Orthopaedics 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteochondritis Dissecans

  1. What is it?
  2. What clinical features are seen?
  3. What is seen on investigation?
A
  1. pathological process affecting subchondral bone - most commonly the knee in children and young adults
    • knee pain and swelling especially after exercise
    • knee locking / catching / giving way - more constant and severe symptoms if loose bodies
    • ‘clunk’ when flexing and extending the knee implies lateral femoral condyle involvement

O/E:

  • joint effusion
  • tenderness on palpation of medial femoral condyle cartilage
  • Wilson’s sign: flex knee at 90 degrees with internally rotated tibia, gradually extend knee, at about 30 degrees patient feels pain, at this point external rotation of tibia relieves the pain
  1. XR - crescent sign or loose bodies
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2
Q

Osteomyelitis

  1. a) What is the most common cause?
    b) What is the most common cause in sickle cell?
  2. Who is most likely to get:
    a) haematogenous spread
    b) non-haematogenous spread

NOTE: non-haematogenous often polymicrobial

  1. What is the investigation of choice?
  2. How is it managed?
A
  1. a) staph aureus
    b) salmonella
  2. a)
    age: more common type in children
    RFs:
    - sickle cell
    - immunosuppression (HIV or medication)
    - infective endocarditis
    - IVDU

THINK: sickle cell has own subtype of bacteria, IE and IVDU go together

b)
age: most common type in adults
RFs:
- diabetes
- PAD

  1. MRI
  2. flucloxacillin for 6 weeks (think about most causative bacteria!)
    clindamycin if penicillin allergic
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3
Q

Osteoporotic Fracture

  1. What are the RFs for osteoporotic fracture?
  2. What clinical features can be seen for osteoporotic vertebral fractures?
  3. a) What is the investigation of choice?
    b) What appearance would old fractures have?
A
    • history of fragility fracture
    • family history of hip fracture
    • low BMI
    • history of falls
    • smoking
    • alcohol
    • long term steroid use
    • secondary osteoporosis: cushing’s disease, hyperthyroidism, chronic renal disease

mnemonic: think of in pairs

    • acute back pain
    • breathlessness / GI symptoms due to compression of organs

O/E:

  • loss of height
  • kyphosis
  • tenderness on palpation of fracture site

also remember can be asymptomatic presenting as incidental finding on XR

  1. a) XR
    b) sclerotic appearance
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4
Q

Osteoporosis: Assessing risk

  1. What do the FRAX and QFracture scores assess?
  2. What should be done if a patient is assessed as
    a) low risk
    b) medium risk
    c) high risk?
A
  1. 10 year risk of fracture
  2. a) reassure + lifestyle advice
    b) bone mineral density test
    c) offer bone protection treatment
    (bisphonates [always end …dronic acid] +/- calcium and vitamin D)
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5
Q

Paediatric fractures

  1. What is meant by the following fracture types
    a) complete fracture
    b) toddler’s deformity
    c) plastic deformity
    d) greenstick fracture
    e) Buckle or torus fracture
  2. Salter-Harris system assesses growth plate fractures. State what is meant by
    a) Type I
    b) Type II
    c) Type III
    d) Type IV
    e) Type V
A
  1. a) typical fracture where both sides of bone are breached causing bone to be in 2 separate pieces

b) oblique tibial fracture in infants
c) stress on bone causing deformity without cortical disruption
d) unilateral cortical disruption - I.e. bone cracked +/- bent but not in 2 separate pieces
e) (similarly to greenstick) incomplete cortical disruption (similarly to greenstick) which causes periosteal heamatoma appearing as bulge on XR

  1. a) involves physis
    b) involves metaphysis + physis
    c) involves physis + epiphysis (therefore involves joint - intraarticular)
    d) involves metaphysis, physis + epiphysis
    e) crush fracture of physis (so therefore XR appears as type I or normal)
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6
Q

What should you suspect if lack of differentiation between cortex and medulla (“marble bone”) is seen on XR?

A

autosomal recessive osteoporosis

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7
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

  1. What is it?
  2. What is seen on radiology?
A
  1. defective production of osteoid and collagen
    • multiple fractures
    • irregular patches of ossification “workman bones”
    • translucent bones
    • trefoil pelvis - softening of pelvis causes acetabuli to indent further

mnemonic: need to be wrapped in a MITT as they’re so likely to fracture

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8
Q

Planter Fasciitis

  1. What is it?
  2. What clinical feature is seen?
  3. How is it managed?
A
  1. inflammation of band of tissue running along bottom of foot
  2. foot pain worst at medial calcaneal tuberosity
    • rest feet where possible
    • wear shoes with good arch support + cushioning
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9
Q

Facet joint pain

  1. Is it acute or chronic?
  2. What clinical features are seen?
A
  1. can be BOTH!
  2. pain worse on:
    - standing
    - extending the back
    - the morning
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10
Q

Rib Fracture

  1. What clinical features are seen?
  2. What investigation is done?
  3. How is it managed?
  4. Flail chest
    a) What is it?
    b) How is it managed?
A

1.

  • sharp chest wall pain worse on deep breathing or coughing
  • chest wall tenderness at fracture site

remember: may have associated lung injury
2. CT

    • good analgesia so that breathing is not effected by pain
    • > inadequate ventilation could predispose to chest infection
  1. a) two or more rib fractures along 3 or more consecutive ribs with flail segment moving paradoxically during inspiration

b) can cause serious lung injury so therefore often requires invasive ventilation and surgical fixation

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11
Q

Rotator Cuff Injury

  1. State the spectrum of disease of rotator cuff injury?
  2. What clinical feature is seen (and how is it seen in different types)?
A
    • impingement
    • calcific tendonitis
    • rotator cuff tears / arthropathy
  1. shoulder pain worse on abduction
    - pain in first 60 degrees = rotator cuff tear
    - pain between 60-120 degrees likely impingement syndrome
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12
Q

Scaphoid Fracture

  1. What causes it?
  2. What neuromuscular structure is most likely to be damaged?
  3. What clinical features are seen?
  4. When and what investigations are carried out?
  5. How is it managed?
  6. What are the complications of scaphoid fracture?
A
  1. FOOSH
  2. dorsal carpal branch of radial artery (which also give scaphoid 80% of its blood supply
  3. pain:
    - at radial aspect of wrist at thumb base
    - on longitudinal compression of the thumb “telescoping”
    - on ulnar deviation of the wrist

tenderness

  • maximal over anatomical snuff box
  • over scaphoid tubercle (volar aspect of wrist)

wrist joint effusion
(may be absent if injury <4hrs old or >4 days old)

loss of grip / pinch strength

  1. AP + lateral XRs (80% sensitive)
    MRI or CT 7-10 days later if XR normal but clinical suspicion continues
  2. initial: immobilisation with Futuro splint or standard below elbow backslab

undisplaced fracture: cast for 6-8 weeks

displaced or proximal pole fractures: surgical fixation

  1. non-union (pain and OA)
    avascular necrosis
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13
Q

Shoulder Dislocation

  1. What is by far the most common type?
  2. When can reduction be attempted without analgesia / sedation?
A
  1. anterior

2. if dislocation is recent

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14
Q

Proximal humerus fractures

  1. Where normally is the fracture?
  2. When is there a risk of avascular necrosis to the humeral head?
A
  1. surgical neck

2. anatomical neck fractures displaced by >1cm

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15
Q

Anterior shoulder dislocation

  1. What is the mechanism of injury?
  2. In what percentage of patients will it be recurrent ?
  3. What is it associated with?
A
  1. violent force in external rotation + abduction
  2. 35-40%
    • Bankhart lesion: tear in anterior inferior glenoid labrum
    • Hill Sachs lesion: bony indent at back of humeral head as when it exits cavity collides with glenoid cavity
    • greater tuberosity fracture
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