum longus actions

A

Flexes lateral four digits, plantar flexion at ankle joint

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8
Q

Flex hallucis longus actions

A

Flexes great toe, plantar flex the foot at ankle joint

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9
Q

Primary stabilizer of medial ankle is___

what kind of sprain is associated?

A

Deltoid ligament, eversion ankle sprain

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10
Q

Ligaments of lateral ankle and which tears first

A

Posterior talofibular ligament
Anterior talofibular ligament (first)
Calcaneofibular ligament

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11
Q

Ankle ROM for Dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, inversion(supination), eversion

A

D: 15-20
P: 50-65
Inversion: 35
Eversion:20

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12
Q

Pronation is what movements

A

dorsiflex, ABduction, calcaneal eversion

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13
Q

Supination is what movements

A

Plantar flex, ADduction, calcaneal inversion

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14
Q

Dysfunction is where there is ease/restriction of motion?

A

EASE, where it likes to live

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15
Q

Lateral malleolus dysfunction

A

first translate lateral malleolus ANT and POST.
If freedom of motion to anterior glide: anterior lateral malleolus dysfunction (restriction to posterior)
If freedom of motion to posterior glide: posterior lateral malleolus (restriction to anterior glide)

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16
Q

Where do you document dysfucntion in SOAP note

A

OBJECTIVE

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17
Q

Navicular dysfunction

A

Stabilize TALUS and grasp navicular with thumb and first finger-force into dorsal and ventral glide
Plantar dysfunctions most common
Navicular dysfucntion are associated with tight plantar fascia

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18
Q

cuboid dysfunction

A

Stabilize CALCANEOUS and grasp cuboid with thumb and first finger-force into dorsal and ventral glide
Plantar dysfunctions most common
Cuboid dysfucntion are associated with posterior fibular head

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19
Q

Cuneiform dysfunction:

A

stabilize navicular and force each bone into dorsal/ventral

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20
Q

Checking Talus

A

Motion occurs b/t talus and distal tib/fib

stabilize distal tib/fib and check talus for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion dysfunction

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21
Q

Checking Calcneus

A

Motion occurs b/t talus and Calcaneus
Place ankle at 90 degrees to prevent laxity
test inversion and eversion somatic dysfucntion

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22
Q

Knee ROM
Flexion, extension, internal and external rotation
Q angle

A

Flexion: 140-150
Extension: 0-5
Internal rotation: 10
External rotation: 10

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23
Q

Checking Internal/external rotation of tibia on femur

A

Block linkage proximally
• Thumbs on tibial tuberosity, knee and hip bent to 90
• Rotate internally and externally, noting restriction

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24
Q

Checking abduction/aduction of tibia on femur

A

Create valgus/varus stress on knee
Valgus- push knee towards midline (ADduction)
Varus: push knee away from midline (ABduction)

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25
Q

Tibia on Femur- A/P slide

A

Same as anterior drawer test with less force

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26
Q

Proximal fibular evaluation

A

grab fibular head and translate a/p, assess gliding motion

NB: common fibular nerve wraps around fibular head and is subject to injury with fibular head fracture

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27
Q 
HIP ROM
Flexion-knee extended and flexed
extension
internal rotation
external rotation
AB/ADduct
A

flexion: 90-extended/ 120-135 (knee flexed)
extension:15-30
internal rotation: 30-40
external rotation: 40-60
ABduct-45-50
ADduct=20-30

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28
Q

Hip compartments: Central

A

ALL

Articular surface, ligamentum teres, labrum

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29
Q

Peripheral Hip compartment

A

Femoral neck and synovial lining

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30
Q

Lateral hip compartment

A

Gluteus medius/minumus, IT band, trochanteric bursa

GIT

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31
Q

Anterior hip compartment

A

Iliopsoas insertion, iliopsoas bursa

32
Q

Hip testing- always do

A

BLOCK linkage

33
Q

For hip flexion testing, pt is ___
for hip extension testing, pt is ___
For int/external rotation, pt is ___
AD/AB- patient supine

A

flexion-supine
extension- prone
int/ext-either knees flexed to 90
AB/AD patient is supine

34
Q

Lymph facts

A

Integrates all body fluids, important for homeostasis, transports fats from digestive system to blood

35
Q

Lymph facts (immune)

A

conduit to immune system, passive, altered by OMT

36
Q

Lymph development

A

starts at 5 weeks, significant at 20 weeks,

mature until puberty and is stable in adult

37
Q

Spleen location and fxn

A

b/t ribs 9-11 on left side, not palpable

destorys RBCs, makes IGs, clears ags, microorganisms and some bacteria

38
Q

Thymus location and fxn

A

Superior mediastinum, ant to vessels
largest at age 2 and involutes after puberty
T cell processing, little fxn in adults

39
Q

Tonsils (3)

which are you looking at with ahhhhhhhhhhhhh

A

Superior to inferior- Pharyngeal (adenois), palatine, and lingual
ahhh- palatine

40
Q

appendix is where

A

medial surface of cecum

41
Q

Visceral tissues within GI

A

Peyer’s patches in distal ilium
Lacteal are lymph capillaries of villi in SI
liver clears bacteria and creates 1/2 of body’s lymph

