Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Compre (Resto, Ortho, Roent) > Ortho Compre > Flashcards

Ortho Compre Flashcards

1
Q

1.This branch of orthodontics recognizes the early existence of malocclusion or mallormation.
a. Preventive
b. Interceptive
c. Corrective
d. Surgical

A

b. Interceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. This is a scope of orthodontics where functional appliances and the latest orthognathic techniques are used to possibly move entire jaws into more favorable positions
    a. Functional Efficiency
    b. Structural Balance
    c. Altering Soft tissue Envelope
    d. Altering Skeletal Pattern
A

d. Altering Skeletal Pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The timely removal of retained deciduous teeth, and use of space maintainers after premature loss of deciduous teeth are under what branch of Orthodontics?
    a. Corrective
    b. Interceptive
    c. Preventive
    d. Surgical
A

c. Preventive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. All are included in Jackson’s Triad, except?
    a. The orthodontic treatment should increase the efficiency of the functions performed by the stomatognathic system.
    b. The treatment should maintain balance between structures, and the correction of one should not be detrimental to the health of another
    c. Orthodontic treatment entails the tolerance of deleterious local habits.
    d. The orthodontic treatment should increase the overall esthetic appeal of the individual.
A

c. Orthodontic treatment entails the tolerance of deleterious local habits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. He stressed the importance of root movement and was one of the first to use elastics for treatment
    a. Calvin Case
    b. Philp Pfoll
    c. Edward Angle
    d. Pierre Fauchard
A

a. Calvin Case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Orthodontic treatment involves the repositioning of teeth by functional and mechanical means to establish normal occlusion and pleasing facial contour. this is the basis of
    a. orthopedic change
    b. Jackson’s triad
    c. corrective orthodontics
    d. Esthetic hamony
A

c. corrective orthodontics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. All are contributions of E.H Angle,except?
    a. Edgewise Appliance
    b. Bandelete
    c. Pin and tube appliance
    d. a school of orthodontics
A

b. Bandelete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. A habit that was acknowledged as a cause of dental abnormalities as early as 1834.
    a. tounge thrusting
    b. teeth grinding
    c. thumbsucking
    d. bruxism
A

c. thumbsucking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The orthodontic treatment should increase the efficiency of the functions performed by the stomatognathic system. This recognizes the aim of orthodontics for structural balance.
    a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
    c. Both statements are true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. An orthodontic treatment that highly considers the alignment of teeth but neglects the patient ‘s occlusion fails to achieve what aim/s of orthodontics?
    a. functional efficiency only
    b. Structural balance only
    c Esthetic harmony and structural balance
    d. Functional efficiency and structural balance
A

d. Functional efficiency and structural balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Proves that there is an axis of increased growth extending from the head toward the
    a Differential growth
    b. Scammon’s growth curve
    c. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth
    d. Growth spurts
A

c. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. In fetal life, the head takes up about how many percent of the total body length?
    a. 12%
    b. 25%
    c. 40 %
    d. 50%
A

d. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Tissues that reach up to 200% adult size in late childhood (200% by 14 year) and involute around the order of puberty
    a. Neural
    b. Somatic
    c. General
    d. lymphoid
A

d. lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. It indicates the degree of difference between two growing individuals in all four planes of space including time
    a. Pattern
    b. Growth spurts
    c. Variability
    d. Differential growth
A

c. Variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Orthognathic surgery should be carried out
    a. During growth spurts
    b. At mixed dentition period
    c. After growth ceases
    d. At any period
A

c. After growth ceases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Offers the best time for majority of cases in terms of predictability, treatment direction, anagement and treatment time.
    a Mixed dentition
    b. Pubertal growth spurt
    c. Infantile growth spurt
    d. After growth ceases
A

b. Pubertal growth spurt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The movement of the mandible by displacement
    a. Downward and backward
    b. Downward and forward
    c. Posteriorly and inferiorly
    d. Inferiorly only
A

b. Downward and forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Displacement of bone as a result of growth and enlargement of adjacent bone/bones.
    a. Initial displacement
    b. Secondary displacement
    c. Primary displacement
    d. Tertiary displacement
A

b. Secondary displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Argued that the growth in the sutures was secondary and entirely dependent on the growth of the cartilage and adjacent soft tissues.
    a. Cartilaginous theory
    b. Sutural dominance theory
    c. functional matrix theory
    d. Interstitial matrix hypothesis
A

a. Cartilaginous theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. These are spread all along the bone in a mosaic pattern, are responsible for producing an alteration in the growing bone.
    a. Growth fields
    b. Growth centers
    c. Growth sites
    d. Growth surfaces
A

a. Growth fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Growth of long bones by the epiphyseal plates are examples of
    a. Growth fields
    b. Growth centers
    c. Growth sites
    d. Growth surfaces
A

b. Growth centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. The movement of teeth by orthodontic tregiment is a mechanism of
    a. Cortical drift with movement towards the depository side
    b. Cortical drift with movement towards the resorption side
    c. Secondary displacement towards the tension side
    d. Spontaneous movement
A

b. Cortical drift with movement towards the resorption side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Bony pillars for reinforcement in the maxilla, except:
    a. Zygomatic buttress
    b. Canine buttress
    c. Palate
    d. Maxillary tuberosity
A

c. Palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Longitudinal canal structures within the compact bone that run side by side ar oriented along lines of force transmission.
    a. Haversian systems
    b. Trajectories
    c. Trabeculae
    d. Cartilage
A

a. Haversian systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
25. Trajectories from the lower molars directly moves upward to the a. Condyle b. Coronoid process c. Occipital bone d. Zygoma
b. Coronoid process
26
26. The pattern of bony strips that adhere to lines of force transmission. a. Haversian systems b. Trajectories c. Trabeculae d. Cartilage
b. Trajectories
27
27. It dissipates the stress transferred to it by the osteons. continuing with the trajectories . a. Compact bone b. Cartilage c. Buttress d. Spongy bone
d. Spongy bone
28
28. The final transmission of all masticatory pressure from the mandible is at a. The condyle b. The coronoid process c. The base of the skull d. The TMJ
c. The base of the skul
29
29. Proliferation of connective fissue and its replacement by bone in the sutures is the primary consideration in a. Cartilaginous theory b. Sutural dominance theory c. Functional matrix theory d. Interstitial matrix hypothesis
b. Sutural dominance theory
30
30. Which is not true about endochondral ossification? a. It is the conversion of hyaline cartilage prototype into osseous tissue b. It is seen in the maxilla c. Formation of perichondrum d. Rapid interstitial growth within cartilage
b. It is seen in the maxilla
31
31. The process by which the overall size and shape of bone is first established. a. Bone modelling b. Bone remodeling c. Bone turnover d. Bone resorption
a. Bone modelling
32
32. Phase of bone remodeling that triggers new bone formation a. Activation b. Resorption c. Reversal d. Resting
c. Reversal
33
33. Growth of this tissues are highly influence by growth spurts a. Neural b. Somatic c. General d. Lymphoid
b. Somatic
34
34. Which one is true concerning cartilage? a. Highly vascularized b. Expands even under pressure c. Provides its own nourishment d. Collagen type I
b. Expands even under pressure
35
35. When bone deposition is greater than bone resorption, thickness of bone a. Remains constant b. Increases c. Decreases d. Is not directly affected
b. Increases
36
36. Primordium of the enamel organ a. Dental lamin b. Stomodeum c. Dental papilla d. Tooth bud
d. Tooth bud
37
37. Foundation for the future dental arches a. Dental lamina b. Stomodeum c. Dental papilla d. Tooth bud
a. Dental lamina
38
38. The embryonic oral cavity that is lined by stratified squamous epithelium is called a. Stomodeum b. Oral ectoderm c. Gum pads d. Dental papilla
b. Oral ectoderm
39
39. Ectomesenchymal condensation below the tooth bud forms the a. Enamel organ b. Dental papilla c. Dental sac d.Dental lamina
b. Dental papilla
40
40. Histodifferentiation occurs at a. Bud stage b. Cap stage c. Bell stage d. Proliferation
c. Bell stage
41
41. The formation of enamel in the advanced bell stage is seen a. Below ameloblasts b. Above ameloblasts c. Below odontoblasts d. Above odontoblasts
a. Below ameloblasts
42
42. The formation of dentin in the advance i bell stage is seen a. Below ameloblasts b. Above ameloblasts c. Below odontoblasts d. Above odontoblasts
d. Above odontoblasts
43
43. The primordium of the dentin and pulp a. Dental laming b. Stomodeum c. Dental papilla
c. Dental papilla
44
44. Human dentition a. Heterodont and polyphyodont b. Heterodont and diphyodont c. Homodont and monodont d. Homodant and diphyodont
b. Heterodont and diphyodont
45
45. All are derived from the mesenchyme, except a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Pulp d. Cementum
a. Enamel
46
46. Cell layer that provides nutrients to the Inner Enamel Epithelium. a. Stratum reticulum b. Stellate reticulum c. Stratum intermedium d. Stellate intermedium
c. Stratum intermedium
47
47. The dental sac is the primordium of the a. Dentin only b. Dentin and cementum c. Cementum and PDL d. PDL only
c. Cementum and PDL
48
48. Growth of the free distal end of dental lamina gives rise to the a. Primary tooth bud b. Permanent tooth bud c. Dental sac d. Dental papilla
b. Permanent tooth bud
49
49. A complete crown a. Nolla stage 3 b. Nolla stage 6 c. Nolla stage 7 d. Nolla stage 9
b. Nolla stage 6
50
50. Eruption begins at a. Nolla stage 3 b. Nolla stage 6 c. Nolla stage 7 d. Nolla stage 9
c. Nolla stage 7
51
51. Which ectodermal structure gives rise to the enamel organ during odontoge a. Stomodeum b. Neural crest cells c. Dental lamina d. Buccal epithelium
c. Dental lamina
52
52. At what age do gum pads typically begin to regede as teeth begin to erupt? a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 12 months
c. 6 months
53
53. What is the primary reason for the eventual shedding of primary teeth? a. Tooth decay b. Growth of permanent teeth c. Age d. Gum disease
b. Growth of permanent teeth
54
54. What is the typical clinical significance of primate spaces in the primary dentition? a. They are indicative of malocclusion and require immediate intervention. b. They facilitate the eruption of permanent teelh by providing space. c. They increase the risk of tooth decay and gum disease d. They indicate abnormal jaw growth and development.
b. They facilitate the eruption of permanent teelh by providing space.
55
55. Teeth present at birth a. Natal teeth b. Neonatal teeth c. Primary teeth d. Succedaneous teeth
a. Natal teeth
56
56. Infanfile alveolar arches a. Oral ectoderm b. Dental lamina c. Stomodeum d. Gum pads
d. Gum pads
57
57. During which prenatal stage does the initial formation of tooth buds occur? a. Germinal stage b. Embryonic stage c. Fetal stage d. Neonatal stage
b. Embryonic stage
58
58. Distal surface of mandibular deciduous second molar is mesial to the distal surface of maxillary deciduous second molar. a. Flush terminal plane b. Mesial step c. Distal step d. Straight
b. Mesial step
59
59. Seen in the relationship of upper and lower gum pads due to the activity of the tongue in neonates. a. Overjet b. Thick gum pads c. Anterior open bite d. Posterior open bite
c. Anterior open bite
60
60. During which stage of tooth development does the enamel organ differentiate into ameloblasts? a. Bud stage b. Cap stage c. Bell stage d. Apposition stage
c. Bell stage
61
ORTHODONTICS 1 LECTURE MIDTERM EXAM 1. Processes necessary for eruption of permanent tooth, except: a. Resorption of bone b.Resorption of primary root c. Root formation of permanent tooth d. Proliferation of gingiva
d. Proliferation of gingiva
62
2. Occlusal movement of tooth without penetrating the overlying gingiva. a. Eruption b. Pre-emergent eruption c. Post-emergent eruption d. Passive eruption
b. Pre-emergent eruption
63
3.Occlusal movement of tooth with penetration of the overlying gingiva. a. Eruption b. Pre-emergent eruption c. Post-emergent eruption d. Passive eruption
c. Post-emergent eruption
64
4. The stage of relatively rapid eruption from the time a tooth first penetrates the gingiva until it reaches the occlusal level. a. Pre-emergent eruption b. Post-emergent spurt c. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium d. Adult occlusal equilibrium
b. Post-emergent spurt
65
5. This mainly opposes eruption during juvenile occlusal equilibrium. a. Biting forces b. Absence of antagonist C. Loss of propulsive movement d. Presence of the tongue
a. Biting forces
66
6. The transition from the primary to the permanent dentition begins at about age? a. 4 b. 8 c. 6 d. 10
c. 6
67
7. Phase of very slow eruption when the tooth has reached the occlusal level and teeth are in function. a. Pre-emergent eruption b. Post-emergent spurt c. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium d. Adult occlusal equilibrium
c. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium
68
8. When the testing recesunction, the rate of eruption is controlled by a. Opposing forces b. Propulsive movement c. Bone resorption d. Root formation
a. Opposing forces
69
9. Also known as the ugly duckling stage and is pertinent to the identification of the dental age. a. Primary dentition period b. Succedaneous dentition period C. Mixed dentition period d. Permanent dentition period
C. Mixed dentition period
70
10. Dental age characteristics , except: a. Unerupted teeth b. Erupted teeth C. Resorption of the roots of primary teeth d. Eruption of permanent teeth
a. Unerupted teeth
71
11. Dental age that is mainly characterized by eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors. a. 7 b. 9 C. 8 D. 10
C. 8
72
12. Dental ages where normally there is no additional appearance of any permanent teeth in the oral cavity. a. 9-10 b.11-12 C.10-11 d. 2-15
a. 9-10
73
13. Dental age mainly characterized by the eruption of the mandibular canines, mandibular first premolars, and maxillary first premolars. a. 9 b.10 c.11 d.12
c.11
74
14. A first molar is seen to be below the occlusal level as other teeth erupt and bring alveolar bone along with them. The first molar may be a. Unerupted b. Rotated C. Supra-erupted d. Ankylosed
d. Ankylosed
75
15. Succedaneous teeth, except a. They have primary predecessors b. They are permanent teeth C. 1st permanent molars d. Premolars
C. 1st permanent molars
76
16. Dental age where the roots of all permanent teeth except the third molars are complete, and crown formation of third molars often has been completed. a. 11 b. 12 C. 15 d. 18
C. 15
77
17. If a maxillary canine erupts at about the same time as the maxillary first premolar, the maxillary canine may be positioned a. Mesial b. Labial c. palatal d. distal
b. Labial
78
18. A 3mm diastema may a. Spontaneously close b. Lead to anterior protrusion c. Need space maintainer d. Persist until permanent dentition period
d. Persist until permanent dentition period
79
19. Where are permanent tooth buds found with respect to primary incisors? a. Apical and lingual b. Apical and facial c. Apical only d. Below the bifurcation
a. Apical and lingual
80
20. Average leeway space a. 1-2 mm b. 2-3 mm c. 1-2 cm d. 2-3 cm
b. 2-3 mm
81
21. The leeway space is often taken by a a. Erupting premolars b. Erupting 2nd molar c. Mesial shift of 1st molar d. Distal shifting of anteriors
c. Mesial shift of 1st molar
82
22. Orthodontic treatment of what case may take advantage of the leeway space? a. Anterior crowding b. Open bite c. Diastema closure d. Deep bite
a. Anterior crowding
83
23. If a permanent tooth erupts ahead on one side, how long is the available duration for the counterpart to erupt on the other side before assuming a discrepancy. a. a. 0-6 months b. 6 months to 1 year c. 18 months d. 18 months to 2 years
a. 0-6 months
84
24. Chemical and other agents capable of producing embryologic defects if given at the critical time are a. Carcinogens b. Teratogens C. Allergens d. toxins
b. Teratogens
85
25. Veau classification of a bilateral cleft lip and palate a. Class I. c. Class III b. Class Il. d. Class VI
d. Class VI
86
26. Veau classification of unilateral cleft lip a. Class I b. Class Il c. Class III d. Class IV
b. Class Il
87
27. Growth seen after the age of 7 is primarily by a. Passive Displacement b. Active growth c. Cranium expansion d. No more growth seen
a. Passive Displacement
88
28. Growth displacement of maxilla a. Downward and forward b. b. Upward and forward c. Inferiorly and posteriorly d. Superiorly and anteriorly
a. Downward and forward
89
29. Growth pattern of mandible a. Downward and forward b. Upward and forward C. Inferiorly and posteriorly d. Superiorly and anteriorly
a. Downward and forward
90
30. Growth in order of completion a. Height, Width, Length b. Length, Width, Height c. Width, Length, Height d. Height, Length, Width
c. Width, Length, Height
91
31. Accentuation of the chin is due to a. Bone deposition below the chin b. Bone resorption above the chin c. Bone deposition above the chin d. Bone resorption below the chin
b. Bone resorption above the chin
92
32. As we age, the magnitude of change in the soft tissues are _ the changes in hard tissues of the face and jaws a. Greater than b. Less than. c. Equal to d. Irrelevant to
a. Greater than
93
33. In the nasomaxillary, the magnitude of bone resorption in the anterior surface is_ bone deposition in the posterior surface. a. Greater than b. Less than c. Equal to d. Irrelevant to
b. Less than
94
34. The ramus height increases _ per year a. 1-2 mm b. 2-3 mm c. 1-2 cm. d. 2-3 cm
a. 1-2 mm
95
35. The body length of the mandible increases _ per year a. 1-2 mm b. 2-3 mm c. 1-2 cm. d. 2-3 cm
b. 2-3 mm
96
36. What growth tends to be completed before adolescent growth spurt? a. Length b. Width c. height d. Both length and width
b. Width
97
37. All are essential diagnostic aids, except: a. Facial Photographs b. study cast c. CT scan d. Orthopantomogramms
c. CT scan
98
38 This identifies the priorities and desires of the patient a. Chief complaint. b. Medical history c. History of present illness d. Dental History
a. Chief complaint.
99
39. It involves the development of a comprehensive and concise database of pertinent information, sufficient to understand the patient's problem, and to answer questions arising in the clinician's mind. a. Clinical examination b. Diagnosis c. Treatment Planning d. Interview
b. Diagnosis
100
40. A body build classified as short and obese. a. Ectomorphic b. Mesomorphic c. Endomorphic d. Polymorphic
c. Endomorphic
101
41. Cephalic index having a short and broad skull. a. Mesocephalic b. Brachycephalic c. Endocephalic d. Dolicocephalic
b. Brachycephalic
102
42. Cephalic index having a long and narrow skull. a. Mesocephalic b. Brachycephalic c. Endocephalic d. Dolicocephalic
d. Dolicocephalic
103
43. A body build classified as tall and thin. a. Ectomorphic b. Mesomorphic c. Endomorphic d. Polymorphic
a. Ectomorphic
104
44. Average cephalic index a. Mesocephalic b. Brachycephalic C. Endocephalic d. Dolicoccephalic
a. Mesocephalic
105
45. Determines the facial width according to Martin and Saller. a. Distance between the nasion and gnathion b. Distance between the nasion and pogonion c. Distance between the right and left orbitale points d. Distance between the right and left zygoma points
d. Distance between the right and left zygoma points
106
46. Determines the facial height according to Martin and Saller. a. Distance between the nasion and chin b. Distance between the nasion and lower lip c. Distance between the right and left orbitale points d. Distance between the right and left zygoma points
a. Distance between the nasion and chin
107
47. Indicates a low facial skeleton a. Euryprosopic b. Mesoprosopic c. Leptoprosopic d. Hyperleptoprosopic
a. Euryprosopic
108
48. Indicates a high facial skeleton a. Euryprosopic b. Mesoprosopic c. Leptoprosopic d. Hypereuryprosopic
c. Leptoprosopic
109
49. Cephalic index value of 83. a. Mesocephalic b. Brachycephalic c. Endocephalic d. Dolicocephalic
b. Brachycephalic
110
50. Facial index of 85. a. Euryprosopic b. Mesoprosopic c. Leptoprosopic d. Hypereuryprosopic
b. Mesoprosopic
111
51. Facial index of 90. a. Euryprosopic. b. Mesoprosopic c. Leptoprosopic. d. Hypereuryprosopic
c. Leptoprosopic.
112
52. A convex facial profile is seen in class Il div 2 patients. Whereas a concave facial profile is seen in class Ill patients. a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. c. Both statements are true. d. Both statements are false.
c. Both statements are true.
113
53. A convex profile may be due to either a protruded mandible or a retruded maxilla. While a concave profile may be due to either a protruded maxilla or a retruded mandible. a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. c. Both statements are true. d. Both statements are false.
d. Both statements are false.
114
54. The upper incisal edge exposure with the upper lip at rest should be normally_ a. 1mm b. 2mm c. 3mm d. 4mm
b. 2mm
115
55. These are hypertrophied lips with redundant tissue but weak muscular tonicity. a. Competent lips b. Incompetent lips C. Everted lips d. Inverted lips
C. Everted lips
116
56. The nasolabial angle is reduced for patients with retrognathic maxila. Whereas, the nasolabial angle becomes more obtuse in patients with maxillary prognathism. a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. c. Both statements are true. d. Both statements are false.
d. Both statements are false.
117
57. Incompetent lips do not contact when musculature is relaxed. Lip seal is achieved only by active contraction of the orbicularis oris and mentalis muscles in potentially competent lips. a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. c. Both statements are true. d. Both statements are false.
a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
118
58. A hyperactive mentalis is commonly seen in patients with what type of malocclusion? a. Class I b. Class Il C. Class III d. Pseudoclass III
b. Class Il
119
59. A Deep sulcus is seen in Class Il cases whereas a shallow sulcus is seen usually in bimaxillary protrusion cases. a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. b. b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. c. Both statements are true. d. Both statements are false
c. Both statements are true.
120
60. Án ideal occlusion a. Class I occlusion b. Complete complement of teeth c. Normal line of occlusion d. Absence of malocclusion
a. Class I occlusion

Compre (Resto, Ortho, Roent) (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions