Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dentistry year 4 - Module 8 > Orthodontics > Flashcards

Orthodontics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

Patients undergoing orthodontic

treatment may commonly experience discomfort for a few days after the appliance is fitted or adjusted.

why

A

This is a result of the physiological changes occurring within the periodontal ligament (PDL). As forces are applied to the teeth during orthodontic treatment, the PDL is compressed and stretched. These changes cause the cells within the PDL to release chemical messengers that initiate an inflammatory cascade to cause the pattern of bone resorption and deposition required for tooth

Unfortunately, these chemical

messengers, coupled with the reduced blood flow due to compression of the PDL, stimulates pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anti-inflammatory analgesics,

such as Ibuprofen, have been proven to be effective at reducing pain. 4,5 However, as many of these medications work by inhibiting chemical messengers involved in the inflammatory response that causes pain,

why might this be a problem during orthodontic treatment

A

they have the potential to affect the inflammatory process required for tooth movement.

Fortunately, this is not seen when such analgesics are used in low doses and for short durations, as is usually the case when managing orthodontic related pain. 3 Therefore anti-inflammatories, such as Ibuprofen

400 mg taken three time daily, are still the most commonly used and recommended method of orthodontic-related pain relie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The use of orthodontic appliances

is associated with oral lesions, such as erosions and ulcers. The irritation from the appliance can either precipitate or exacerbate such

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

relief is achievable with the use of

A

relief is achievable with the use of topical anaesthetic directly applied to the site with a microbrush. The patient can then be advised to re-apply topical anaesthetic to the lesion as required

Antiseptic mouthwashes, such

as chlorhexidine, may be a useful aid in managing ulcerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is this and why is it used

A

orthodontic wax

pliable material that can be used to cover prominent components of the orthodontic appliance to prevent it from irritating the soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do you manage trapped food in orthodontic appliance

A

This is easily treated using dental floss or an interdental brush to gently remove the food from between the tooth and the appliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patients may report that their

braces are irritating the lips/cheeks; this often occurs soon after the appliance is initially fitted and is usually more pronounced when the patient is eating. Treatment involves placing

A

placing non-medicated relief wax over the area causing irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ligatures are the small wires

or elastic bands that hold the archwire to the bracket. When an elastic ligature becomes loose it can be repositioned using tweezers. If a wire ligature becomes loose, do not attempt to

A

do not attempt to replace it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a ligature is lost then the

archwire is not secured within the bracket and may result in a reduction in the effectiveness of the appliance on the tooth. Therefore, the orthodontist should be

A

notified so that he/she can advise when the patient should arrange for it to be replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sometimes the end of the

archwire protruding distal to the last bracket/ band can start to irritate the patient’s mouth. The wire should be

A

The wire should be bent so that it is flat against the tooth and not protruding into the soft tissues. This can be done with wire benders or a flat plastic. If this is not possible, then the end of the wire can be covered in relief wax and the orthodontist should be informed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

. In situations where the protruding wire is causing significant discomfort and the patient will not be able to see his/her orthodontist urgently, then the wire can be clipped using sharp wire cutters or distal-end cutters. Alternatively, the whole wire can be removed by first removing the ligatures then removing the wire, however, this should be a very last resort. It is important to avoid inhalation or ingestion of the small piece of wire after it has been cut. This can be achieved by using gauze around the area and/or distal end-cutters which grip the snipped piece of wire after it has been cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Occasionally, removable

appliances break. If this happens, the orthodontist should be informed as soon as possible and will then take the appropriate

action. The patient should be advised to stop using the appliance if the damage renders the appliance a potential

A

airway risk or will cause marked trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Components, such as a

palatal/lingual arch or a molar band, can fracture or become loose causing irritation or trauma to the patient. If the component is not mobile, it should be covered with

A

orthodontic relief wax and a review appointment arranged with the orthodontist. However, if the component is very mobile or loose, it can carefully be removed with tweezers whilst protecting the airway to prevent inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Orthodontic retainers are either

fixed or removable and their purpose is to hold the teeth in their new position after

A

active treatment is complete. It is now widely accepted that patients should wear their retainers long term to prevent relapse, which can be for many decades. However, patients are usually discharged from their orthodontist 12 months after the active treatment has been completed. Therefore, patients may present to their GDP if they have lost or broken their retainer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Removable retainers can easily be repaired if the damage is minor. An accurate impression of the arch should be taken and sent to the laboratory with the broken appliance. However, if the damage is more extensive, or the appliance is lost, a new retainer will need to be made. To do this, an accurate impression of the arch is required and the type and design of the retainer should be clearly stated on the laboratory ticket

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fixed retainers are bonded to

A

the palatal/lingual surface of teeth and are used where even minimal amounts of tooth movement are deemed unacceptable by the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a fixed retainer de-bonds from a tooth but is securely attached to adjacent teeth and lies passively on the tooth in question, it can be re-bonded. This is done by carefully removing any residual composite, preparing the tooth surface with acid etch and bond and replacing the composite to secure the wire without distorting it.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most common allergy in orthodontics is to

A

Nickel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Owing to the popularity of nickel-containing jewellery and body piercings, many patients have been exposed to nickel before undergoing orthodontic treatment and may be sensitized to the metal. This can precipitate a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity immune response when they are re-exposed to nickel in orthodontic appliances.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

s not usually immediate but develops after a few days or weeks so that patients may present to a GDP first. The intra-oral clinical signs and symptoms can be quite varied but may include

A

include gingivitis not caused by plaque, gingival hyperplasia, labial desquamation, burning sensation, metallic taste, angular cheilitis, numbness/altered sensation, labial swelling or soreness of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fortunately, the majority of

patients who are sensitized to nickel can still wear nickel-containing orthodontic appliances without eliciting a response, as it is thought that a much

A

higher concentration of nickel is needed to produce a response in the oral mucosa than is required on the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Airway obstruction

A true emergency arises when

a loose component or small removable appliance obstructs the airway. If the object is still visible in the mouth, attempts should be made to remove it with the patient reclined, otherwise the patient should be encouraged to cough the object out. If this is not successful immediately, call for help and call an ambulance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ingestion of an orthodontic

component or appliance is not uncommon, and is usually asymptomatic and causes no injury to the patient, therefore requiring no treatment besides monitoring the stool to check that the component has passed naturally. However, if the component becomes lodged in the oesophagus or oropharynx, the patient may experience pain or vomiting. In such situations, the patient should immediately

A

be sent to hospital for advice and management, ideally with an example of the component that has been ingested. If the component has not yet reached the stomach it can be removed via fibre-optic endoscopy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Regardless of the symptoms,

a patient should always be referred to the Accident and Emergency (A+E) department at a local hospital when the ingested component is more than how many cm long

A

component is more than 5 cm long as there is a higher risk of obstruction and perforation of the gastrointestinal tract, so removal may be advised instead of allowing the component to pass naturally. It is important when a patient is sent to the hospital that the referral letter includes information about the component, such as its size, shape, flexibility and radio-opacity, as well as information about the incident, such as when the object was swallowed. This will help in locating the component and predicting the outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

removable appliance fabricated mainly in

A

acrylic and wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  • Removable appliances are not
    permanently attached to
A

teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the active components for removable appliances

A

Active components: springs,
biteplanes,
screws, and bows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is this types of removable appliance

A
  1. space maintainer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is this type of removable appliance

A

presurgical infant orthopedics for cleft lip and palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is this type of removable appliance

A

active plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is this type of removable appliance

A

retainer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is this type of removable appliance

A

functional appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the advantages of removeable appliances

A
  1. Can be removed for OH and sports
    * Increased anchorage
    * Easy to adjust
    * Less iatrogenic damage
    * Baseplate can be modified
    * Good at moving blocks of teeth
    * Can be passive
    * Lower cost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the disadvantages of removeable appliances

A
  1. Need good patient compliance
    * Limited movements- tipping
    * Affects speech
    * Technician required
    * Lower appliances difficult to
    tolerate
    * Inefficient at multiple tooth
    movements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the components of a removeable appliance

A

. Active components
* Retentive components
* Anchorage
* Baseplate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the function of springs as an active component

A

to move a single tooth or groups of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

springs are constructed using stainless steel wire, what thickness is it cut at?

