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Compre (Resto, Ortho, Roent) > Ortho Compre > Flashcards

Ortho Compre Flashcards

1
Q

1.This branch of orthodontics recognizes the early existence of malocclusion or mallormation.
a. Preventive
b. Interceptive
c. Corrective
d. Surgical

A

b. Interceptive

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2
Q
  1. This is a scope of orthodontics where functional appliances and the latest orthognathic techniques are used to possibly move entire jaws into more favorable positions
    a. Functional Efficiency
    b. Structural Balance
    c. Altering Soft tissue Envelope
    d. Altering Skeletal Pattern
A

d. Altering Skeletal Pattern

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3
Q
  1. The timely removal of retained deciduous teeth, and use of space maintainers after premature loss of deciduous teeth are under what branch of Orthodontics?
    a. Corrective
    b. Interceptive
    c. Preventive
    d. Surgical
A

c. Preventive

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4
Q
  1. All are included in Jackson’s Triad, except?
    a. The orthodontic treatment should increase the efficiency of the functions performed by the stomatognathic system.
    b. The treatment should maintain balance between structures, and the correction of one should not be detrimental to the health of another
    c. Orthodontic treatment entails the tolerance of deleterious local habits.
    d. The orthodontic treatment should increase the overall esthetic appeal of the individual.
A

c. Orthodontic treatment entails the tolerance of deleterious local habits.

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5
Q
  1. He stressed the importance of root movement and was one of the first to use elastics for treatment
    a. Calvin Case
    b. Philp Pfoll
    c. Edward Angle
    d. Pierre Fauchard
A

a. Calvin Case

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6
Q
  1. Orthodontic treatment involves the repositioning of teeth by functional and mechanical means to establish normal occlusion and pleasing facial contour. this is the basis of
    a. orthopedic change
    b. Jackson’s triad
    c. corrective orthodontics
    d. Esthetic hamony
A

c. corrective orthodontics

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7
Q
  1. All are contributions of E.H Angle,except?
    a. Edgewise Appliance
    b. Bandelete
    c. Pin and tube appliance
    d. a school of orthodontics
A

b. Bandelete

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8
Q
  1. A habit that was acknowledged as a cause of dental abnormalities as early as 1834.
    a. tounge thrusting
    b. teeth grinding
    c. thumbsucking
    d. bruxism
A

c. thumbsucking

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9
Q
  1. The orthodontic treatment should increase the efficiency of the functions performed by the stomatognathic system. This recognizes the aim of orthodontics for structural balance.
    a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
    c. Both statements are true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

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10
Q
  1. An orthodontic treatment that highly considers the alignment of teeth but neglects the patient ‘s occlusion fails to achieve what aim/s of orthodontics?
    a. functional efficiency only
    b. Structural balance only
    c Esthetic harmony and structural balance
    d. Functional efficiency and structural balance
A

d. Functional efficiency and structural balance

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11
Q
  1. Proves that there is an axis of increased growth extending from the head toward the
    a Differential growth
    b. Scammon’s growth curve
    c. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth
    d. Growth spurts
A

c. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth

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12
Q
  1. In fetal life, the head takes up about how many percent of the total body length?
    a. 12%
    b. 25%
    c. 40 %
    d. 50%
A

d. 50%

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13
Q
  1. Tissues that reach up to 200% adult size in late childhood (200% by 14 year) and involute around the order of puberty
    a. Neural
    b. Somatic
    c. General
    d. lymphoid
A

d. lymphoid

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14
Q
  1. It indicates the degree of difference between two growing individuals in all four planes of space including time
    a. Pattern
    b. Growth spurts
    c. Variability
    d. Differential growth
A

c. Variability

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15
Q
  1. Orthognathic surgery should be carried out
    a. During growth spurts
    b. At mixed dentition period
    c. After growth ceases
    d. At any period
A

c. After growth ceases

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16
Q
  1. Offers the best time for majority of cases in terms of predictability, treatment direction, anagement and treatment time.
    a Mixed dentition
    b. Pubertal growth spurt
    c. Infantile growth spurt
    d. After growth ceases
A

b. Pubertal growth spurt

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17
Q
  1. The movement of the mandible by displacement
    a. Downward and backward
    b. Downward and forward
    c. Posteriorly and inferiorly
    d. Inferiorly only
A

b. Downward and forward

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18
Q
  1. Displacement of bone as a result of growth and enlargement of adjacent bone/bones.
    a. Initial displacement
    b. Secondary displacement
    c. Primary displacement
    d. Tertiary displacement
A

b. Secondary displacement

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19
Q
  1. Argued that the growth in the sutures was secondary and entirely dependent on the growth of the cartilage and adjacent soft tissues.
    a. Cartilaginous theory
    b. Sutural dominance theory
    c. functional matrix theory
    d. Interstitial matrix hypothesis
A

a. Cartilaginous theory

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20
Q
  1. These are spread all along the bone in a mosaic pattern, are responsible for producing an alteration in the growing bone.
    a. Growth fields
    b. Growth centers
    c. Growth sites
    d. Growth surfaces
A

a. Growth fields

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21
Q
  1. Growth of long bones by the epiphyseal plates are examples of
    a. Growth fields
    b. Growth centers
    c. Growth sites
    d. Growth surfaces
A

b. Growth centers

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22
Q
  1. The movement of teeth by orthodontic tregiment is a mechanism of
    a. Cortical drift with movement towards the depository side
    b. Cortical drift with movement towards the resorption side
    c. Secondary displacement towards the tension side
    d. Spontaneous movement
A

b. Cortical drift with movement towards the resorption side

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23
Q
  1. Bony pillars for reinforcement in the maxilla, except:
    a. Zygomatic buttress
    b. Canine buttress
    c. Palate
    d. Maxillary tuberosity
A

c. Palate

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24
Q
  1. Longitudinal canal structures within the compact bone that run side by side ar oriented along lines of force transmission.
    a. Haversian systems
    b. Trajectories
    c. Trabeculae
    d. Cartilage
A

a. Haversian systems

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25
Q
  1. Trajectories from the lower molars directly moves upward to the
    a. Condyle
    b. Coronoid process
    c. Occipital bone
    d. Zygoma
A

b. Coronoid process

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26
Q
  1. The pattern of bony strips that adhere to lines of force transmission.
    a. Haversian systems
    b. Trajectories
    c. Trabeculae
    d. Cartilage
A

b. Trajectories

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27
Q
  1. It dissipates the stress transferred to it by the osteons. continuing with the trajectories .
    a. Compact bone
    b. Cartilage
    c. Buttress
    d. Spongy bone
A

d. Spongy bone

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28
Q
  1. The final transmission of all masticatory pressure from the mandible is at
    a. The condyle
    b. The coronoid process
    c. The base of the skull
    d. The TMJ
A

c. The base of the skul

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29
Q
  1. Proliferation of connective fissue and its replacement by bone in the sutures is the primary consideration in
    a. Cartilaginous theory
    b. Sutural dominance theory
    c. Functional matrix theory
    d. Interstitial matrix hypothesis
A

b. Sutural dominance theory

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30
Q
  1. Which is not true about endochondral ossification?
    a. It is the conversion of hyaline cartilage prototype into osseous tissue
    b. It is seen in the maxilla
    c. Formation of perichondrum
    d. Rapid interstitial growth within cartilage
A

b. It is seen in the maxilla

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31
Q
  1. The process by which the overall size and shape of bone is first established.
    a. Bone modelling
    b. Bone remodeling
    c. Bone turnover
    d. Bone resorption
A

a. Bone modelling

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32
Q
  1. Phase of bone remodeling that triggers new bone formation
    a. Activation
    b. Resorption
    c. Reversal
    d. Resting
A

c. Reversal

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33
Q
  1. Growth of this tissues are highly influence by growth spurts
    a. Neural
    b. Somatic
    c. General
    d. Lymphoid
A

b. Somatic

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34
Q
  1. Which one is true concerning cartilage?
    a. Highly vascularized
    b. Expands even under pressure
    c. Provides its own nourishment
    d. Collagen type I
A

b. Expands even under pressure

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35
Q
  1. When bone deposition is greater than bone resorption, thickness of bone
    a. Remains constant
    b. Increases
    c. Decreases
    d. Is not directly affected
A

b. Increases

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36
Q
  1. Primordium of the enamel organ
    a. Dental lamin
    b. Stomodeum
    c. Dental papilla
    d. Tooth bud
A

d. Tooth bud

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37
Q
  1. Foundation for the future dental arches
    a. Dental lamina
    b. Stomodeum
    c. Dental papilla
    d. Tooth bud
A

a. Dental lamina

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38
Q
  1. The embryonic oral cavity that is lined by stratified squamous epithelium is called
    a. Stomodeum
    b. Oral ectoderm
    c. Gum pads
    d. Dental papilla
A

b. Oral ectoderm

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39
Q
  1. Ectomesenchymal condensation below the tooth bud forms the
    a. Enamel organ
    b. Dental papilla
    c. Dental sac
    d.Dental lamina
A

b. Dental papilla

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40
Q
  1. Histodifferentiation occurs at
    a. Bud stage
    b. Cap stage
    c. Bell stage
    d. Proliferation
A

c. Bell stage

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41
Q
  1. The formation of enamel in the advanced bell stage is seen
    a. Below ameloblasts
    b. Above ameloblasts
    c. Below odontoblasts
    d. Above odontoblasts
A

a. Below ameloblasts

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42
Q
  1. The formation of dentin in the advance i bell stage is seen
    a. Below ameloblasts
    b. Above ameloblasts
    c. Below odontoblasts
    d. Above odontoblasts
A

d. Above odontoblasts

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43
Q
  1. The primordium of the dentin and pulp
    a. Dental laming
    b. Stomodeum
    c. Dental papilla
A

c. Dental papilla

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44
Q
  1. Human dentition
    a. Heterodont and polyphyodont
    b. Heterodont and diphyodont
    c. Homodont and monodont
    d. Homodant and diphyodont
A

b. Heterodont and diphyodont

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45
Q
  1. All are derived from the mesenchyme, except
    a. Enamel
    b. Dentin
    c. Pulp
    d. Cementum
A

a. Enamel

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46
Q
  1. Cell layer that provides nutrients to the Inner Enamel Epithelium.
    a. Stratum reticulum
    b. Stellate reticulum
    c. Stratum intermedium
    d. Stellate intermedium
A

c. Stratum intermedium

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47
Q
  1. The dental sac is the primordium of the
    a. Dentin only
    b. Dentin and cementum
    c. Cementum and PDL
    d. PDL only
A

c. Cementum and PDL

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48
Q
  1. Growth of the free distal end of dental lamina gives rise to the
    a. Primary tooth bud
    b. Permanent tooth bud
    c. Dental sac
    d. Dental papilla
A

b. Permanent tooth bud

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49
Q
  1. A complete crown
    a. Nolla stage 3
    b. Nolla stage 6
    c. Nolla stage 7
    d. Nolla stage 9
A

b. Nolla stage 6

50
Q
  1. Eruption begins at
    a. Nolla stage 3
    b. Nolla stage 6
    c. Nolla stage 7
    d. Nolla stage 9
A

c. Nolla stage 7

51
Q
  1. Which ectodermal structure gives rise to the enamel organ during odontoge
    a. Stomodeum
    b. Neural crest cells
    c. Dental lamina
    d. Buccal epithelium
A

c. Dental lamina

52
Q
  1. At what age do gum pads typically begin to regede as teeth begin to erupt?
    a. 1 month
    b. 3 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 12 months
A

c. 6 months

53
Q
  1. What is the primary reason for the eventual shedding of primary teeth?
    a. Tooth decay
    b. Growth of permanent teeth
    c. Age
    d. Gum disease
A

b. Growth of permanent teeth

54
Q
  1. What is the typical clinical significance of primate spaces in the primary dentition?
    a. They are indicative of malocclusion and require immediate intervention.
    b. They facilitate the eruption of permanent teelh by providing space.
    c. They increase the risk of tooth decay and gum disease
    d. They indicate abnormal jaw growth and development.
A

b. They facilitate the eruption of permanent teelh by providing space.

55
Q
  1. Teeth present at birth
    a. Natal teeth
    b. Neonatal teeth
    c. Primary teeth
    d. Succedaneous teeth
A

a. Natal teeth

56
Q
  1. Infanfile alveolar arches
    a. Oral ectoderm
    b. Dental lamina
    c. Stomodeum
    d. Gum pads
A

d. Gum pads

57
Q
  1. During which prenatal stage does the initial formation of tooth buds occur?
    a. Germinal stage
    b. Embryonic stage
    c. Fetal stage
    d. Neonatal stage
A

b. Embryonic stage

58
Q
  1. Distal surface of mandibular deciduous second molar is mesial to the distal surface of maxillary deciduous second molar.
    a. Flush terminal plane
    b. Mesial step
    c. Distal step
    d. Straight
A

b. Mesial step

59
Q
  1. Seen in the relationship of upper and lower gum pads due to the activity of the tongue in neonates.
    a. Overjet
    b. Thick gum pads
    c. Anterior open bite
    d. Posterior open bite
A

c. Anterior open bite

60
Q
  1. During which stage of tooth development does the enamel organ differentiate into ameloblasts?
    a. Bud stage
    b. Cap stage
    c. Bell stage
    d. Apposition stage
A

c. Bell stage

61
Q

ORTHODONTICS 1 LECTURE MIDTERM EXAM
1. Processes necessary for eruption of permanent tooth, except:
a. Resorption of bone
b.Resorption of primary root
c. Root formation of permanent tooth
d. Proliferation of gingiva

