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Final Coaching > Ortho Con > Flashcards

Ortho Con Flashcards

1
Q

Osteochondrosis of the inferior pole of the patella, in skeletally immature patients is:
a. Sinding Larsen Johansson disease
b. Hoffa’s disease
c. Quadriceps tendonitis
d. Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

a. Sinding Larsen Johansson disease

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2
Q

Blount’s disease
a. Genu valgum
b. Tibia vara
c. Tibia valga
d. Genu recurvatum

A

b. Tibia vara

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3
Q

Calcaneal apophysitis
a. Haglund disease
b. Sever disease
c. Diaz disease
d. Freiberg diseases

A

b. Sever disease

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4
Q

Fracture at the base of 5th MTT
a. Freibergs
b. Nutcracker
c. Jones
d. Boxers

A

c. Jones

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5
Q

Tri-malleolar fracture is an unstable type of fracture affecting __________.
I. tarsal malleolus
II. posterior tibial malleolus
III. calcaneus
IV. medial malleolus
V. talus
VI. lateral malleolus

a. I, II, and IV
b. I,IIandV
c. II, IV, and VI
d. II, IV, and V
e. I, IV, and VI

A

c. II, IV, and VI

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6
Q

A patient with phocomelia would demonstrate:
a. Absence of an entire limb
b. Absence of wrist and hand
c. Absence of phalanges
d. Absence of 2nd to 4th CMC
e. A seal limb

A

e. A seal limb

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7
Q

The x-ray of a patient diagnosed with Poland syndrome revealed skin union between the digits of the hand. This is called:
a. Syndactyly
b. Camptodactyly
c. Clinodactyly
d. Macrodactyly
e. Simian Hand

A

a. Syndactyly

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8
Q

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by which of the following nerve injuries?
a. Weakness of serratus anterior due to spinal accessory nerve injury
b. Trapezius weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury
c. Serratus anterior weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury
d. Trapezius weakness due to thoracodorsal nerve injury
e. Weakness of trapezius due to spinal accessory nerve injury

A

c. Serratus anterior weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury

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9
Q

Around 25-40 years old and presents with fibrosis, bursitis, and tendinitis, this is most likely what stage
of Neer impingement?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

b. Stage 2

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10
Q

The following are symptoms of a rotator cuff tear, EXCEPT:
a. reduction of ROM
b. drop arm test is positive
c. poor scapula thoracic and glenohumeral rhythm
d. significant reduction of AROM into abduction

A

a. reduction of ROM

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11
Q

A 58-year-old male who has been playing tennis for 30 years complains of chronic shoulder pain. On P.E., noted are the following: wasting of the supraspinatus, tenderness over the anterior acromion and greater tuberosity, passive ROM of shoulder greater than AROM especially in abduction and External Rotation with weakness of Abd and ER. He most likely has:
a. Acute traumatic bursitis
b. Complete rotator cuff tendon tear/ rupture
c. Stage III Rotator Cuff Disease
d. Glenohumeral joint instability

A

b. Complete rotator cuff tendon tear/ rupture

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12
Q

You are conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive, and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is ____ weeks.
a. 6–8
b. 12—14
c. 24–28
d. 36–40

A

c. 24–28

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13
Q

True about Stage III Frozen shoulder:
a. Most painful stage
b. 9-15 months
c. 15-24 months
d. Freezing stage

A

b. 9-15 months

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14
Q

Which of the following is Bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved?
a. AC joint sprain
b. Rotator cuff pathology
c. Anterior laxity of the humerus
d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

A

d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

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15
Q

Special test for Tennis elbow:
a. Medial epicondylitis test
b. Mill’s test
c. Waldron’s test
d. Speed’s test

A

b. Mill’s test

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16
Q

CRPS can be caused by the following, except:
a. CVA
b. MI
c. Major surgery
d. PNI
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

17
Q

True about Finkelstein test:
a. Pain in radial styloid process with thumb inside closed fist and radial deviation of the wrist
b. Pain at the dorsoradial aspect of distal forearm
c. Pain in radial styloid process with thumb inside closed fist and ulnar deviation of the wrist
d. Also known as Linburgs Test
e. NOTA

A

c. Pain in radial styloid process with thumb inside closed fist and ulnar deviation of the wrist

18
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the _______________ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints.:
a. 2nd and 3rd
b. 3rd and 4th
c. 4th and 5th
d. 1st and 2nd

A

c. 4th and 5th

19
Q

As a consequence of Colles fracture, this hand deformity is seen:
a. Ulnar deviation
b. Dorsiflexion
c. Radial deviation
d. Palmarflexion

A

b. Dorsiflexion

20
Q

If the distal insertion of the extensor digitorum communis has been torn away from the distal phalanx with an attendant avulsion of a bone fragment, a bony excrescence become palpable on the dorsal surface of the DIP joint:
a. Boutonniere deformity
b. Mallet finger
c. Swan neck deformity
d. Ulnar drift

A

b. Mallet finger

21
Q

In the anterior approach in total hip replacement, the position of maximal instability is:
I. Abduction
II. Adduction
III. External rotation
IV. Internal rotation
V. Circumduction

a. I and IV
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

b. I and III

22
Q

An overweight teenage male has symptoms of moderate groin and knee pain, leg abducts and externally rotates during hip flexion. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Congenital dislocated hip
b. Calve-Legg-Perthes disease
c. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
d. Fractured femoral head

A

c. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

23
Q

In “clergyman’s knee” the damaged bursa in the knee is the ______.
a. Medial bursa
b. Lateral bursa
c. Prepatellar bursa
d. Superficial infrapatellar bursa

A

d. Superficial infrapatellar bursa

24
Q

A Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as:
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Malingering

A

b. Moderate

25
Q
  1. Characteristics of grade 1 chondromalacia patella?
    a. Softening and swelling
    b. Fissuring
    c. Crab-meat appearance
    d. Full thickness fibrillation
A

a. Softening and swelling

26
Q

A 16-year-old female dancer complains of subpatellar pain after 2 weeks of vigorous rehearsal for a hip-hop competition. PT’s evaluation shows a large Q angle, pain on palpation at the inferior pole of the patella and mild swelling at both knees. The BEST strategy for this condition is:
a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening
b. taping to increase lateral patellar tracking
c. hamstring strengthening
d. vastus lateralis strengthening

A

a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening

27
Q

One of the following parameters is not an essential component in the Eccentric strengthening of Achilles tendinitis:
a. Speed
b. Length
c. Load
d. Agility

A

d. Agility

28
Q

The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages?
a. stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia
b. cortisone injection
c. icing and deep massage
d. Taping

A

b. cortisone injection

29
Q

On examination of the toes, what is hyperextension of the MTP joints and flexion of the other phalangeal joints?
a. hammer toe
b. hallux valgus
c. clawing
d. mallet toe

A

c. clawing

30
Q

What is not seen in grade 2 ankle sprain?
I. Tenderness of ant talofibular lig plus calcaneofibular lig
II. Full or partial weight-bearing ability
III. Moderate edema
IV. Complete tear

a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I and III
d. II and IV

A

d. II and IV

31
Q

A football player presents to an outpatient clinic with complaints of pain in the right knee after an injury suffered the night before. The physician determines that the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is torn. Which of the following is most commonly associated with an injury causing damage to the ACL only?
a. Varus blow to the knee with the foot planted and an audible pop
b. Foot planted, medial tibial rotation, and an audible pop
c. Valgus blow to the knee with the foot planted and no audible pop
d. Foot planted, lateral tibial rotation, and no audible pop

A

b. Foot planted, medial tibial rotation, and an audible pop

32
Q

Medical Procedure to release a tendon from surrounding adhesions:
a. Tendon Graft
b. Tenolysis
c. Tenotomy
d. Tendon transfer
e. Fasciotomy

A

b. Tenolysis

33
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities
a. class I
b. class II
c. class III
d. class IV

A

d. class IV

34
Q

Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include which of the following, EXCEPT?
a. All of the choices
b. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint
c. Age > 40 years old
d. Presence of heberden’s nodes
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

35
Q

On palpation of the foot, tenderness on both plantar and dorsal aspect of the forefoot is a common finding in _____________.
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Deltoid strain
c. Bursitis
d. Tendonitis
e. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

e. Rheumatoid arthritis

36
Q

On palpation of the foot, tenderness localized over and just proximal to the malleolus is often found in what injury?
a. Strain
b. Dislocation
c. Sprain
d. Fracture

A

d. Fracture

37
Q

On palpation of the foot, tenderness at the articular surface of the talus is a common finding in ________.
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Deltoid strain
c. Bursitis
d. Tendonitis

A

a. Osteoarthritis

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