Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

OS > OS Test 2 > Flashcards

OS Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the point of the foot arch?

A

Shock absorption, Allows foot to adapt to surface and weight changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is in the Medial Longitudinal arch?

A

calcaneus, talus, navicular, 3 cuneiforms and medial 3 Metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is in the Lateral Longitudinal arch?

A

Calcaneus, cuboid, lateral 2 metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Transverse arch contents

A

navicular, cuboid, 3 cuneiforms, proximal metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Contents of Tarsal Tunnel

A

Tibialis posterior m., flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tibialis posterior actions

A

INVERSION and plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Flexor digitorum longus actions

A

Flexes lateral four digits, plantar flexion at ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Flex hallucis longus actions

A

Flexes great toe, plantar flex the foot at ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Primary stabilizer of medial ankle is___

what kind of sprain is associated?

A

Deltoid ligament, eversion ankle sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ligaments of lateral ankle and which tears first

A

Posterior talofibular ligament
Anterior talofibular ligament (first)
Calcaneofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ankle ROM for Dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, inversion(supination), eversion

A

D: 15-20
P: 50-65
Inversion: 35
Eversion:20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pronation is what movements

A

dorsiflex, ABduction, calcaneal eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Supination is what movements

A

Plantar flex, ADduction, calcaneal inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dysfunction is where there is ease/restriction of motion?

A

EASE, where it likes to live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lateral malleolus dysfunction

A

first translate lateral malleolus ANT and POST.
If freedom of motion to anterior glide: anterior lateral malleolus dysfunction (restriction to posterior)
If freedom of motion to posterior glide: posterior lateral malleolus (restriction to anterior glide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where do you document dysfucntion in SOAP note

A

OBJECTIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Navicular dysfunction

A

Stabilize TALUS and grasp navicular with thumb and first finger-force into dorsal and ventral glide
Plantar dysfunctions most common
Navicular dysfucntion are associated with tight plantar fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cuboid dysfunction

A

Stabilize CALCANEOUS and grasp cuboid with thumb and first finger-force into dorsal and ventral glide
Plantar dysfunctions most common
Cuboid dysfucntion are associated with posterior fibular head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cuneiform dysfunction:

A

stabilize navicular and force each bone into dorsal/ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Checking Talus

A

Motion occurs b/t talus and distal tib/fib

stabilize distal tib/fib and check talus for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Checking Calcneus

A

Motion occurs b/t talus and Calcaneus
Place ankle at 90 degrees to prevent laxity
test inversion and eversion somatic dysfucntion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Knee ROM
Flexion, extension, internal and external rotation
Q angle

A

Flexion: 140-150
Extension: 0-5
Internal rotation: 10
External rotation: 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Checking Internal/external rotation of tibia on femur

A

Block linkage proximally
• Thumbs on tibial tuberosity, knee and hip bent to 90
• Rotate internally and externally, noting restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Checking abduction/aduction of tibia on femur

