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BBS- 2nd bimonthly > Orthomyxovirus and Paramyxovirus > Flashcards

Orthomyxovirus and Paramyxovirus Flashcards

1
Q

o Contain seven segments of RNA

o Lacks a neuraminidase gene

A

Influenza C

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2
Q
  • Virus-encoded glycoproteins
  • Inserted into the lipid envelope
  • Determine antigenic variation and host immunity
A

HA and NA

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3
Q
  • Protein in viral envelope - Used as an attachment/entry receptor - Binds to N-acetylneuraminic acid on the host cell glycolipids or glycoproteins - Hemagglutinin hydrolysed by host cell proteases to created infectious virion
A

HA

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4
Q

Functions at the end of the viral replication cycle

A

NA

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5
Q

Facilitates release of virus particles from infected cell surfaces during budding

A

NA

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6
Q

Helps the virus negotiate thought the mucin layer in the respiratory tract to reach the target epithelial cells

A

NA

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7
Q
  • Antigenically highly variable
  • Responsible for most cases of epidemic influenza
  • Also know for some animals (birds, pugs, horses, and seals)
A

Influenza A

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8
Q

May exhibit antigenic changes

- Can sometimes cause epidemics

A

Influenza B

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9
Q
  • Antigenically stable

- Cause on mild illness in immunocompetent individuals

A

Influenza C

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10
Q

Segmented nature of the genome

A

GENETIC REASSORTMENT

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11
Q

Result in hidden changes in viral surface antigens

A

GENETIC REASSORTMENT

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12
Q

interval between epidemic waves of influenza A

A

Every 2-3 years

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13
Q

a new subtype of influenza A appears and a pandemic may result

A

Every 10-40 years

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14
Q
  • Early 2009
  • Novel swine-origin H1N1 virus
  • Pandemic spread by mid-year
  • Was a quadruple reassortment
  • 18,000 deaths
  • Has become a seasonal influenza virus
A

A (H1N1)

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15
Q

Reflects drastic changes in the sequences of viral surface protein, cause by genetic reassortment between human, swine, avian influenza viruses

A

Antigenic Shift

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16
Q
  • Most likely to result in an epidemic
  • Gives rise to pandemics of influenza A
  • Seasonal influenza
A

Antigenic Shift

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17
Q
  • minor antigenic changes
  • caused by the accumulation of point mutations in the genes
  • resulting in amino acid changes in the protein a variant must sustain two of more mutations before a new, epidemiologically significant strain emerges
  • causes yearly epidemics
  • pandemic influenza
  • sequence changes can alter antigenic sites on the molecule such that a virion can escape recognition by the host’s immune system
A

Antigenic drift

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18
Q

alter antigenic sites on the molecule such that a virion can escape recognition by the host’s immune system

A

Sequence changes

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19
Q

Incubation period of Influenza virus

A

1-4 days

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20
Q

MOT of Influenza Virus

A

person to person by airborne droplets or contact with contaminated hands or surfaces

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21
Q

Viral shedding of the Influenza virus.

Peaks within _______

A

24hrs

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22
Q

Influenza virus remain elevated for

A

1-2 days

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23
Q

Declines over the next _____

A

5 days

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24
Q

What are the immune defense against Influenza virus?

A

o Cough reflex
o Neutralization by preexisting specific immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibodies
o Inactivation by non-specific inhibitors in the mucous secretions

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25
Q

lowers viscosity of mucous film in respiratory tract
o Lays bare the cellular surface receptors
o Promotes the spread of virus-containing fluid to lower portions of the tract

A

Viral Neuraminidase

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26
Q

cause cellular destruction of the superficial mucosa of the respiratory tract
o Do not affect basal layer of epithelium
o Lowers its resistance to secondary bacterial pathogen

A

Influenza infection

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27
Q

detectable respiratory secretions 1 day after viral shedding begins

A

Interferon

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28
Q

Wha are the Local symptoms of Inluenza virus?

A

Edema and PMN infiltration

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29
Q

Wha are the fever and systemic symptoms of influenza virus?

A

Action of cytokines

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30
Q

It causes Chills, headache, dry cough followed closely by high fever, generalized muscular aches, malaise, and anorexia.

A

Uncomplicated influenza

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31
Q

Fever in uncomplicated influenza lasts for _______

A

3-5 days

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32
Q

Respiratory Sx of uncomplicated influenza lasts another ______

A

3-4 days

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33
Q

Cough and weakness of uncomplicated influenza may persist for ________

A

2-4 weeks

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34
Q

similar to those in adults although children may have higher fever and a higher incidence of GI manifestations such as vomiting + febrile seizures may occur

A

Uncomplicated influenza in children

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35
Q

Important cause if croup

A

Influenza A virus

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36
Q

Serious complications occur only in elderly adults and debilitated individuals, especially those with underlying chronic disease

A

Pneumonia

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37
Q

Attributed to loss of ciliary clearance, dysfunction of phagocytic cells, and provision of a rich bacterial growth medium by alveolar exudate

A

Pneumonia

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38
Q

What are the bacterial pathogen of Penumonia

A

S. Aureus
Step pneumonia
H. Influenza

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39
Q

It is an An acute encephalopathy of children and adolescents )2-16 years old)

A

Reye syndrome

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40
Q

Mortality rate of Reye Syndrome

A

10-40%

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41
Q

Persists for months or years in regards to protecion correlates of Influenza virus

A

Serum antibodies

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42
Q
  • Individual develops antibodies to flu antigens after first exposure
  • On 2nd exposure antigens changed inducing a new array of antibodies
  • When a viral type undergoes antigenic drift, a person with preexisting antibody to the original strain may have only mild infection with the new strain
A

Original Antigenic Sin

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43
Q

In regards to the Lab diagnosis of Influenza virus, Specimens should be obtained within ______ after the onset of symptoms

A

3 days

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44
Q

What are the 3 specimens obtained for the lab diagnosis of influenza virus?

A

o Nasopharyngeal swabs o Nasal aspirate o Lavage fluid

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45
Q

identification of viral antigens or viral nucleic acid
▪ Preferred
▪ Rapid (<1 day) sensitive and specific

A

RT PCR

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46
Q

isolation of the virus of the Influnza virus

A

Cell structure

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47
Q

demonstration of a specific immunologic response

A

Serology

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48
Q

When should Drugs must be administered in the disease to be maximally effective?

A

Very early in the diasease

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49
Q
  • M2 ion channel inhibitors
    – blocks viral uncoating
    -Treatment and prophylaxis of influenza A
A

Amantidine hydrochloride and rimantadine (analog)

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50
Q
  • NA inhibitors - Useful treatment for both influenza A and B
A

Zanamivir, oseltamivir, and peramivir

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51
Q

Do inactive viral vaccines generate good local IgA or cell-mediated immune responses

A

NO!

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52
Q

Contraindication of vaccines for Influenza virus

A

History of allergy to egg protein

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53
Q

Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for:

o All children ages ________

A

6 months to 18 years

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54
Q

High risk groups in vaccination to influenza virus

A

▪ Chronic hear of lunch disease (asthma)
▪ Metabolic or renal disorders
▪ Resident nursing homes
▪ Persons infected with the human immunodeficiency virus
▪ 65 years of age and older

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55
Q

All member initiate infection via the respiratory tract

A

Paramyxoviruses

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56
Q

Respiratory pathogens: replication is limited to the respiratory epithelia

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Para influenza virus

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57
Q

Disseminated causing generalized disease

A

Mumps and measles virus

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58
Q
  • Spherical, pleomorphic, with helical nucleocapsid

- Single-stranded, linear, RNA genome, non-segmented, negative sense

A

Paramyxoviruses

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59
Q

mediates membrane fusion and hemolysin activity; causes fusion of adjacent cell membranes resulting in formation of large syncytia

A

F glycoprotein

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60
Q

Replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, particles bud from the plasma membrane of the host cell

A

Paramyxoviruses

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61
Q

MOT of Parainfluenza viruses

A

direct person to person contact and large droplet aerosols

62
Q

IP of PIV

A

5-6 days

63
Q

What causes LTB (Croup)?

A

PIV Type 1 and 2

64
Q

LTB occurs in children _______

A

6-18 months

65
Q

Presents with stridor and a barking cough (like a seal) occur due to narrowed airways

A

PIV

66
Q

What causes Bronchiolitis and Pneumonia?

A

PIV Type 3

67
Q

Most common complication of Pneumonia and Bronchiolitis

A

Otitis media

68
Q

What happen to patients with immunocompromised affectedcwith PIV?

A

Severe infection

69
Q

PIV shedding is about _______ after the onset of illness

A

1 week

70
Q

Some children may excrete virus several days _____ to illness

A

Prior

71
Q

may be excreted for up to 4 weeks after onset of primary infection

A

Type 3

72
Q

Type 3- may be excreted for up to ______ after onset of primary infection

A

4 weeks

73
Q

Most prevalent; 2/4 of infants are infected during the 1st year of life, all have antibodies at age 2

A

Type 3 PIV

74
Q

most important protection against reinfection (disappear within a few months)

A

Secretory IgA

75
Q

In the Lab diagnosis of PIV RT PCR is used to ______.

A

Nucleic acid detection test

76
Q

In lab diagnosis of PIV, this is used to detect antigens in exfoliated nasopharyngeal cells – rapid but less sensitive

A

Direct and indirect immunofluorescence test

77
Q

In lab diagnosis of PIV, the use of _______ is continuous for the isolation of virus.

A

monkey kidney cell line LLC-MK2

78
Q

a. Based on paired sera

b. a four-fold rise in titer is indicative of infection (ELISA, neutralization, HI tests)

A

Serology

79
Q

for treatment of immunocompromised patients with lower respiratory tract disease

A

Ribavirin

80
Q

Prevention of PIV

A
  • isolation of infected patients - gowning and hand-washing by medical personnel - no vaccine available
81
Q
  • does not have a hemagglutinin

- the most common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants under 1 year of age

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

82
Q

IP of RSV

A

3-5 days

83
Q

In viral shedding of RSV,
o Persists for _______ in infants and young children
o While adults shed only for ________

A

Children: 1-3 weeks
Adult: 1-2 days

84
Q

important determination of successful infection in RSV

A

Inoculum size

85
Q

Although the virus is very labile, it can survive on environmental surfaces for up to 6 hours

A

RSV

86
Q

Main portal of entry of RSV

A

Eyes and nose

87
Q

MOT of RSV Infection

A

large droplet and direct contact

88
Q

most important cause of viral pneumonia in infants and young children

A

RSV

89
Q 
Its clinical maninfestation includes:
Common cold
Pneumonia
Bronchiolitis
Otitis Media
A

RSV

90
Q

Does RSV an effective inducer of interferon?

A

No

91
Q

important in recovery from infection of RSV

A

Cellular immunity

92
Q

have been correlated with occurrence of bronchiolitis

A

Viral secretory IgE antibodies

93
Q

Most sensitive for viral isolation of RSV

A

HeLa and HEp-2

94
Q

How to treat patients with RSV

A

Supportive removal of secretions and oxygen administration

95
Q

Given in infants with lower respiratory tract at high rish for severe disease

A

Ribavirin

96
Q

Ribavirin is Administered in an aerosol for _________

A

3-6 days

97
Q

A respiratory pathogen described in 2001

A

HUMAN METAPNEUMOVIRUS

98
Q

Infection occurs in all age groups, but especially in pediatric patients

A

HUMAN METAPNEUMOVIRUS

99
Q

IP of Human Metapnuemovirus

A

4-9 days

100
Q

In shedding of Human Metapneumivirus.
Children: _____
Immunocompromised: _______

A

5 days

Several weeks

101
Q

method of choice for Lab diagnosis of Human metapneumovirus

A

RT-PCR Assay

102
Q

Treatment for human metapneumovirus

A

No specific therapy and no vaccine available

103
Q

Only known natural host of mumps virus infection

A

Human

104
Q

IP of mumps

A

14-18 days

105
Q

Primary replication occurs in __________ → circulation → salivary glands and other organs (kidneys and CNS)

A

nasal or URT epithelial cells

106
Q

Viral shedding in saliva in mumps

A

3 days before to 9 days after the onset of salivary gland swelling

107
Q

▪ Appear 3-7 days after onset of clinical syptoms

▪ Disappear within 6 months

A

Nucleocapsid protein

108
Q

Develop ~4 weeks and persist for years

A

HN glycoprotein

109
Q

Passive immunity from mother to offspring

Cell-mediated immune response also develops

A

Immunity of mumps

110
Q

Nucleic acid detection in mumps infection

A

RT-PCR assay

111
Q

This is used for the Isolation and identification of the virus

A

saliva, CSF, urine (up to 2 weeks)

112
Q

Mumos infection is Highest incidence in ________

A

children aged 5-9 yrs

113
Q

MOT of mumps infection

A

direct contact, airborne droplets, or fomites contaminated by saliva or urine

114
Q

Treatment and prevention of mumps infection

A

No specific therapy

115
Q

Vaccine of mumps virus

A

attenuated live mump virus (MMR)

116
Q

Receptor of Measles

A

CD 46 or CD 150

117
Q

IP of Rubeola

A

8-15 days

3 weeks in children

118
Q

MOT of Rubeola

A

inhalation of large droplets on infected secretions → respiratory tract → regional LN → blood → RES → blood → skin, RT, conjunctiva

119
Q

In Rubeola, Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are seen in lymphoid tissues throughout the body

A

Warthin-finkeldey cells)

120
Q

pathognomonic for measles; small, bluish-white ulcerations on the buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars that appear two days before the rash

A

Koplik’s spot

121
Q

In phases of Measles, maculo-papular rash spreading cephalocaudally; results to brownish desquamation in 5-10 days; px is contagious during the prodromal phase and the first 2-5 days of rash

A

Eruptive stage

122
Q

Most common complication of rubeola

A

Otitis media

123
Q

most common life-threatening of rubeola

A

Pneumonia

124
Q

most serious complication of Rubeola

A

Acute-encephalitis

125
Q

Progressive mental deterioration, involuntary movements, muscular rigidity and come

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

126
Q

When is SSPE usually fatal?

A

Within 1-3 years after onset

127
Q
  • Highly contagious
  • A single serotype
  • No animal reservoir
  • Inapparent infections are rare
  • Infections confer lifelong immunity
A

Rubeola/Measles

128
Q

Cause of encephalitis outbreaks in Australia and in Malaysia

A

Hendra and Nipah virus

129
Q

▪ from pigs to humans
▪ cause severe encephalitis
▪ associated high mortality rate

A

Nipah virus

130
Q

▪ equine – humans
▪ equine virus
▪ also causes encephalitis
▪ results to high mortality rate

A

Hendra virus

131
Q

Natural host for Hendra and Nipa virus

A

Fruit bats

132
Q

No vaccine, no proven therapies available

A

Henipavirus

133
Q

Large, enveloped viruses with widely-spaced club or petal shaped spikes (S glycoprotein)

  • Spherical virion with helical nucleocapsid
  • Single-stranded, linear RNA genome-non-segmented, positive sense
A

Coronavirus

134
Q

Contain another glycoprotein, hemagglutinin esterase (HE)

A

Human coronavirus OC43 (HCoV-OC43)

135
Q

Replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, particles mature by budding into the ER and Golgi apparatus

A

Human coronavirus OC43 (HCoV-OC43)

136
Q

What are the Six coronaviruses that infect humans?

A

o Alpha coronaviruses 229E
NL63
o Beta coronaviruses OC43, HKU1
o SARS-CoV o MERS-CoV

137
Q

Exhibit a high frequency of mutation and recombination during replication

A

Coronavirus

138
Q

Difficult to grow in cell culture

A

Coronavirus

139
Q

In humans, usually limited to infections of respiratory tract

A

Coronavirus

140
Q

MOT Of Coronavirus

A 
o airborne (close contacts) 
o fomites: frequently touched surfaces
141
Q

This occurs in in adults (15-30% of all colds) of patients with coronoviruse

A

Common colds

142
Q

IP of coronavirus

A

2-5 days, Sx lasting for 1 week without fever

143
Q

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome: pneumonia and progressive respiratory failure

A

SARS

144
Q

IP of SARS

A

6 days

145
Q

Its symptoms are fever, malaise, chills, headache, dizziness, cough, and sore throat

A

SARS

146
Q

Its symptoms in the long run are the: shortness of breath – may rapidly progress of acute respiratory distress

A

SARS

147
Q

o Pneumonia and progressive respiratory failure
o Most px who died had medical comorbidities
o Likely originated in bats and camels

A

MERS-COV (2012)

148
Q

Used to detect coronavirus antigens in cells in respiratory secretions in patients with SARS

A

ELISA Test

149
Q

to detect coronavirus nucleic acid in respiratory secretions and in stool, and plasma – between day 4 and 8 infection

A

PCR

150
Q

Difficult to culture; however, SARS virus was recovered from oropharyngeal specimens using _________

A

Vero monkey kidney cells

151
Q

How to prevent patients with SARS?

A
  • Isolation of patients
  • Quarantine of those who have been exposed
  • Travel restrictions
  • Use of gloves, gowns, goggles, and respirators by health care workers

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