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Surgical Technology > ORTHO > Flashcards

ORTHO Flashcards

1
Q

Why is orthopedic surgery performed?

A

To treat or correct injuries, congenital anomalies, and diseases of the bone, joints, ligaments, tendons, or muscle.

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2
Q

What is the primary goal of surgical intervention?

A

Alleviating pain.

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3
Q

What do most orthopedic procedures focus on?

A

Restoring bone and joint function that has been lost or diminished because of traumatic injury or disease.

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4
Q

What does the skeleton do?

A

Provides structural support to the soft tissues of the body.

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5
Q

What two parts is the skeleton divided into?

A

The axial and the appendicular.

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6
Q

What is included in the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, face, ear bones, hyoid, sternum, and ribs.

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7
Q

What is included in the appendicular skeleton?

A

Bones of the legs, feet, hands, trunk, and spine.

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8
Q

The _____ has eight main bones that are connected by tough connective tissues called sutures.

A

Skull (cranium)

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9
Q

In the prenatal period, the _____ are wide and soft, which allows the head to mold as it passes through the mother’s pelvis during birth.

A

Sutures

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10
Q

What are the two most common sites of fractures in sports and motor vehicle accidents?

A

The zygoma and orbital rim.

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11
Q

How many vertebrae are in the vertebral column?

A

7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar

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12
Q

The _____ forms the anterior chest wall and is composed of three sections.

A

Sternum

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13
Q

What are the three sections of the sternum?

A

Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.

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14
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton composed of?

A

Clavicle, scapula, bones of the arms, hands, legs, feet, and hip bones.

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15
Q

What is the longest bone in the body?

A

Femur

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16
Q

What are the two types of bone tissues that are found in the body?

A

Cortical bone and cancellous bone

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17
Q

Where is cortical bone found?

A

On the surface of bones and is organized in tubular units called osteons.

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18
Q

Where is cancellous bone found?

A

The ends of bones and the inner layers.

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19
Q

Where is red marrow found?

A

The center of long bones, in the vertebrae, and in the pelvic bones.

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20
Q

Long bones are characterized by a middle shaft called the _____.

A

Diaphysis

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21
Q

What are the ends of long bones called?

A

Epiphyses

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22
Q

The tough bi-layered membrane that covers bones is called ______.

A

Periosteum

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23
Q

What is the function of the periosteum?

A

To protect the bone surface and proved attachment for tendons.

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24
Q

What do the long bones include?

A

Legs, arms, and digits (fingers and toes).

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25
Q

The hollow cavity inside a mature long bone is called the ________.

A

Medullary canal

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26
Q

How are bones classified?

A

By their shape.

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27
Q

The _____ bones are those of the wrist and ankle.

A

short

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28
Q

_______ bones include the vertebrae, spine, and face.

A

Irregular

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29
Q

What is an example of a sesamoid bone?

A

Patella

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30
Q

_____ bones are usually thin compared to other types of bones.

A

Flat

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31
Q

What are some examples of flat bones?

A

Ribs, cranial bone, scapula, and sternum.

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32
Q

What do the landmarks on bones do?

A

These function as areas of attachment for tendons and ligaments. They also provide a passageway for nerves and blood vessels.

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33
Q

How do landmarks appear on the bone?

A

Raised projections, bumps, ridges, channels, and tunnels.

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34
Q

What is a common site for harvesting a bone graft?

A

Iliac crest

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35
Q

The _____ _____ includes areas of the body where two bones meet and some degree of movement occurs.

A

articular system (joints)

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36
Q

How are joints classified?

A

By the degree of movement they allow and also by the shape of the articulating surfaces.

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37
Q

A joint with limited movement or fixed articular surfaces:

A

Synarthrosis (suture joint)

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38
Q

What is an example of a synarthrosis joint?

A

Between the skull bones.

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39
Q

A joint in which the bones are connected by cartilage and only slightly able to move:

A

Amphiarthrosis (cartilaginous joint)

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40
Q

What is an example of an amphiarthrosis joint?

A

Symphysis pubis

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41
Q

A joint that is freely moveable:

A

Diarthrosis (synovial joint)

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42
Q

What is an example of a diarthrosis joint?

A

Hip or shoulder

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43
Q

A ______ is composed of articulating bone ends and connective tissues that surround them.

A

synovial joint

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44
Q

What is the space inside the joint capsule called?

A

Joint cavity

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45
Q

What surrounds the joint and contains nerves and blood vessels?

A

Joint capsule

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46
Q

_____ ______ are separated by immovable cartilaginous or fibrous tissue.

A

Non-synovial joints

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47
Q

A joint that has rocker and cradle components, which allow extension and flexion:

A

Hinge joint

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48
Q

What is an example of a hinge joint?

A

Elbow

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49
Q

A joint in which the two components have complementary convex-concave shape, and the bones slide over each other:

A

Saddle joint

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50
Q

What is an example of a saddle joint?