42
Q

pulmonary visceral tissues fxn

A

filters toxins from lungs

43
Q

Lymph nodes purpose and types

A

Filtration, superficial and deep

44
Q

Superficial lymph and where it drains

A

runs with superficial veins
drains to
Cervical-head, supraclavicular and UE to jugular nodes
Axillary-infraclavicular to umbilicus to axillary to subclavian
inguinal- caudal to umbilicus to inguinal nodes to lumbar

45
Q

deep lymph and where it drains

A

run below fascia and muscle and run with deep veins

drain to collecting ducts

46
Q

where doesn’t lymph go

A

CBS, EE
CNS, Bone marrow, selection portion of peripheral
epidermis and endomysium

47
Q

Lymphatic drainage

A

unidirection flow, one way valves, larger vessel under sympathetic control-stress causes tissue congestion

48
Q

Lymph drainage Right

A

Drains r side of head, neck and R UE and chest

49
Q

lymph drainage left

A

everything else drains here, left side of head and neck, L UE, L thorax, R and L LE, viscera of thorax

50
Q

Lymph mechanism

A

interstitial fluid pressure is normally -6.3 mmhg, if get to 0 then vessels collapse

51
Q

interstitial fluid pressure increases with ___

A

HTN, increased capillary permeability (starvation) , increased interstitial protein( toxins), decreased plasma osmotic pressure (hepatic cirrhosis)

52
Q

thoracic duct location

A

against vertebral column b/t aorta and azygous vein

moves left of midline at t4 to go to L brachiocephalic and subclavian vein

53
Q

Cisterna chyli-what is it and location

A

dilation of thoracic duct

L1-2 posterior to the R crura of the diaphgram

54
Q

components of lymphs

A

proteins, salts, fats, lymphocytes, clotting factors, large particles like viruses and bacteria

55
Q

edema associated factors

A

CHF, imcompetent heart valves, venous obstruction, gravitation effects

56
Q

edema associated factors with fluid not getting out

A

decreased osmotic pressure gradients due to starvation, cirrhosis of liver, abnormal protein metabolism
could also be due to tramua, post-op scarring or mechanical blockage

57
Q

effects of edema

A

tissue congestion, fluid stasis can alter pH, fibrosis/contractures, ineffective delivery of nutrients, drugs and hormones

58
Q

reasons not to do OMT for lymph

A

Metastatic cancer, Osseous fracture, Acute bacterial infection w/ tem>102 and not on antibiotics • Acute hepatitis • Mono
• Circulatory disorders (venous obstruction,
hemorrhage, embolism,
• Coagulopathies (on anticoagulants – Warfarin)
• No urine production (dialysis)
• Pt can’t tolerate tx (CHF – can’t be supine)

59
Q

*Virchow’s node,

A

located in the supraclavicular region on the left side, is associated with any intra-abdominal or thoracic carcinoma/cancer.

60
Q

shoulder joint

3 bones, 3 true joints, 2 functional joints, 2 accessory joints

A

bones: clavicle, scapula, humerus
3 true joints: GAS- glenohumeral, acromioclavicular, sternoclaviuclar
2 functional joints: Suprahumeral, scapulothoracic
2 accessory joints: costosternal, costovertebral

61
Q

shoulder important landmarks

A

spine scapula-t3

inferior border of scapula-t7

62
Q

rotator cuff muscles

A

SITS- Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

63
Q

Early shoulder abduction is done by what joints

A

Glenohumeral and suprahumeral

64
Q

mid-late shoulder abduction is done by what joints

A

scapulothoracic, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular

65
Q

AC joints angles

A

60 degrees coronal abduction and 60 degrees horizontal adduction

66
Q

IR at GH is same as IR at AC joint

A

restrict to IR is a ER rotation dysfunction of AC joint ???????

67
Q

SC joint somatic dysfunction more common in __

A

extension

68
Q

Scapulothoracic joint elevation is what m.

A

upper traps and levator

69
Q

depression of scapulothoracic joint

A

lower traps and rhomboids

70
Q

abduction of scapulothoracic joint is

A

protraction, serratus ant,moves away from spine

71
Q

adduction- retracton

A

middle traps and rhomboids, move closer to spine

72
Q

rotation of ST joint

A

upward is forward tilt- inferior angle protrudes and is done by serratus and upper traps
downward is backward tilt, inferior angle moves anterior and is done by levator, rhomboids and lat

73
Q

lift off test evaluates

A

internal rotation

74
Q

evaluate scapular retraction by

A

resisting position of attention

75
Q

evaluate scapular protraction

A

by having pt do a wall push up

76
Q

muscle strength testing

A 
5= complete ROM and full resistance
4- complete ROM and some resistance
3- complete rom against gravity
2- complete ROM, no gravity,
1- muscle contraction but no joint movement
0- no muscle contraction

OS (3 decks)

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