Ortho week 1 - trauma call Flashcards

1
Q

What does E4 indicate on GCS ?

A

spontaneous eye opening response (normal)

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2
Q

What does E3 indicate on GCS ?

A

Eye opening in response to speech

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3
Q

What does E2 indicate on GCS ?

A

eye opening in response to pain

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4
Q

What does E1 indicate on GCS ?

A

no eye response

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5
Q

What does M6 indicate on GCS ?

A

can physically obey commands

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6
Q

What does M5 indicate on GCS ?

A

can move to localised pain

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7
Q

What does M4 indicate on GCS ?

A

can flex away from pain

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8
Q

What does M3 indicate on GCS ?

A

abnormal flexion (decorticate)

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9
Q

What does M2 indicate on GCS ?

A

abnormal extension (decerebrate)

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10
Q

What does M1 indicate on GCS ?

A

no motor response

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11
Q

What does V5 indicate on GCS ?

A

patient is oriented to time, place and person (normal)

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12
Q

What does V4 indicate on GCS ?

A

patient is confused

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13
Q

What does V3 indicate on GCS ?

A

patient uses inappropriate words

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14
Q

What does V2 indicate on GCS ?

A

patient uses incomprehensible sounds

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15
Q

What does V1 indicate on GCS ?

A

no verbal response

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16
Q

what GCS score classes as ‘comatose patient’ ?

A

8 or less

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17
Q

what GCS score classes as ‘totally unresponsive patient’ ?

A

3

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18
Q

What is included in a primary survey of a trauma call patient ?

A

Airway maintenance and cervical spine control
Breathing and ventilation
Circulation with haemorrhage control
Disability (neuro status)
Exposure (completely undress patient to assess injuries)

19
Q

How is a lower limb fracture managed in A&E?

A
  • examine neurovascular status
  • remove contamination
  • take medical photos
  • cover in saline soaked gauze
  • split the limb
  • IV antibiotics
  • theatre for wound washout, debridement and stabilisation
20
Q

What are the main principles of treating fractures ?

A
  • reduce
  • stabilise and preserve blood supply
  • rehabilitate
21
Q

What methods are used to stabilise a fracture ?

A
  • casts
  • splints
  • intramedullary devices
  • plates and screws
  • tension band wires
  • k wires
  • external fixators
22
Q

what is a soft tissue injury ?

A

an injury to the muscles, ligaments and tendons

23
Q

what are the 3 steps of the WHO analgesic ladder ?

A
  1. non-opioid with/without adjuvant analgesic
  2. opioid for mild to moderate pain, plus meds from step 1
  3. opiod for moderate to severe pain, plus meds from step 1
24
Q

What does the term ‘patient controlled analgesia’ (PCA) mean?

A

patient is in control of their pain by self administering a small bolus of IV opiod via pressing a button to release a set dose.

there is a ‘lock out’ period that inhibits over use

25
Q

what opioids are suitable for use in patient controlled analgesia ?

A

morphine, pethidine and fentanyl are most common, but all IV preparations can be used

in renal failure fentanyl is preferred as is short acting

26
Q

where is morphine broken down?

A

in the liver

27
Q

What condition is likely in fracture patients that are not responding to analgesia?

A

compartment syndrome

28
Q

what is compartment syndrome ?

A

pressure within a fascial compartment exceeds perfusion pressure within the compartment, causing ischaemia to the tissues in that compartment

29
Q

what should you do for a patient with suspected compartment syndrome?

A
  • take full history
  • examine patient (check neuromuscular status of limb)
  • release dressings/casts that cause external pressure
  • position limb to heart level
30
Q

if you have tried to help a patient with suspected compartment syndrome and their pain continues to be unresponsive to analgesia, what should you do ?

A

contact a senior doctor as patient may need an emergency fasciotomy

31
Q

What factors contribute to a delayed/non-union of a fracture ?

A

local factors = fracture location, blood supply to area, stability, infection, pattern of fracture

systemic factors = diet, diabetes, HIV, smoking, medications (steroids and NSAIDs)

32
Q

Use of which medications increase risk of a failed fracture union?

A
  • corticosteroids
  • NSAIDs
33
Q

what is a good system for reading fracture xrays?

A
  1. site = which bone and what part of bone
  2. type = transverse, oblique, spiral
  3. simple or comminuted
  4. angulated or displaced
  5. is the bone of normal consistency or not
34
Q

what is a comminuted fracture ?

A

a fracture that fragments at the site of fracture

35
Q

which is the main nerve at risk with a mid shaft humerus fracture ?

A

radial nerve

36
Q

which is the main nerve at risk with a fibula neck fracture ?

A

common peroneal nerve

37
Q

which is the main nerve at risk with a supracondylar fracture ?

A

median nerve

38
Q

which is the main nerve at risk with a shoulder dislocation ?

A

axillary nerve

39
Q

which is the main nerve at risk with a hip dislocation ?

A

sciatic nerve

40
Q

what is neuropraxia?

A

reversible nerve conduction block due to injury to the axon sheath

41
Q

what is axonotmesis ?

A

disruption to the myelin sheath and the axon

42
Q

what is neurotmesis ?

A

complete nerve division and disruption of the endoneurium

43
Q

what is the WHO definition of osteoporosis?

A

Bone mineral density of 2.5 or more SDs below the average value for a young healthy person of the same sex and race as the patient

44
Q

what is the most sensitive method for diagnosing clinically relevant compartment syndrome ?

A

pain on passive stretch as well as disproportionate pain