A

Create valgus/varus stress on knee
Valgus- push knee towards midline (ADduction)
Varus: push knee away from midline (ABduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Tibia on Femur- A/P slide
Same as anterior drawer test with less force
26
Proximal fibular evaluation
grab fibular head and translate a/p, assess gliding motion | NB: common fibular nerve wraps around fibular head and is subject to injury with fibular head fracture
27
``` HIP ROM Flexion-knee extended and flexed extension internal rotation external rotation AB/ADduct ```
flexion: 90-extended/ 120-135 (knee flexed) extension:15-30 internal rotation: 30-40 external rotation: 40-60 ABduct-45-50 ADduct=20-30
28
Hip compartments: Central
ALL | Articular surface, ligamentum teres, labrum
29
Peripheral Hip compartment
Femoral neck and synovial lining
30
Lateral hip compartment
Gluteus medius/minumus, IT band, trochanteric bursa | GIT
31
Anterior hip compartment
Iliopsoas insertion, iliopsoas bursa
32
Hip testing- always do
BLOCK linkage
33
For hip flexion testing, pt is ___ for hip extension testing, pt is ___ For int/external rotation, pt is ___ AD/AB- patient supine
flexion-supine extension- prone int/ext-either knees flexed to 90 AB/AD patient is supine
34
Lymph facts
Integrates all body fluids, important for homeostasis, transports fats from digestive system to blood
35
Lymph facts (immune)
conduit to immune system, passive, altered by OMT
36
Lymph development
starts at 5 weeks, significant at 20 weeks, | mature until puberty and is stable in adult
37
Spleen location and fxn
b/t ribs 9-11 on left side, not palpable | destorys RBCs, makes IGs, clears ags, microorganisms and some bacteria
38
Thymus location and fxn
Superior mediastinum, ant to vessels largest at age 2 and involutes after puberty T cell processing, little fxn in adults
39
Tonsils (3) | which are you looking at with ahhhhhhhhhhhhh
Superior to inferior- Pharyngeal (adenois), palatine, and lingual ahhh- palatine
40
appendix is where
medial surface of cecum
41
Visceral tissues within GI
Peyer's patches in distal ilium Lacteal are lymph capillaries of villi in SI liver clears bacteria and creates 1/2 of body's lymph
42
pulmonary visceral tissues fxn
filters toxins from lungs
43
Lymph nodes purpose and types
Filtration, superficial and deep
44
Superficial lymph and where it drains
runs with superficial veins drains to Cervical-head, supraclavicular and UE to jugular nodes Axillary-infraclavicular to umbilicus to axillary to subclavian inguinal- caudal to umbilicus to inguinal nodes to lumbar
45
deep lymph and where it drains
run below fascia and muscle and run with deep veins | drain to collecting ducts
46
where doesn't lymph go
CBS, EE CNS, Bone marrow, selection portion of peripheral epidermis and endomysium
47
Lymphatic drainage
unidirection flow, one way valves, larger vessel under sympathetic control-stress causes tissue congestion
48
Lymph drainage Right
Drains r side of head, neck and R UE and chest
49
lymph drainage left
everything else drains here, left side of head and neck, L UE, L thorax, R and L LE, viscera of thorax
50
Lymph mechanism
interstitial fluid pressure is normally -6.3 mmhg, if get to 0 then vessels collapse
51
interstitial fluid pressure increases with ___
HTN, increased capillary permeability (starvation) , increased interstitial protein( toxins), decreased plasma osmotic pressure (hepatic cirrhosis)
52
thoracic duct location
against vertebral column b/t aorta and azygous vein | moves left of midline at t4 to go to L brachiocephalic and subclavian vein
53
Cisterna chyli-what is it and location
dilation of thoracic duct | L1-2 posterior to the R crura of the diaphgram
54
components of lymphs
proteins, salts, fats, lymphocytes, clotting factors, large particles like viruses and bacteria
55
edema associated factors
CHF, imcompetent heart valves, venous obstruction, gravitation effects
56
edema associated factors with fluid not getting out
decreased osmotic pressure gradients due to starvation, cirrhosis of liver, abnormal protein metabolism could also be due to tramua, post-op scarring or mechanical blockage
57
effects of edema
tissue congestion, fluid stasis can alter pH, fibrosis/contractures, ineffective delivery of nutrients, drugs and hormones
58
reasons not to do OMT for lymph
Metastatic cancer, Osseous fracture, Acute bacterial infection w/ tem>102 and not on antibiotics • Acute hepatitis • Mono • Circulatory disorders (venous obstruction, hemorrhage, embolism, • Coagulopathies (on anticoagulants – Warfarin) • No urine production (dialysis) • Pt can’t tolerate tx (CHF – can’t be supine)
59
*Virchow’s node,
located in the supraclavicular region on the left side, is associated with any intra-abdominal or thoracic carcinoma/cancer.
60
shoulder joint | 3 bones, 3 true joints, 2 functional joints, 2 accessory joints
bones: clavicle, scapula, humerus 3 true joints: GAS- glenohumeral, acromioclavicular, sternoclaviuclar 2 functional joints: Suprahumeral, scapulothoracic 2 accessory joints: costosternal, costovertebral
61
shoulder important landmarks
spine scapula-t3 | inferior border of scapula-t7
62
rotator cuff muscles
SITS- Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
63
Early shoulder abduction is done by what joints
Glenohumeral and suprahumeral
64
mid-late shoulder abduction is done by what joints
scapulothoracic, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular
65
AC joints angles
60 degrees coronal abduction and 60 degrees horizontal adduction
66
IR at GH is same as IR at AC joint
restrict to IR is a ER rotation dysfunction of AC joint ???????
67
SC joint somatic dysfunction more common in __
extension
68
Scapulothoracic joint elevation is what m.
upper traps and levator
69
depression of scapulothoracic joint
lower traps and rhomboids
70
abduction of scapulothoracic joint is
protraction, serratus ant,moves away from spine
71
adduction- retracton
middle traps and rhomboids, move closer to spine
72
rotation of ST joint
upward is forward tilt- inferior angle protrudes and is done by serratus and upper traps downward is backward tilt, inferior angle moves anterior and is done by levator, rhomboids and lat
73
lift off test evaluates
internal rotation
74
evaluate scapular retraction by
resisting position of attention
75
evaluate scapular protraction
by having pt do a wall push up
76
muscle strength testing
``` 5= complete ROM and full resistance 4- complete ROM and some resistance 3- complete rom against gravity 2- complete ROM, no gravity, 1- muscle contraction but no joint movement 0- no muscle contraction ```

OS (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions