orgchem

Question 1

Which of the following compounds has an Ionic
bond?
I. H2O
II. NH4Cl
III. CH3Cl
IV. CH3Li
A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. III

Answer 1

A. II

Question 2

How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule
of propene?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

Answer 2

C. 6

Question 3

In which species are all the carbon atoms
considered to be sp2 hybridized?
l. C2H2
II. C2H4
Ill. C3H8
IV. C4H10
A. IV
B. Il
C. I
D. Ill

Answer 3

B. II

Question 4

For which compound are the empirical and
molecular formulas the same?
I C6H5COOH
II C6H4(COOH)2
III HOOCCOOH
IV CH3COOH
A. Ill
B. I
C. IV
D. II

Answer 4

B. I

Question 5

How many different compounds have the formula
C5H12?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

Answer 5

D. 3

Question 6

In which species Is the carbon-nitrogen bond the
shortest?
I. CH3NH2
II. CH2NH
Ill. (CH3)4N+
IV. CH3CN
A. Il
B. I
C. IV
D. Il

Answer 6

C. IV

Question 7

What Is the hybridization of the carbon atom in
a carboxyl group?
A. sp
B. sp3
C. sp2
D. dsp3

Answer 7

C. sp2

Question 8

Which of the following hydrocarbon has the
lowest boiling point?
l. C4H10
ll. CH4
Ill. C6H6
IV. C2H6
A. IV
B. II
C. I
D. III

Answer 8

B. II

Question 9

How many different alcohols have the molecular
formula C4H10O?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

Answer 9

B. 4

Question 10

Which compound Is expected to be most
soluble in water at 25oC
I N2 (g)
II O2 (g)
Ill (C2H5)2NH (l)
IV C2H5OC2H5 (l)
A. III
B. IV
C. I
D. II

Answer 10

A. III

Question 11

the gentle oxidation of ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
produces ______
I ethanal, CH3CHO
Il ethanoic acid, CH3CO2H
Ill carbon monoxide, CO
IV carbon dioxide, CO2
A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III

Answer 11

B. I

Question 12

The following compounds have very similar
molar masses. What would be the correct order
when they are arranged in order of increasing
strength of their intermolecular forces.
l. C3H8
Il. CH3OCH3
III. CH3CH2OH
A. II < I < III
B. III < I < II
C. I < II < III
D. III < II < I

Answer 12

C. I < II < III

Question 13

A reaction in which a carboxylic add reacts with
an alcohol to form an organic compound and water
Is called
A. saponification
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. hydrolysis

Answer 13

B. esterification

Question 14

Which class of compounds consist exclusively
of saturated hydrocarbons?
A. alkenes
B. aromatics
C. alkynes
D. alkanes

Answer 14

D. alkanes

Question 15

What is the position of the bromine atom relative
to the methyl group in 3-bromotoluene?
A. meta
B. para
C. ortho
D. trans

Answer 15

A. meta

Question 16

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence
of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the for this
compound?
I C4H8O2
II C4H10O
III C5H10O2
IV C5H12O
A. IV
B. II
C. III
D. I

Answer 16

D. I

Question 17

Which combination of reactants produces an
ester?
A. aldehyde and potassium permanganate
B. acid and alcohol
C. acid and aldehyde
D. alcohol and aldehyde

Answer 17

B. acid and alcohol

Question 18

In crystallization, the solution which is obtained
after filtration is the
A. clear solution
B. colloidal solution
C. suspended solution
D. None of the given answers

Answer 18

A. clear solution

Question 19

In crystallization, the crystal phases can be
Inter-converted by varying ______
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. viscosity
D. size

Answer 19

A. temperature

Question 20

Which separation technique is based in the
volatility of the compounds to be separated?
A. solvent extraction
B. distillation
C. paper chromatography
D. filtration

Answer 20

B. distillation

Question 21

Fractional distillation is different from distillation
because of the presence of a _______
A. Fractionating column
B. Condenser
C. Conical flask
D. Distillation flask

Answer 21

A. Fractionating column

Question 22

The process of heating a liquid mixture to form
vapors and then cooling the vapors to get a pure
component is called
A. Distillation
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Sublimation

Answer 22

A. Distillation

Question 23

A common measure of efficiency in a
fractionating column is the
A. length of the condenser used in the setup
B. number of distillation types
C. number of components in the solution
D. number of theoretical plates in the column

Answer 23

D. number of theoretical plates in the column

Question 24

Five grams an organic solid was dissolved in
100 mL of distilled water. Which of the following
extraction methods can remove the largest amount
of organic solid from an aqueous solution?
A. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL
portion of ether.
B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL
portions of ether.
C. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL
portion of acetic acid.
D. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL
portions of acetic acid.

Answer 24

B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL
portions of ether.