A

The thumb

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51
Q

A joint in which relatively flat surfaces of bone slide over each other:

A

The vertebrae

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52
Q

A joint with a spherical component and a concave component:

A

Ball-and-socket joint

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53
Q

What is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

A

Hip and humerus

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54
Q

A joint composed of a bony protuberance and an open collar component; this type of joint allows rotation:

A

Pivot joint

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55
Q

What is an example of a pivot joint?

A

The first and second vertebrae of the neck.

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56
Q

A joint in which a small protrusion slides within a slightly elliptical component:

A

Condyloid joint

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57
Q

What is an example of a condyloid joint?

A

Carpal bones of the wrist

58
Q

Tendons attach _____ to _____.

A

muscle;bone

59
Q

Ligaments attach _____ to ______.

A

bone;bone

60
Q

What type of muscle provides movement of the skeletal system?

A

Striated muscle (skeletal muscle)

61
Q

Is striated muscle movement voluntary or involuntary?

A

Voluntary

62
Q

What are the primary functions of muscle?

A

To provide skeletal movement, support the body’s posture, and to maintain body heat through anaerobic metabolism.

63
Q

What are the three phases of bone healing?

A

Inflammatory, reparative, and remodeling.

64
Q

What is the inflammatory phase of bone healing?

A

The body’s clotting mechanism is triggered and fibrin is released to form the basis of platelet aggregation and hematoma, which eventually is absorbed by the body.

65
Q

What happens during the reparative phase of bone?

A

Growth cells originating from the periosteum develop into rudimentary bone cells and cartilage. These cells proliferate and form a callus that fills in the space.

66
Q

What happens during the remodeling phase of bone?

A

This is the replacement of the initial bone matrix with compact bone cells and absorption of excess callus.

67
Q

The modern orthopedic table is mainly used for the surgery of the femur and lower leg is called a ______.

A

Fracture table

68
Q

What is a distraction system?

A

A system that pulls the fractured limb along the long axis of the bone to hold it in alignment and elevate it for operative exposure.

69
Q

What does the pneumatic tourniquet do?

A

Provides a bloodless operative site by blocking the flow of blood.

70
Q

What is used to control bleeding areas of the bone?

A

Bone putty (Ostene)

71
Q

_____ occur as a result of trauma or disease and represent the majority of pathology requiring orthopedic surgery.

A

Fractures

72
Q

The fracture line is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone:

A

Transverse fracture

73
Q

______ is the alignment of bone fragments into anatomical position by manipulation or traction.

A

Closed reduction

74
Q

______ is a mechanical method of applying pulling forces to a fractured bone in order to bring the fragments into alignment.

A

Traction

75
Q

All are parts of the upper extremities EXCEPT for:

A

Patella

76
Q

All of the following are diagnostic procedures EXCEPT for:

A

CT-angioplasty

77
Q

This common fracture pattern is a type of transverse fracture the occurs in an angle.

A

Oblique

78
Q

A ______ fracture in which the fractured end penetrates the skin.

A

Open

79
Q

_____ occur as a result of trauma or disease and is the majority of pathology requiring orthopedic surgery.

A

Fractures

80
Q

Common surgical goals for all types of fractures are alignment of the bones and stabilization of the bone until healing is complete.

A

True

81
Q

The ______________________ is a retractor designed to be used as levers against the bone, to shift the position.

A

Bennet

82
Q

The instrument is used to cut bone in a precise direction and angle.

A

Saw

83
Q

___________________________ are made of titanium or stainless steel and is used to provide stability and support during healing.

A

Plates

84
Q

The shoulder is composed of _______________________ main bones.

A

Three

85
Q

The purpose for the ____________________procedure is to reattach the glenoid rim to the joint capsule with biosynthetic or other anchoring device or with heavy sutures.

A

Bankart

86
Q

In a _________________, the humeral head and glenoid capsule are replaced with artificial components to restore function and relieve pain.

A

Total shoulder arthroplasty

87
Q

Fracture of the hip includes the following areas:the trochanter, fermoral neck, femoral head and acetabulum.

A

True

88
Q

All of the following are arthritic conditions in which a hip arthroplasty may be performed for the course of treatment EXCEPT for:

A

Osteomyelitis

89
Q

During a total hip arthroplasty, the position is either lateral or prone.

A

False

90
Q

During a total hip arthroplasty, the femoral medullary spaced _________ to prepare the femoral side of the joint.

A

Reamed

91
Q

_______ is used in arthroplasty procedures to secure the implant and tissue.

A

Bone cement

92
Q

A(n) _____ _____ is a thick rod inserted into the medullary canal of long bones to provide structural support from inside the bone.

A

Intramedullary nail

93
Q

_____ _____ are metal or synthetic components used to replace the diseased or injured tissues.

A

Joint implants

94
Q

______ is a method of external fixation in which a limb is immobilized by applying plaster or synthetic resin.

A

Casting

95
Q

_____ ______ is edema of tissue within a closed compartment of the body or inside an external cast.

A

Compartment syndrome

96
Q

What are the two types of traction?

A

Skin traction and skeletal traction

97
Q

What are the three main bones of the shoulder?

A

Scapula, clavicle, and humerus.

98
Q

What are the three positions commonly used in shoulder surgery?

A

Lateral decubitus, Fowler, and beach chair.

99
Q

The rotator cuff is composed of _____ tendons that attach to the humerus.

A

four

100
Q

What are the muscles that originate at the scapula?

A

Supraspinatus, subscapularis, infraspinatus, and teres minor.

101
Q

What position is the patient in for a rotator cuff repair?

A

Beach chair or lateral decubitus.

102
Q

_____ are fin-shaped rasps that closely match the contour of the medullary implant.

A

Broaches

103
Q

Fractures of the _____ may occur during sports, industrial accidents, or motor vehicle accidents.

A

Forearm

104
Q

What is a common technique used in fixing fractures of the forearm?

A

Fixation

105
Q

Fractures of the mid radius and ulna are usually repaired using a ___________.

A

dynamic compression plate

106
Q

Closed reduction using a cast for external fixation is applied only to _______.

A

children

107
Q

_______ ________ with external fixation is utilized only as a temporary measure in unstable poly trauma patients or fractures that are highly contaminated.

A

Closed reduction

108
Q

______ ______ of the radius mid shaft is performed as a temporary repair of severe open fractures or those with severe soft tissue injury.

A

External fixation

109
Q

What are the components of the external fixation system?

A

Threaded self-drilling/self tapping pins
Pin-to-bar clamps
Bars
Bar-to-bar clamps

110
Q

The _________ is a common site of injury in a fall.

A

femoral neck (trochanter)

111
Q

The goal of ___________ is to replace diseased components of the hip joint, including the acetabulum, trochanter, and ball of the femur, with one or more artificial implants.

A

hip arthroplasty

112
Q

A ________ is a rigid rod that is seated in the medullary canal and held in position with locking screws placed at a 90-degree angle to the nail.

A

femoral nail

113
Q

The _______ fracture is among the most common injuries of the leg.

A

femoral shaft

114
Q

What are some instruments that may be used in an intramedullary femoral nailing procedure?

A

Hip retractors, drill, Steinman pin set, and femoral nailing system.

115
Q

The _____ is the most complicated joint of the body.

A

knee

116
Q

The _____ is the largest joint, and it carries a great deal of body weight, especially when in motion.

A

knee

117
Q

What are the two joints of the knee that are surrounded by ligaments and tendons?

A

Tibiofemoral joint and patellofemoral joint

118
Q

The _______ separate the femoral and tibial condyles and provide shock absorption.

A

menisci

119
Q

Many procedures of the knee are approached ______.

A

endoscopically

120
Q

________ is a common technique for assessing and correcting problems arising for injury or disease of the knee.

A

Knee arthroscopy

121
Q

The ______ is a horseshoe shaped cartilage that distributes load across the joint and creates stability.

A

meniscus

122
Q

What is the most common knee injury?

A

A tear in the meniscus

123
Q

The _________ stabilizes the knee in the anterior-posterior position, preventing buckling of the knee.

A

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

124
Q

How do ACL tears usually occur?

A

During a twisting motion of the leg, often during sports or strenuous activity.

125
Q

What three cartilaginous surfaces of the knee that are replaced during a total knee arthroplasty?

A

Patella, tibia, and femur.

126
Q

What are the three common forms of arthritis that affect the knee?

A

Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and post-traumatic arthritis.

127
Q

_______ is the most common indication for knee arthroplasty.

A

Osteoarthritis

128
Q

The patient is encouraged to ambulate within ____ hours after surgery.

A

24

129
Q

Fractures of the _____ are commonly the result of high-velocity impact caused by motor vehicle accident or sports trauma.

A

tibia

130
Q

What does ischemic mean?

A

Lacking blood supply

131
Q

The goal of ________ is to increase the quality of life of the patient by offering a means to regain the use of the leg.

A

transfemoral amputation

132
Q

The most common indication for amputation is ischemia caused by ______.

A

diabetes mellitus primary vascular disease

133
Q

The _______ of the muscles during a transtibial amputation are extremely important to the rehabilitation of the patient and their ability to bear weight on the stump.

A

flap design and attachment

134
Q

Fractures and sprains of the _____ and distal tibia are common sport injuries.

A

foot

135
Q

How many bones does the foot contain?

A

26

136
Q

Surgical repair of the Achilles tendon is the _________ for active individuals.

A

golden standard

137
Q

A _________ is one that is shredded and torn and partially avulsed but not completely severed.

A

ruptured tendon

138
Q

_________ is the fusion of the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints.

A

Triple arthrodesis

139
Q

In a _______, an enlarged metatarsal head is reduced or removed.

A

bunionectomy

140
Q

What is the goal of a bunionectomy procedure?

A

Alleviate pain and increase patient mobility.

141
Q

_________ is a deformity of the first metatarsal head and is associated with various structural anomalies of the entire toe.

A

Hallux valgus

142
Q

How is infection control addressed in orthopedic surgery?

A

Laminar airflow, helmet systems, and particular attention to skin preparation.

Surgical Technology (1 decks)

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