A

0.5mm

0.7mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

force and deflection of stainless steel spring is calculated using this formula

F = d.r4/l3

what does the RDI stand for

A

R = radius of the wire

D = deflection of the wire

I = Length of the wire

increasing the radius of the wire by 2 will result in the force applied increasing by 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

to achieve single tooth movement no more than how much gram can be applied to the tooth

A

25-40 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how do reduce the tipping tendency to a minimum with springs

A

apply force close to the gingival margin of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the function of a Z-spring

A

It is used to push one anterior tooth from the lingual (palatal) side in a labial direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the function of a T spring

A

T Spring is used for the buccal movement of a single premolar or molar tooth. Good retention is required to resist the displacing effect of the spring. Activation is by pulling the spring away from the acrylic at an angle of 45°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is function of palatal finger springs

A

Palatal finger springs are often used in removable orthodontic appliances to tip teeth in a mesiodistal direction. There is general consensus that a force of 30-50 g is required to tip a single-rooted tooth, with an activation of about 3 mm for a spring with a load/deflection rate (LDR) of 15 g/mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the function of buccal canine retractors

A

Buccal Canine Retractor: The buccal canine retractor is used when the tooth must be moved palatally and distally. It is made of 0.7mm stainless steel wire to provide sufficient strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

screws can be embedded into the baseplate.

this can be activated by the patient turning a key, causing expansion or distalisation (gain space by moving posterior teeth distally)

how many ways can an active screw expand?

and for each quarter turn on the screw how much does it separate?

A

an active screw can expand x2 or x3 ways

each quarter turn increases the separation by 0.25mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is an adams clasp

A

An Adams clasp is a component used to retain a custom-made medical device in the mouth. The clasp functions by engaging the mesiobuccal and distobuccal undercuts of a tooth, typically the maxillary first molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  • Adams’ or Delta cribs – mainly used on
A

n molars and premolars
but can be incisors and canines. Cribs are less effective on
primary teeth- less undercut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what type of hook is this

A

ball hook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

adams clasp/crib engages undercuts at the mesial and distal corners of the edges, it should engage in how much of the undercut

A

1mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is newtons third law

A

for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is anchorage

A

Anchorage in orthodontics is defined as a way of resisting movement of a tooth or number of teeth by using different techniques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is a URA

A

upper removeable appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is a base plate

A

Acrylic base plate. The material most often used for base plate is cold cure or heat cure acrylic. It forms a major part of the removable appliance. Base plate acts as a support for pressure sources and distributes the reaction of these forces to the anchorage areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how does a base plate support anchorage

A

through palatal coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what must you do when fitting in a removeable appliance

A
  • Check that the appliance is the correct one for the patient!
  • Check acrylic for sharp edges (esp. in palatal rugae area)
  • Fit appliance in patients mouth. Note any rocking, or areas that do not fit and
    adjust if necessary
  • Tighten clasps and check retention
  • Activate springs and check that teeth are free to move (trim acrylic if necessary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are aligners

A

Clear, removable plastic appliances which can produce small
tooth movements.

Treatment involves a series of aligners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

who can provide aligners as treatment

A

Specialists and dentists who have sought appropriate training
and are competent to provide the treatment to a satisfactory
standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is buccal capping

A

Buccal capping is prescribed when occlusal interferences need to be eliminated to allow tooth movement to be accomplished. Buccal capping is produced by carrying the acrylic over the occlusal surface of the buccal segment teeth and has the effect of propping the incisors apart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

WHY IS IT NECESSARY TO REDUCE THE OVERBITE
BEFORE REDUCING THE OVERJET?

A

As incisors tip, the lower incisors prevent further
overjet reduction due to increasing overbite

By incorporating an anterior bite plane, the overjet
can be successfully reduced without increasing the
overbite as the incisors tip palatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what do bite opening allow for posterior teeth to do

A

posterior teeth erupt in space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the purpose of bite opening appliances

A

bite opening appliances allow for posterior occlusion to not take place, which in hand allows eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What type of movement does a removable appliance bring about?

A

tilting of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the components of a removable appliance?

A

active component
retentive component
anchoring component
baseplate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Identify the instruments

A

adams pliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Identify the instrument

A

spring forming pliers

66
Q

name this clasp

A

southend clasp

67
Q

what is the function of the southend clasp

A

It provides retention in the anterior region. The wire is adapted along the cervical margin of both the central incisors. The distal end of the wire crosses over the occlusal embrasures and end as retentive arms on the palatal side

68
Q

name this clasp

A

plint clasp

These clasps are designed to engage the undercut interproximally. This design affords minimal retention and can have the effect of prising the teeth apart.

69
Q

name the clasp and its function

ball-ended clasp

A

Ball clasps are typically used as auxiliary retention in conjunction with other clasps. They are usually placed tightly into the interproximal embrasure between two posterior teeth

70
Q

what are the arrows pointing to on this adams clasp

A

bridge and arrowhead

71
Q

what is the name of the part on a adams crib that is attached to the acrylic

A

fly-over

72
Q

bending near the arrowhead does what?

A

moves arrowhead towards tooth

engages more retention

73
Q

bending in the middle of the flyover does what

A

moves arrowhead down and towards tooth

74
Q

what is the function of labial bow?

A

anterior retention

75
Q

what is the function of an active labial bow

A

An active labial bow produces both horizontal and vertical force vectors resulting in palatal/lingual tooth movement and extrusion of tooth. It is used for retraction of proclined incisors. Since the labial bow causes tipping of the crown, simultaneous labial root tipping occurs.

76
Q

what type of labial bow is this and what is its indication

A

short labial bow

contacts the most prominent labial surfaces of the anterior teeth and ends in two U-shaped loops that extend as retentive arm between the canine and premolars

indication:

closure of space mesial to canines

minor overjet reduction

retention

77
Q

what type of labial bow is this and what is its indication?

A

long labial bow

modification to short labial bow

two U shaped loops extends between two premolars

indication:

minor overjet reduction

small amount of anterior space closure

closure of space distal to canine

guide of canine during canine retraction

78
Q

what type of labial bow is this and what is its indication?

A

roberts retractor

indication:

patients having severe anterior proclination with overjet over 4mm

79
Q

what is the function of this bite plane

A

lower incisors occlude on it - dicluding posterior teeth

useful when wanting to reduce overbite, as it causes eruption of molars

80
Q

how can we resolve a overbite

A

place a biteblock on a removeable appliance, this will diclude the anteriors and posterior teeth, allowing for posteriors to erupt

81
Q

what is buccal capping

A

buccal capping covers molars with PMMA from baseplate

-used when occlusal interferences would prevent desired tooth movement

-used when overbite reduction undesirable

82
Q

how would you activate a Z spring

A

adjust from palatal spring first

then adjust labial spring

83
Q

how much movement with a quarter turn on a screw

A

0.25 mm

84
Q

how often would a patient turn on the screw of their removeable appliance

A

appliance is intended to move bucally

rapid expansion

turn screw 1/4 turn twice a weak

85
Q

what are fixed appliances

A

brackets/bonds attached to the teeth

  • Mainly used in permanent dentition but can be used in
    interceptive treatment in the mixed dentition (sectional
    appliances).

Control of the teeth in 3 planes of space.

86
Q

fixed appliances controls tooth movement in three dimensions what are they

A

tipping

bodily movement

torque

87
Q

what are the indications for fixed appliances?

A

Multiple tooth movements needed
* Rotations
*Bodily movement
*Space closure ( extractions or hypodontia)
* Lower arch treatment

88
Q

what are the contraindications for fixed appliances

A

*Poor oral hygiene
*Active caries
*Poor motivation
*Good dietary control- avoid hard/sticky foods,
restrict sugars and acids

89
Q

what are the risks of fixed appliance on teeth

A

decalcification
root resorption
loss of periodontal support

tmj dysfunction
failed treatment and relapse
reversible risks - pain, ulceration

90
Q

what are molar band tube

A

Orthodontic tubes are also called molar tubes that are fitted around the back of your teeth when constructing a set of braces. It provides a solid anchor to the archwire used in orthodontics. Everyone did not need molar tubes, but those who need should take care to maintain their integrit

91
Q

if there is no space for a molar band tube what can be used to create space?

A

seperators - the ones used in paeds for hall crown

92
Q

Gold Chain, Eyelets and Buttons

why are they used

A

they have many functions.

primarilly to allign teeth

93
Q

what are self ligatating braces

A

Self-ligating braces use a built-in mechanism in the bracket to hold the archwire in place. This is in contrast to traditional braces, which use elastic ties or metal wires to secure the archwire. People with self-ligating braces may have shorter orthodontist appointments, easier cleaning, and less discomfort

94
Q

why would someone opt for ceramic braces than the traditional one

A

discretion

Ceramic braces, also known as clear braces, are orthodontic tools used to straighten teeth and fix bite problems. They consist of clear or tooth-colored ceramic brackets attached to the surface of your teeth with similarly colored wires and rubber bands, which provide more discretion.