Question 25

Which of the following funnels should be used
to filter hot mother liquor during recrystallization?
A. Buchner funnel
B. Hirsch funnel
C. Long stem funnel
D. Short stem funnel

Answer 25

D. Short stem funnel

Question 26

What is the key step in a recrystallization
process?
A Taking the melting point of wet crystals
B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold
solvent
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let
crystals grow
D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum
filtration

Answer 26

C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let
crystals grow

Question 27

Which of the following is the example of
crystallization process?
A. Purification of alum
B. None of the given answers
C. Separation of gases from air
D. Purification of sea water

Answer 27

A. Purification of alum

Question 28

A constant boiling mixture of two in a solution is
called a/an _______
A. azeotrope
B. Ideal
C. non-ideal solution
D. eutectic mixture

Answer 28

A. azeotrope

Question 29

A compound Is known to decompose at its
boiling point. Which of the following can be to purity
this substance?
A. Steam distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Liquid-liquid extraction
D. Vacuum distillation

Answer 29

A. Steam distillation

Question 30

When the solid and liquid phases are in
equilibrium, the temperature of the system
A. decreases gradually
B. none of the given answers
C. Increases gradually
D. remains constant

Answer 30

D. remains constant

Question 31

Which is the INCORRECT statement among the
following?
A. An impure sample of the substance has a
different melting point.
B. Two different pure substances have the same
melting points.
C. Melting point serves as the criterion of purity of a
solid substance.
D. Every pure crystalline substance has a
characteristic and unique melting point.

Answer 31

B. Two different pure substances have the same
melting points.

Question 32

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at
which the vapor pressure is ______
A. lesser than internal pressure
B. equal to internal pressure
C. equal to external pressure
D. greater than internal pressure

Answer 32

C. equal to external pressure

Question 33

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the
weighing pan of the analytical balance
B. Weight of liquids is approximately equal to its
density.
C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction
flask by using a metal spatula.
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the
mass of the empty vial with cap first.

Answer 33

D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the
mass of the empty vial with cap first.

Question 34

A reaction mixture needs to be cooled to -77*C
after refluxing. What Is the best method to be used?
A. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath.
B. Place the reaction vessel in the freezer.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a salt and crushed
ice mixture.
D. Place tie reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone
mixture

Answer 34

D. Place tie reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone
mixture

Question 35

Which of reactions will consume the most
oxygen?
A. complete combustion one mole of octane
B. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3-
dimethylhexane
C. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3,4-
trimethylpentane
D. All the given compounds win consume the same
amount of oxygen

Answer 35

D. All the given compounds win consume the same
amount of oxygen

Question 36

Which of the following techniques can be used
to heat a reaction to 200*C?
A. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the reaction vessel.
B. use a heating mantle with stirring.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with
stirring.
D. Place the reaction vessel in a water bath with
stirring.

Answer 36

C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with
stirring.

Question 37

When proteins are broken down by enzymes,
the products are ______
A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates

Answer 37

A. amino acids

Question 38

Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo SN2
mechanism?
A. 2-bromobutane
B. bromomethane
C. 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
D. 1-bromobutane

Answer 38

B. bromomethane

Question 39

Aldehydes and ketones generally react by
______
A. nucleophilic substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophile addition
D. electrophile substitution

Answer 39

B. nucleophilic addition

Question 40

AICl3 is a catalyst used in the alkylation of
aromatic compounds. It is a
A. a Lewis acid
B. a Lowry-Bronsted acid
C. an Arrhenius acid
D. a Lewis base

Answer 40

A. a Lewis acid

Question 41

An Industrial source of alcohol is _______
A. Fats
B. Coal
C. Sugar
D. Ethers

Answer 41

C. Sugar

Question 42

The reaction rate is defined as the rate at
concentration of the reactants ______ time or the
rate at which the concentration of products _______
with time
A. decrease, decrease
B. Increase, Increase
C. decrease, Increase
D. Increase. decrease

Answer 42

C. decrease, Increase

Question 43

Hydrogenation of an alkene yields _______
A. alcohol
B. aldehyde
C. alkane
D. alkyne

Answer 43

C. alkane

Question 44

Which of following Is produced when hydrogen
is reacted with 2-butanone?
A. tertiary
B. aldehyde
C. primary alcohol
D. secondary alcohol

Answer 44

D. secondary alcohol

Question 45

What of the following reactions are favored by
polar aprotic solvent?
A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions
B. SN1 reactions
C. None of the given choices
D. SN2 reactions

Answer 45

D. SN2 reactions

Question 46

Benzene and its derivatives undergo
substitution reactions instead of addition reactions
because
A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable
pi-bonding pattern remains intact
B. the benzene ring is sterically crowded, hence,
substitution can occur
C. the hydrogens or benzene are relatively bound
D. the benzene is electron rich

Answer 46

A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable
pi-bonding pattern remains intact

Question 47

Quantitative analysis of compounds can be
done using
A. Ion exchange chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Gas chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

Answer 47

C. Gas chromatography

Question 48

A mobile phase can be classified as
I. Solid Il. Liquid Ill. Gas
A. Il only
B. Ill
C. Il and Ill only
D. I only

Answer 48

C. Il and Ill only

Question 49

The ion exchange resin with a functional group
of HSO3- exchanges ions with _____
A. Small cations and anions
B. Cations
C. Large cations and anions
D. Anions