A

d. Proliferation of gingiva

62
Q
  1. Occlusal movement of tooth without penetrating the overlying gingiva.
    a. Eruption
    b. Pre-emergent eruption
    c. Post-emergent eruption
    d. Passive eruption
A

b. Pre-emergent eruption

63
Q

3.Occlusal movement of tooth with penetration of the overlying gingiva.
a. Eruption
b. Pre-emergent eruption
c. Post-emergent eruption
d. Passive eruption

A

c. Post-emergent eruption

64
Q
  1. The stage of relatively rapid eruption from the time a tooth first penetrates the gingiva until it reaches the occlusal level.
    a. Pre-emergent eruption
    b. Post-emergent spurt
    c. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium
    d. Adult occlusal equilibrium
A

b. Post-emergent spurt

65
Q
  1. This mainly opposes eruption during juvenile occlusal equilibrium.
    a. Biting forces
    b. Absence of antagonist
    C. Loss of propulsive movement
    d. Presence of the tongue
A

a. Biting forces

66
Q
  1. The transition from the primary to the permanent dentition begins at about age?
    a. 4
    b. 8
    c. 6
    d. 10
A

c. 6

67
Q
  1. Phase of very slow eruption when the tooth has reached the occlusal level and teeth are in function.
    a. Pre-emergent eruption
    b. Post-emergent spurt
    c. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium
    d. Adult occlusal equilibrium
A

c. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium

68
Q
  1. When the testing recesunction, the rate of eruption is controlled by
    a. Opposing forces
    b. Propulsive movement
    c. Bone resorption
    d. Root formation
A

a. Opposing forces

69
Q
  1. Also known as the ugly duckling stage and is pertinent to the identification of the dental age.
    a. Primary dentition period
    b. Succedaneous dentition period
    C. Mixed dentition period
    d. Permanent dentition period
A

C. Mixed dentition period

70
Q
  1. Dental age characteristics , except:
    a. Unerupted teeth
    b. Erupted teeth
    C. Resorption of the roots of primary teeth
    d. Eruption of permanent teeth
A

a. Unerupted teeth

71
Q
  1. Dental age that is mainly characterized by eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors.
    a. 7
    b. 9
    C. 8
    D. 10
A

C. 8

72
Q
  1. Dental ages where normally there is no additional appearance of any permanent teeth in the oral cavity.
    a. 9-10
    b.11-12
    C.10-11
    d. 2-15
A

a. 9-10

73
Q
  1. Dental age mainly characterized by the eruption of the mandibular canines, mandibular first premolars, and maxillary first premolars.
    a. 9
    b.10
    c.11
    d.12
A

c.11

74
Q
  1. A first molar is seen to be below the occlusal level as other teeth erupt and bring alveolar bone along with them. The first molar may be
    a. Unerupted
    b. Rotated
    C. Supra-erupted
    d. Ankylosed
A

d. Ankylosed

75
Q
  1. Succedaneous teeth, except
    a. They have primary predecessors
    b. They are permanent teeth
    C. 1st permanent molars
    d. Premolars
A

C. 1st permanent molars

76
Q
  1. Dental age where the roots of all permanent teeth except the third molars are complete, and crown formation of third molars often has been completed.
    a. 11
    b. 12
    C. 15
    d. 18
A

C. 15

77
Q
  1. If a maxillary canine erupts at about the same time as the maxillary first premolar, the maxillary canine may be positioned
    a. Mesial
    b. Labial
    c. palatal
    d. distal
A

b. Labial

78
Q
  1. A 3mm diastema may
    a. Spontaneously close
    b. Lead to anterior protrusion
    c. Need space maintainer
    d. Persist until permanent dentition period
A

d. Persist until permanent dentition period

79
Q
  1. Where are permanent tooth buds found with respect to primary incisors?
    a. Apical and lingual
    b. Apical and facial
    c. Apical only
    d. Below the bifurcation
A

a. Apical and lingual

80
Q
  1. Average leeway space
    a. 1-2 mm
    b. 2-3 mm
    c. 1-2 cm
    d. 2-3 cm
A

b. 2-3 mm

81
Q
  1. The leeway space is often taken by a
    a. Erupting premolars
    b. Erupting 2nd molar
    c. Mesial shift of 1st molar
    d. Distal shifting of anteriors
A

c. Mesial shift of 1st molar

82
Q
  1. Orthodontic treatment of what case may take advantage of the leeway space?
    a. Anterior crowding
    b. Open bite
    c. Diastema closure
    d. Deep bite
A

a. Anterior crowding

83
Q
  1. If a permanent tooth erupts ahead on one side, how long is the available duration for the counterpart to erupt on the other side before assuming a discrepancy. a.
    a. 0-6 months
    b. 6 months to 1 year
    c. 18 months
    d. 18 months to 2 years
A

a. 0-6 months

84
Q
  1. Chemical and other agents capable of producing embryologic defects if given at the critical time are
    a. Carcinogens
    b. Teratogens
    C. Allergens
    d. toxins
A

b. Teratogens

85
Q
  1. Veau classification of a bilateral cleft lip and palate
    a. Class I.
    c. Class III
    b. Class Il.
    d. Class VI
A

d. Class VI

86
Q
  1. Veau classification of unilateral cleft lip
    a. Class I
    b. Class Il
    c. Class III
    d. Class IV
A

b. Class Il

87
Q
  1. Growth seen after the age of 7 is primarily by
    a. Passive Displacement
    b. Active growth
    c. Cranium expansion
    d. No more growth seen
A

a. Passive Displacement

88
Q
  1. Growth displacement of maxilla
    a. Downward and forward b.
    b. Upward and forward
    c. Inferiorly and posteriorly
    d. Superiorly and anteriorly
A

a. Downward and forward

89
Q
  1. Growth pattern of mandible
    a. Downward and forward
    b. Upward and forward
    C. Inferiorly and posteriorly
    d. Superiorly and anteriorly
A

a. Downward and forward

90
Q
  1. Growth in order of completion
    a. Height, Width, Length
    b. Length, Width, Height
    c. Width, Length, Height
    d. Height, Length, Width
A

c. Width, Length, Height

91
Q
  1. Accentuation of the chin is due to
    a. Bone deposition below the chin
    b. Bone resorption above the chin
    c. Bone deposition above the chin
    d. Bone resorption below the chin
A

b. Bone resorption above the chin

92
Q
  1. As we age, the magnitude of change in the soft tissues are _ the changes in hard tissues of the face and jaws
    a. Greater than
    b. Less than.
    c. Equal to
    d. Irrelevant to
A

a. Greater than

93
Q
  1. In the nasomaxillary, the magnitude of bone resorption in the anterior surface is_ bone deposition in the posterior surface.
    a. Greater than
    b. Less than
    c. Equal to
    d. Irrelevant to
A

b. Less than

94
Q
  1. The ramus height increases _ per year
    a. 1-2 mm
    b. 2-3 mm
    c. 1-2 cm.
    d. 2-3 cm
A

a. 1-2 mm

95
Q
  1. The body length of the mandible increases _ per year
    a. 1-2 mm
    b. 2-3 mm
    c. 1-2 cm.
    d. 2-3 cm
A

b. 2-3 mm

96
Q
  1. What growth tends to be completed before adolescent growth spurt?
    a. Length
    b. Width
    c. height
    d. Both length and width
A

b. Width

97
Q
  1. All are essential diagnostic aids, except:
    a. Facial Photographs
    b. study cast
    c. CT scan
    d. Orthopantomogramms
A

c. CT scan

98
Q

38 This identifies the priorities and desires of the patient
a. Chief complaint.
b. Medical history
c. History of present illness
d. Dental History

A

a. Chief complaint.

99
Q
  1. It involves the development of a comprehensive and concise database of pertinent information, sufficient to understand the patient’s problem, and to answer questions arising in the clinician’s mind.
    a. Clinical examination
    b. Diagnosis
    c. Treatment Planning
    d. Interview
A

b. Diagnosis

100
Q
  1. A body build classified as short and obese.
    a. Ectomorphic
    b. Mesomorphic
    c. Endomorphic
    d. Polymorphic
A

c. Endomorphic

101
Q
  1. Cephalic index having a short and broad skull.
    a. Mesocephalic
    b. Brachycephalic
    c. Endocephalic
    d. Dolicocephalic
A

b. Brachycephalic

102
Q
  1. Cephalic index having a long and narrow skull.
    a. Mesocephalic
    b. Brachycephalic
    c. Endocephalic
    d. Dolicocephalic
A

d. Dolicocephalic

103
Q
  1. A body build classified as tall and thin.
    a. Ectomorphic
    b. Mesomorphic
    c. Endomorphic
    d. Polymorphic
A

a. Ectomorphic

104
Q
  1. Average cephalic index
    a. Mesocephalic
    b. Brachycephalic
    C. Endocephalic
    d. Dolicoccephalic
A

a. Mesocephalic

105
Q
  1. Determines the facial width according to Martin and Saller.
    a. Distance between the nasion and gnathion
    b. Distance between the nasion and pogonion
    c. Distance between the right and left orbitale points
    d. Distance between the right and left zygoma points
A

d. Distance between the right and left zygoma points

106
Q
  1. Determines the facial height according to Martin and Saller.
    a. Distance between the nasion and chin
    b. Distance between the nasion and lower lip
    c. Distance between the right and left orbitale points
    d. Distance between the right and left zygoma points
A

a. Distance between the nasion and chin

107
Q
  1. Indicates a low facial skeleton
    a. Euryprosopic
    b. Mesoprosopic
    c. Leptoprosopic
    d. Hyperleptoprosopic
A

a. Euryprosopic

108
Q
  1. Indicates a high facial skeleton
    a. Euryprosopic
    b. Mesoprosopic
    c. Leptoprosopic
    d. Hypereuryprosopic
A

c. Leptoprosopic

109
Q
  1. Cephalic index value of 83.
    a. Mesocephalic
    b. Brachycephalic
    c. Endocephalic
    d. Dolicocephalic
A

b. Brachycephalic

110
Q
  1. Facial index of 85.
    a. Euryprosopic
    b. Mesoprosopic
    c. Leptoprosopic
    d. Hypereuryprosopic
A

b. Mesoprosopic

111
Q
  1. Facial index of 90.
    a. Euryprosopic.
    b. Mesoprosopic
    c. Leptoprosopic.
    d. Hypereuryprosopic
A

c. Leptoprosopic.

112
Q
  1. A convex facial profile is seen in class Il div 2 patients. Whereas a concave facial profile is seen in class Ill patients.
    a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
    c. Both statements are true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

c. Both statements are true.

113
Q
  1. A convex profile may be due to either a protruded mandible or a retruded maxilla. While a concave profile may be due to either a protruded maxilla or a retruded mandible.
    a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
    c. Both statements are true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

d. Both statements are false.

114
Q
  1. The upper incisal edge exposure with the upper lip at rest should be normally_
    a. 1mm
    b. 2mm
    c. 3mm
    d. 4mm
A

b. 2mm

115
Q
  1. These are hypertrophied lips with redundant tissue but weak muscular tonicity.
    a. Competent lips
    b. Incompetent lips
    C. Everted lips
    d. Inverted lips
A

C. Everted lips

116
Q
  1. The nasolabial angle is reduced for patients with retrognathic maxila. Whereas, the nasolabial angle becomes more obtuse in patients with maxillary prognathism.
    a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
    c. Both statements are true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

d. Both statements are false.

117
Q
  1. Incompetent lips do not contact when musculature is relaxed. Lip seal is achieved only by active contraction of the orbicularis oris and mentalis muscles in potentially competent lips.

a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.

A

a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

118
Q
  1. A hyperactive mentalis is commonly seen in patients with what type of malocclusion?
    a. Class I
    b. Class Il
    C. Class III
    d. Pseudoclass III
A

b. Class Il

119
Q
  1. A Deep sulcus is seen in Class Il cases whereas a shallow sulcus is seen usually in bimaxillary protrusion cases.
    a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. b.
    b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
    c. Both statements are true.
    d. Both statements are false
A

c. Both statements are true.

120
Q
  1. Án ideal occlusion
    a. Class I occlusion
    b. Complete complement of teeth
    c. Normal line of occlusion
    d. Absence of malocclusion
A

a. Class I occlusion

Compre (Resto, Ortho, Roent) (4 decks)

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