95
Q

Mesenchymal cells differentiate to

Osteoblasts
calcification
= BONE

A
96
Q

Cartilage cells - undergo
Calcified matrix
Osteogenic invasion
= BONE

A
97
Q

Area of condensation above ventral
part of developing mandible

Develops in cone shaped cartilage

Migrates inferior & fuses with
mandibular ramus

cone shaped cartilage replaced by
bone but upper end persists acting
as growth cartilage

A
98
Q

development of maxilla involves remodeling - what is it

A

A process involving deposition and resorption occurring on
opposite ends

99
Q

what are functional appliances

A

Functional appliances are removable braces that work on the upper and lower teeth at the same time. For example, with an appliance known as a Twin Block, when you bite together the blocks on the braces fit together in a certain way that encourages your jaws to grow or move into the correct biting position.

100
Q

twin blocks are placed to fix which type of bite

A

class 2

101
Q

would you perform orthognathic surgery on someone still going through the growth phase

A

no

102
Q

what is the growth phase age for girls

A

8-13

103
Q

what is the growth phase age for boys

A

10-15

104
Q

a headgear restrains what type of growth

A

restrains maxillary growth

105
Q

functional appliance stimulates what growth

A

mandibular growth

106
Q

the use of a headgear/functional appliance is used on patients who have what type of class

A

class 2

107
Q

what does a reverse headgear do?

A

stimulates maxillary growth

108
Q

what does a chin cup do

A

restrain mandibular growth

109
Q

what does a chin cup do

A

restrain mandibular growth

110
Q

the use of reverse headgear and chin cup are targeted for the treatment of which malocclusion

A

class 3

111
Q

headgears are best worn during which stage of development

A

pre-pubertal

112
Q

headgear should be work preferentially how long

A

12-14 hours a day

compliance is important

113
Q

the plastic blocks on the upper and lower portions can be used to control eruption of the teeth, but they also work as part of the functional appliance because they have these?

A

inclines

these inclines on the upper and lower block force the patient to advance the mandible

114
Q

what is the definition for functional appliance

A

An appliance that utilises or redirects the
forces of the masticatory and / or the
circum-oral muscles to produce or permit
tooth movement and may modify facial
growth

115
Q

how does the herbst functional appliance work

A

piston and tube device passively pushes mandible forward as patient bites

116
Q

what is the second step in orthodontic treatment

A

Treatment planning is the second step in the
treatment of any patient; the first step being diagnosis
of the problem.

It involves planning space requirements, choice of
appliance and the retention regimen.

117
Q

what is needed in the full diagnostic records

A

history and examination
study models
photographs
radiographs

118
Q

what can you refer to when deciding if the patient needs treatment

A

clinical judgement
IOTN

119
Q

what must the patient show if he wants treatment

A

motivation and cooperation

120
Q

what can help you determine if this is the right time to begin orthodontic treatment

A

dental stage

growth

motivation

121
Q

what can help you determine if this is the right time to begin orthodontic treatment

A

dental stage

growth

motivation

122
Q

alternative source of space can be created through extractions, what non-extraction methods can be used

A

increased arch length
- distal movement posterior teeth
- anterior movement of incisors

increased arch width

interproximal reduction

123
Q

how much space is required to indicate extractions?

A

0-4 mm space required = no extraction

4-8 mm space required = borderline

8+ mm space required = extractions

124
Q

angle vs tweed

A

extraction vs non extraction

125
Q

which tooth is the favourite choice of extractions and why

A

premolars

no aesthetic impact on smile

space near crowding

straightforwad extraction

molars provide good anchorage for appliances

126
Q

what are the indications for extraction of the first premolars

A

when most space is required
When canines crowded

127
Q

what are the indications for extraction of the 2nd premolars

A
  • When less anterior crowding

– Allows molar to move forwards

128
Q

what would be the indications for the extraction of first permanent molars

A

long treatment
when of poor quality - caries or large restorations

129
Q

what are the indications to extract the lateral incisors regarding the upper canine

A

useful when canine is ectopic
paltallay or bucally
upper 4 in good position

130
Q

no evidence that removal of third molars prevents

A

lower incisor crowding

131
Q

definition of mixed dentition

A

Period from eruption of the first permanent molar until the shedding of the last deciduous tooth.

132
Q

eruption of the first permanent tooth is at

A

6 years old.

133
Q

what is the sequence of eruption of adult teeth in the mandibular arch

A

1st permanent molars & then front to back. i.e. 6, 1,2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8.

134
Q

what is the sequence of eruption of adult teeth in the maxillary arch

A

1st permanent molars & then front to back EXCEPT3’s. i.e. 6, 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 7, 8

135
Q

which arch erupts first

A

Lower teeth erupt BEFORE upper teeth EXCEPT 5’s

136
Q

abnormalities in tooth formation regarding orthodontics include?

A

crown root dilaceration
supernumeraries
peg shaped incisors
hypodontia

137
Q

what is crown root dilaceration

A

Trauma causes displacement of unerupted permanent crown and root formation continues in different direction

Can occur at any part of root
Usually, trauma in deciduous dentition

138
Q

supernumary teeth can present as

A

exact copies of adjacent teeth - supplemental teeth

or

contain tooth material but dont look like teeth - conical or tuberculate supernumaries

139
Q

supernumeray can occur anywhere most common in the

A

premaxilla

140
Q

if suppernumary occur in maxillary midline they are called

A

mesiodens

141
Q

peg shaped incisors

A

unkown aetiology

commonly affects lateral incisors

cause spacing and problems with aesthetics

increased risk of ectopic canines

142
Q

what is hypodontia

A

congenital absence of one or more teeth

can be hereditary

most commonly affects upper 2’s and lower 5’s

spacing and aesthetics biggest problems

143
Q

hypodontia

more common in the permanent dentition

presents with

A

delayed exfoliation of deciduous teeth

or

delayed eruption of permanent teeth

radiographs confirm diagnosis

144
Q

Eruption cyst

Impactedteeth (deciduous and permanent)

Infra-occluded deciduous teeth

Retained deciduous teeth

Cross bites in the mixed dentition

these are examples of

A

abnormalities in eruption and exfoliation

145
Q

what is this

A

Appear as blue mucosa overlying an unerupted tooth
Most common over E’s and 6’s
Asymptomatic
Resolve as tooth erupts

146
Q

what is an impacted teeth

A

Deciduous or permanent teeth that fail to erupt fully

Can be partly erupted

147
Q

impacted teeth are usually as a result of

A

an obstruction ( supernumerary)

Primary failure of eruption

Insufficient space

Ectopic teeth ( erupting/forming in wrong position)

148
Q

Infra occluded and retained deciduous teeth

A

Infraoccluded deciduous teeth-

  • Often incorrectly called submerging
  • Usually due to ankylosis-adjacent teeth erupt and ankylosed teeth remain unchanged vertically- gives appearance of submerging
  • Due to no permanent successor
  • Idiopathic
149
Q

when would you leave a infra occluded and retained decidious teeth

A

leave insitu if missing permanent successor

150
Q

Avulsion of deciduous incisors can result in

A

a centre line shift in incisors

151
Q

what can a fibrous mucosa do reference to eruption

A

a fibrous mucosa is allot more harder which can result in delayed eruption

152
Q

intrusion of decidious incisors can cause deflection of permanent successor through?

A

crown root dilaceration

153
Q

what is balancing extractions

A

if you take a tooth out on one side of arch may consider extracting the contra lateral tooth

c’s and d’s most likely to have an effect on a centre line shift

154
Q

what is compensating extractions

A

If extract in one arch consider extracting the same tooth in the opposing arch

If extract a lower 6 can get over eruption of the upper 6 which can cause occlusal interference

155
Q

what can cross bites cause

A

displacement-tooth and jaw

tooth wear

156
Q

crossbites can be fixed with which URA

A

screw URA

157
Q

at what age should the 1st permanent molars be extracted (caries/poor prognosis/MIH)

if you want 7’s to erupt well

A

optimum age 9-10

158
Q

what are the complications of digit sucking

A
  • Prolcined upper anteriors
  • Retroclined lower incisors
  • Buccal segment crossbites
  • Reduced overbite or anterior open bite
159
Q

WHAT CAN BE USED FOR THE MANAGEMENT digit sucking

A

Deterrent devices/habit breakers
* Elastoplast on finger
* Encouragement
* Nail varnish

160
Q

what is the reason for the cause of this diastema

A

missing upper laterals

161
Q

what is the reasons for the cause of this diastema

A

supernumaries - mesiodems

162
Q

what is the management of median diastema

A
  1. radiograph to exclude pathology
  2. try and eliminate cause if possible
  3. likely to reduce as permanent teeth erupt
  4. less than 3mm rarely require Rx
  5. large diastema
    • fixed appliances
      - permanent retention

Dentistry year 4 - Module 8 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions