Orthopros Flashcards

1
Q

Vertical section to calcaneus

a. Syme’s

b. Pirogoff’s

c. Boyd’s

d. AKA

A

b. Pirogoff’s

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2
Q

Types of partial foot amputation include all of the following, EXCEPT

a. Toes

b. None of these

c. Lisfranc

d. Chopart

A

b. None of these

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3
Q
  1. Emphasis should be placed on strengthening the hip to prevent the most likely contracture in an AK amputee. The hip muscle group consists of

a. Flexion and abduction

b. Extension and adduction

c. Extension and abduction

d. Extension and abduction

A

b. Extension and ADDuction

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4
Q

At what speed for the average individual as the worth of walking at a minimum

d. 5 mph

c. 3 mph

b. 4 mph

d. 2 mph

A

c. 3 mph

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5
Q

Energy expenditure of a double AKA is

a. 60%

b. 65%

c. 110%

d. 40%

A

c. 110%

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6
Q

To maintain a level pelvis & a normal gait while using an AK prosthesis, the muscles of the hip that must be adequately contracted are

a. The abductors

c. The flexors

b. The extensors

d. The adductors

A

a. The abductors

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7
Q

The major advantage of a hip prosthesis over internal fixation in the geriatric patient with a fractured hip

a. Early weight bearing ambulation

B. Decrease amount of pains

C. Ease in nursing care

d. Functional dependence

A

a. Early weight bearing ambulation

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8
Q

Reasons for buckling in AK prosthesis

a. Too hard heel cushion

b. Posteriorly displace socket

c. Too soft heel cushion

d. Hip abduction contracture

A

a. Too hard heel cushion

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9
Q

Gait deviation in patients with BK prosthesis having a stiff heel cushion

a. Insufficient knee flexion on amputated side

b. Excessive knee flexion on amputated side

c. Excessive lateral thrust

d. Insufficient lateral thrust

A

b. Excessive knee flexion on amputated side

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10
Q
  1. An above knee prosthesis that is too long may cause the following gait deviation EXCEPT:
    a. Circumduction
    c. Terminal impact
    b. Vaulting
    d. Wide-walking
A

c. Terminal impact

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11
Q
  1. Is considered as the widest part of the sole that corresponds to the MT heads?

a. ball
b. heel
c. last
d. last

A

a. ball

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12
Q
  1. All are considered as functions of orthosis:
    a. All of these
    b Supporting unstable segments
    c. Assisting undesired not
    d. Stopping undesired motions
A

a. All of these

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13
Q
  1. A 16 y/o patient suffered fractures of C4 and C5
    following trauma received in a motor vehicle accident. Maximum stabilization of his cervical spine can be BEST be achieved with:

a. Halo orthosis
b. Soft collar
c. Four poster orthosis
d. Milwaukee orthosis

A

a. Halo orthosis

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14
Q
  1. A patient with spastic left hemiplegia experiences recurvatum during stance phase. If the patient is using an ankle-foot orthosis, the cause of the problem might be attributed to

a. not enough limitation by the posterior stop

b. not enough limitation by the anterior stop

c. too much limitation by the posterior stop

d. too much limitation by the anterior stop

A

a. not enough limitation by the posterior stop

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15
Q
  1. Cuban heel height is:

a. 1/8 inch
c. 10/8 inch
b. 6/8-8/8 inch
d. 12/8 inch

A

d. 12/8 inch

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16
Q
  1. It is used 1”-5th metatarsal heads pain?

a. sesamoid pad
b. rocker bar
c. heel seat
d. metatarsal bar

A

d. metatarsal bar

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17
Q
  1. What would be your prescription to patient with talipes equinovarus?
    а. abduct forefoot: outflare last
    b. evert midfoot/hindfoot: lateral heel & sole wedge, reverse Thomas heel, extended medial counter
    c. decrease plantarflexion: decrease/remove heel & elevate sole
    d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

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18
Q
  1. You are teaching a 20-year-old patient diagnosed with L3 paraplegia how to ambulate using an adaptive device. What type of equipment would be the most appropriate for this patient?

a. Bilateral HKAFO and crutches
b. Bilateral KAFO and crutches
c. Bilateral AFO and crutches
d. You should not be teaching a patient with L3 paraplegia to ambulate

A

b. Bilateral KAFO and crutches

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19
Q
  1. Are types of shoe/foot attachments?
    a. stirrup
    b. caliper
    c. shoe insert
    d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

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20
Q
  1. The lateral T-strap controls the:

a. ankle varus deformity
b. ankle valgus deformity
c. knee varus deformity
d. knee valgus deformity

A

a. ankle varus deformity

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21
Q
  1. In an AK prosthesis, the prime force causing knee extension is:
    a. Mid-swing acceleration
    b. Full extension of the hip joint
    с. Sudden flexion of the thigh on the pelvis
    d. Gravity
A

b. Full extension of the hip joint

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22
Q
  1. The energy expenditure of single BK amputee;
    a. 65% above normal
    b. 75% above normal
    c. 10% above normal
    d. 41% above normal
A

c. 10% above normal

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23
Q
  1. Exaggerated lordosis of a patient with prosthesis in stance phase may be due to:

a. Hip flex contracture
b. Weak trunk /
c. Weak hip flexors
d. Insufficient socket /

A

a. Hip flex contracture

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24
Q
  1. In an AK prosthesis, the majority of the body’s weight is absorbed by which wall of the socket:
    a. Anterior
    c. Posterior
    b. Lateral
    d. Medial
A

c. Posterior

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25
25. Keel is in the form of spring module: a. Seattle b. Flex foot c. Quantum d. Carbon-Copy lI e. STEN
c. Quantum
26
26. Tho SAFE prosthesis is dofined as : a. Solid attachment flexible exoskeleton b. Stationary attachment flexible endoskeleton c. Soft ankle friction extension d. Stationary ankle friction endoskeleton
b. Stationary attachment flexible endoskeleton SAFE KA SA POLICE STATION NUMBER 1 TOPNOTCHER BACK TO BACK PERIODT
27
27. A mistance deviation: a. Abrupt knee flexion b. Lateral thrust of the knee c. Whip d. Uneven step length e. One of the above
b. Lateral thrust of the knee
28
28. What is NOT the possible cause of rotation of-foot at heel strike on patients with prosthesis: a. Too much resistance on heel cushion b. Too much friction c. Too much resistance on patients with prosthesis d. Too much toe out e. None of these
d. Too much toe out
29
29. All are possible cause of uneven length of steps in patients using prosthesis in walking EXCEPT: a. Improper socket fit b. Friction of knee too weak c. Extension aide too weak d. Prosthesis too long
d. Prosthesis too long
30
30. An AK amputee is prone to develop: a. a. Hip ER contracture b. Hip IR contracture c. Hip flexion contracture d. Hip Abduction-rotation contracture
c. Hip flexion contracture
31
31. Counterpart of the Chairback brace for the thoracolumbosacral brace? a. Knight-Taylor b. Cowhorn c. Taylor d. Cruciform
c. Taylor Chair ni Taylor nag Bend sa concert!!!
32
32. A 47-year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA with left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic examination. Significant results of manual muscle 365, kne texion 3+/5, kne extension st/s ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5. Sensation is intact and no abnormal tone is noted. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a: a. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee b. Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis c. Metal upright ankle-foot orthosis locked in neutral d.prefabricated PLS orthosis
b. Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis
33
33. Winat is the type of ortoses used by scollotc patients for curves with apex below T6? a. Miami c. Wilmington b. Boston d. Milwaukee
a. Miami
34
35. fracture site while allowing motion in the adjacent joints & ambulation possible? a. A frame orthoses b. Fracture orthoses c. PTB orthoses d. Parapodium
b. Fracture orthoses
35
36. An external shoe modification that would be appropriate for a patient exhibiting flexible subtalar varus deformity is: a. cushion heel c. medial sole wedge b. lateral heel wedge d. medial heel we
b. lateral heel wedge
36
37. Orthoses used for pts with congenital hip dysplasia, EXCEPT: a. Von Rosen splint B. Scottish Rite orthoses c. Ilfeld splint d. Pavlik harness
B. Scottish Rite orthoses Code: VIP
37
38. Is designed for more proximal torsional abnormalities? a. Denis-Browne splint b. A-Frame orthoses d. Torsion- shaft e. Internal rotation control strap
b. A-Frame orthoses
38
This special purpose orthoses is used for total elimination of weight-bearing on whole lower limb, no ankle joints & toe suspended in mid-air? a. Patellar tendon-bearing orthoses b. Ischial weight-bearing c. Patten-Bottom orthoses d. Tibial orthoses
c. Patten-Bottom orthoses
39
40. Is a variation of a typical **KAFO**, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk? a. Scott-Craig orthoses b. Parapodium c. Denise-Brown Splint d. AOTA
b. Parapodium - sabi sir omar pero i think scott craig kasi sci? Huhu
40
41. What is the possible cause of foot slap on a patient using prosthesis for walking: a. Not enough resistance on heel cushion b. Insufficient extension aid c. Not enough resistance PF bumper b. Insufficient friction
c. Not enough resistance PF bumper
41
42. Disadvantages of a thigh corset as a suspension device in a BK prosthesis except: a. All of these b. Perspiratory problems c. more difficult to wear d.promotes quads atropy e. none of these
e. none of these
42
43. The cause of vaulting in an AK amputee on prosthesis is: a. prosthesis too long b. high medial wall c. Prosthesis too short d. Knee with insufficiency friction
a. prosthesis too long https://youtu.be/i2bxODibvb0?si=ZAxDL7t18R4atTQX Link 👆👆👆
43
44. This is a pressure **tolerant** area of the leg in prosthetic fitting; a. tibialcrest b. pretibials c. Fibular head d. Hamstring tendons
b. pretibials
44
45. A major concern in pediatric amputee is the: a. Bony overgrowth b. Choke syndrome c. contact dermatitis d. Skin infection
a. Bony overgrowth
45
46. A possible cause for an abducted gait deviation includes: a. Prosthesis too long d. A and C b.Abducted socket e. All of the above c. High medial wall
e. All of the above
46
47. Too much knee friction may cause: a. Medial whip b. lateral whip c. Excessive heel rise d. circumduction
d. circumduction
47
48. A patient with prosthesis who has an increase in lumbar lordosis may have: a. Inadequate suspention system b. too high anterior wall on prosthesis c. Insufficient support from the anterior wall d. Knee extension aid too tight
c. Insufficient support from the anterior wall
48
49. Pressure sensitive areas on a BK amputee include all of the following, except: a. Anterior distal stump b. Crest of tibia c. Patellar tendon d. head of fibula e. All of the above are sensitive areas
c. Patellar tendon
49
50. Pressure tolerant areas for an AK amputee include all of the following, **except**: a. Ischial seat b. lateral distal stump c. posterior stump d. Mediolateral stump e. All of the above are tolerant areas
**b. lateral distal stump**
50
51. The most common **suspension** system with a PT weight bearing socket is which of the following? a. Supracondylar cuff b. Silesian suspension c. Thigh corset d. no suspension system is needed
a. Supracondylar cuff
51
52. An AK amputee should be encouraged to exercise & place the stump in all of the following positions except: a. Hip adduction b. Hip flexion c. Hip abduction d. Hip extension
b. Hip flexion
52
53. When examining a patient with a new AK prosthesis, you notice that the heel on the involved foot moves **medially at toe-off.**Which of the following is the most likely cause of this deviation? a. The prosthesis is too long b. Excessive IR of the prosthetic knee c. The prosthesis is too short d. Excessive ER of the prosthetic knee
d. Excessive ER of the prosthetic knee Mostly baliktaran kasi as a way of **COMPENSATION**
53
54. You are assessing a patient for gait who is using an above knee prosthesis. You notice that the prosthetic knee appears **unstable** as you determine the knee flexion is occurring prematurely. After you have ruled out the prosthetic causes, which of the following patient causes could be a fault: a. The amputee may have hip extensor weakness b. The amputee may be using too much force c. The amputee may have faulty walking habits d. None of these would explain the problem
a. The amputee may have hip extensor weakness
54
55. You are recommending an adjustment to a patient's prosthesis in order to increase knee extension. How would you position the socket component in relation to the foot to accomplish this? a. Anterior c. Medial b. Posterior d. Lateral
b. Posterior
55
56. Which prosthetic foot is considered lightweight? a. Flex foot c. Seattle b. STEN d. SAFE
a. Flex foot
56
57. An abducted gait in an above-knee amputee is due to: a. a short prosthesis b. shank aligned in varus with respect to thigh c. high medial wall d. pain on the greater trochanter
c. high medial wall
57
58. The energy cost of crutch ambulation for a below-knee amputee without a prosthesis is: a. more than that with a prosthesis b. less than that with a prosthesis c. the same as that with a prosthesis d. dependent on the rate of speed of ambulation
a. more than that with a prosthesis
58
59. The additional energy expenditures of a wheelchair ambulant person as compared to normal individual is: a. 9% c. 10-19% b. 20-29% d. 2-3%
a. 9%
59
60. A patient with transfemoral amputation and an above-knee prosthesis demonstrates knee instability while standing. His knee buckles easily when he shifts his weight. The therapist suspects the cause of his problem is a: a. Prosthetic knee set too far posterior to the TKA line b. Prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the TKA line c. Weak gluteus medius d. Tight extension aid
b. Prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the TKA line
60
61. You are instructing a patient on how to use a reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO) with a walker. What is the correct sequence? a. She should shift her weight onto her walker & one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through b. She should shift her weight onto her walker, extend the upper trunk, and swing both legs forward together to approach the walker c. She should shift her weight onto one leg, and swing her other leg through while leaning on the walker d. You should not be teaching a patient to use a reciprocating gait orthosis with a walker
a. She should shift her weight onto her walker & one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through
61
62. These orthoses are used for severe paralytic disorders in children: a. Standing-Frame orthoses b. Ilfeld . c. PTB orthoses d. Scottish-Rite orthoses
a. Standing-Frame orthoses
62
63. Orthoses used for children with Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease, EXCEPT: a. Von Rosen b. Trilateral orthoses c. Toronto orthoses a. Scottish rite orthoses
a. Von Rosen
63
64. Provides greatest ease of donning? a. Balmoral b. Blucher c. Lace to toe a. None tofthe above
c. Lace to toe
64
65. These plastic designs provides great control for equinovarus? a. posterior leaf spring c. hemispiral b. AFO with flange d. Solid ankle
c. hemispiral
65
66. A patient exhibiting flexible pes valgus would most benefit from a combination of shoe modifications consisting of a: a. rocker bar, scaphoid pad and lateral sole wedge b. reverse Thomas heel, metatarsal bar and medial sole wedge c. Thomas heel, medial sole wedge and scaphoid pad d. rocker bar, metatarsal pad and Thomas heel
c. Thomas heel, medial sole wedge and scaphoid pad
66
67. A patient using an **ankle-foot orthosis** demonstrates excessive stride width during stance phase. To **try** and correct the problem, an appropriate strategy would be to: a. correct the foot outset b. correct the foot inset c. lower the height of the medial upright d. have the patient try a walking aid such as a cane
d. have the patient try a walking aid such as a cane
67
68. The following are knee orthoses of HKAFO that is used for genu recurvatum: a. All of the above b. supracondylar knee orthoses c. swedish knee cage d. three-way knee stabilizer e. none of the above
a. All of the above RECURVATUM NI LOR
68
69. You are treating a 16-year-old basketball player who sustained a grade ll inversion ankle sprain 16 days ago. Interventions for this phase of rehabilitation (**early subacute)**should include: a. rest, ice, compression, elevation (RICE) & crutch training b. Lower extremity functional strengthening specific to soccer c. Open-chain lower extremity exercises & contrast baths d. The fitting of an orthosis, closed-chain lower extremity strengthening, cardiovascular, & proprioceptive exercises
d. The fitting of an orthosis, closed-chain lower extremity strengthening, cardiovascular, & proprioceptive exercises EARLY SUBACUTE = CKC exercises!
69
70. Modifications used for management of heel stress or pain? a. SACH heel b. Heel elevation c. All of the above e. None of the above
a. SACH heel
70
71. Aka hyperextension brace? a. William b. Taylor c. Jewett d. cowhorn
c. Jewett
71
72. A patient presents with dysfunction of the medial longitudinal arch due to depression of the subtalar joint. The appropriate shoe insert for this patient is: a. Scaphoid pad b. Heel lift c. Pad over the transverse arch d. Thomas heel
a. Scaphoid pad
72
73. After examining a patient with foot pain, the therapist finds the following positive findings: reproduction of symptoms in weight-bearing and running on treadmill, pes planus and pain with palpation at the distal aspect of the calcaneus. Late sub-acute management, when pain is manageable/reduced, would include: a. Modalities to reduce pain and inflammation b. Examination of an orthosis c. Strengthening of ankle dorsiflexors d. Stretching of plantar fascia
b. Examination of an orthosis LATE SUB ACUTE!!
73
74. Which of the following shoe modifications may be prescribed for a patient with **gouty arthritis** affecting the third metatarsophalangeal joint? a. Metatarsal pad c. Rocker bottom b. Thomas heel d. Scaphoid pad e .U-shaped pad
e .U-shaped pad
74
75. A PT evaluates a patient during gait. The patient demonstrates excessive pronation of the right heel at heelstrike. Which of the following orthotic interventions is most appropriate to address the problem? a. Rearfoot varus posting b. Forefoot medial posting C. Rearfoot valgus posting d. Forefoot lateral posting
a. Rearfoot varus posting
75
76. An elderly patient has a diabetic neuropathy. Upon examination, the patient showed mediolateral instability of the left ankle while walking. The patient has fluctuating edema and glove stocking sensory loss in both lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate orthotic aid? a. Prefabricated plastic solid AFO b. Double upright metal AFO c. High top shoes d. Spiral AFO
b. Double upright metal AFO
76
77. A patient with a complete T10 paraplegia is receiving his initial ambulation training. He has received bilateral Craig-Scott KAFOs and is being trained with axillary crutches. Since a reciprocal gait pattern is **problematic** for him, the BEST **initial** gait pattern to teach him is: a. Four point c. Swing to b. Two point d. Swing through
c. Swing to
77
78. Characteristic of good shoe fit, except: a. Snug from heel to the ball of shoe b. Shoe longer than longest toe at least ½ inch c. Widest part of shoe should coincide with broadest part of foot d. None of the above
d. None of the above
78
79. UE orthoses for trigger finger? a. Plastic or silver ring splint b. Mallet slipover static splint c. PIP sleeve d. DIP sleeve
c. PIP sleeve
79
80. The most common type of axis used for KAFO? a. single c. double b. polycentric d. triple
a. single
80
81. Prosthesis that is aligned in abduction will cause the following gait deviation? a. Abducted gait b. Forward trunk bending c. Vaulting d. A and B e. A and C
d. A and B **Abducted gait** **Forward trunk bending**
81
82. Rotation of the foot at heel strike may be caused from: a. Knee bolt alignment improper b. Not enough resistance of PF bumper c. Too much resistance on heel cushion d. Not enough resistance on heel cushion
c. Too much resistance on heel cushion
82
83. An amputation where the pelvis and sacrum are removed below L4-L5: a. Chopart d. Hemipelvectomy b. Above knee e. Hip disarticulate c. Hemicorporectomy
c. Hemicorporectomy
83
84. Type of weight-bearing in quadrilateral socket: a. Patellar-tendon bearing b. Ischial weight bearing c. Ascending ischio-pubic ramus bearing d. None of these
b. Ischial weight bearing
84
85. Age of prosthesis fitting for an elbow unit in a child: a. 2 years old d. 4 years old b. 2-3 years old e. 5 years old c. 3 years old
b. 2-3 years old
85
86. All are factors contributing to prosthesis too long, except: a. Insecurity or fear b. Too small a socket c. Manual knee lock d. Foot set in excessive dorsiflexion e. Too loose suspension
d. Foot set in excessive dorsiflexion
86
87. Gait characteristic suggestive of good alignment in a BKA prosthesis includes the following, except: a. Walking base should be narrow approximately 5-10 cm b. The knee should flex 15-20 degrees after heel strike c. The patient must be comfortable while walking d. The toe should not scuff the floor during swing phase e. The foot should move smoothly & rapidly into full contact with the floor
b. The knee should flex 15-20 degrees after heel strike
87
88. Gait deviations for an AK prosthesis seen during swing phase part, except: a. Vaulting d. Circumduction b. Uneven heel rise e. None of these c. Terminal impact
e. None of these
88
89. Prosthetic socket used for elbow disarticulation: a. Standard socket b. Munster socket c. Single walled socket d. Three walled socket
c. Single walled socket
89
90. The most physiologic/ terminal device: a. Voluntary closing c. Myo-electric hand b. Voluntary opening d. Cosmetic hand
a. Voluntary closing
90
91. The most common knee locks used to control flexion is: a. offset knee joint B. drop ring lock c. adjustable knee lock d. pawl lock
B. drop ring lock
91
92. UE orthoses for mallet finger? a. PIP sleeve b. Thumb posterior splint with wrist strap c. Silver ring splint d. Mallet slipover static splint
d. Mallet slipover static splint
92
93. Type of spinal orthoses that controls flexion? a. Milwaukee b. Minerva c. William d. Cruciform
d. Cruciform
93
94. All are purposes of static splints, except: a. Support b. Immobilization c. Serial stretching d. None of the above
d. None of the above
94
95. Functions of basic collars? a. Provide mechanical restriction of forward flexion & extension and to a lesser degree lateral flexion & rotation b. Through sensory feedback it reminds wearer to limit head & neck motion c. Retain body heat which aid soft tissue healing & decrease spasm d. All of the above
d. All of the above
95
96. Recently, a 10-year-old patient has begun walking with supination of her foot. With her shoe off, the therapist finds a new callus on the lateral side of the metatarsal head of the **5th** toe. The BEST choice for orthotic prescription is: a. Viscoelastic shoe insert with forefoot medial wedge b. Scaphoid pad c. Thomas heel d. Viscoelastic shoe insert with forefoot lateral wedge
d. Viscoelastic shoe insert with forefoot lateral wedge
96
97. When performing scoliosis screening n a school setting, the optimal age to screen for boys is: a. 6 - 8 years b. 12 - 14 years C. 15 - 17 years d. 9 - 11 years
b. 12 - 14 years
97
98. Correction of flexible forefoot varus with excessive subtalar pronation is BEST accomplished by a customized orthosis with: a. Medial forefoot & rearfoot valgus posting b. Lateral forefoot & rearfoot varus posting c. Reartoot varus posting only d. Medial forefoot & rearfoot varus posting
d. Medial forefoot & rearfoot varus posting
98
99. A patient presents with pain of the right Achilles tendon as well as on the plantar aspect of the right heel. Pain developed insidiously & has now lasted several months. On gait analysis the therapist observes abnormal **supination** throughout the stance phase of gait. The BEST choice for orthotic intervention is a: a. Cushion heel with a rearfoot valgus posting b. UCBL insert c. Flexible shoe insert with forefoot varus post d. Metatarsal pad
a. Cushion heel with a rearfoot valgus posting
99
100. A patient is using a left KAFO. During orthotic checkout, the therapist discovers that the height of the medial upright is excessive. As weight is transferred onto the orthotic leg during gait, the therapist expects that this patient will demonstrate: a. Posterior trunk bending b. Lateral lean toward the left C. Lateral lean toward the right d. Anterior trunk bending
b. Lateral lean toward the left - I/L SA KAFO!!!
100
34. Type of orthoses used by scoliotic pts for curves below T8 level EXCEPT: a. Milwaukee c. Wilmington b. Boston d. Yamamoto
a. Milwaukee BO WA YA