Answer 49

B. Cations

Question 50

In thin layer chromatography, the solvent or
mobile phase contained in a closed chamber is a
mixture of
A. a liquid and a gas
B. liquid
C. solids
D. gases

Answer 50

B. liquid

Question 51

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography
plate is made up of
A. Wood
B. Fibro
C. Metal
D. Glass

Answer 51

D. Glass

Question 52

Affinity chromatography Is used for the analysis
and isolation of ______
A. All of the given answer
B. Insoluble starch substances
C. Enzyme tyrosinase
D. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached
antigen on cellulose column

Answer 52

A. All of the given answer

Question 53

Retardation the ratio of
A. Distance moved by solvent from base line to
distance moved by the substance from base line
B. Distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line
C. Distance moved by solvent from top fine to
distance moved by the substance from top line
D. Distance moved by substance from top line to
distance moved by the solvent from top line

Answer 53

B. Distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line

Question 54

Gas-solid chromatography is ______
chromatography as basic principle Involved.
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Ion-exchange
D. Exclusion

Answer 54

B. Adsorption

Question 55

In chromatography, the relative solubility of
solute in both the phases determines the _____
A. Rate of disappearance of solute
B. Rate of movement of solvent
C. Rate of disappearance of solvent
D. Rate of movement of solute

Answer 55

B. Rate of movement of solvent

Question 56

Which of the following chromatographic
methods is most suitable for the analysis of high
molecular
weight compounds that are soluble in non-polar
solvents?
A. gas- liquid
B. gel filtration
C. ion-exchange
D. gel permeation

Answer 56

B. gel filtration

Question 57

What the wavelength range for UV spectrum of
light?
A. 400 nm - 700 nm
B. 10 nm to 400 nm
C. 700 nm to 1 mm
D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm

Answer 57

B. 10 nm to 400 nm

Question 58

The elution power of a solvent is determined by
A. Its overall polarity
B. The polarity of the stationary phase
C. All of the given answers
D. The nature of the sample components

Answer 58

C. All of the given answers

Question 59

T h e c o m p o n e n t s o f t h e i n - c o l u m n
chromatography are eluted in order of
A. Increasing polarity end decreasing distribution
ratio
B. Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution
ratio
C. Increasing polarity and Increasing distribution
ratio
D. Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution
ratio

Answer 59

C. Increasing polarity and Increasing distribution
ratio

Question 60

Column chromatography is based on the
principle of
A. Ion-exchange
B. Differential adsorption
C. Absorption
D. Exclusion principle

Answer 60

B. Differential adsorption

Question 61

Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D, In
squalene than cyclohexane. squalene is an aliphatic
type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of
the two compounds from the GC column?
A. Benzene will be eluted first
B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first.
C. The order of elution cannot be determined.
D. The two peaks will overlap

Answer 61

A. Benzene will be eluted first

Question 62

In thin layer chromatography, the relative
adsorption of components of the mixture is
expressed in
terms of its _______
A. Retardation factor
B. Solubility factor
C. Acceleration factor
D. Both acceleration end retardation factor

Answer 62

A. Retardation factor

Question 63

Which is the correct statement from the
following?
A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than
atomic spectra
B. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an
electron between molecular energy levels
C. In molecular transitions. electronic, rotational and
vibration transitions occurs
D. All of the given choices

Answer 63

D. All of the given choices

Question 64

Which of the following is a NOT a characteristic
of chromophores?

A. May contain extensive conjugated double bonds
B. Contains unsaturated functional group
C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in
the UV-visible region
D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

Answer 64

C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in
the UV-visible region

Question 65

The different types of energies associated with a
molecule are
A. Electronic energy
B. Rotational energy
C. All of the given answers
D. Vibrational energy

Answer 65

C. All of the given answers

Question 66

Which of the following Is an application of
molecular spectroscopy?
A. All of the given answers
B. Basis of understanding of colors
C. Structural investigation
D. Study of energetically excited reaction products

Answer 66

A. All of the given answers

Question 67

formula of C7H14O exhibits an IR peak at 1715
cm-1. The compound may be a/an ____
A. ketone
B. ether
C. ester
D. alcohol

Answer 67

A. ketone

Question 68

Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents.
What Is the disadvantage of using these to dissolve
analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-visible
region?
A. They react with the analyte given the energy at
this region.
B. Their solvents prevent the analyte from
absorbing light.
C. They also absorb light at the UV-visible region.
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of
the analyte

Answer 68

D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of
the analyte

Question 69

Which of the following Is an application of
electronic spectroscopy?
A. Study of kinetics of chemical reaction
B. Control of purification
C. All of the given answers
D. Detection of impurities

Answer 69

C. All of the given answers

Question 70

At which region can be found the peaks due to
N — H, C — H and O — H stretching and bending
motions?
A. 2500 to 2000 cm-1
B. 1500 to 1000 cm-1
C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1
D. 2000 to 1500 cm-1

Answer 70

C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1

Question 71

Hazardous wastes by defining may be all of the
following EXCEPT ______
A. Explosive
B. Toxic
C. Corrosive
D. Reactive

Answer 71

A. Explosive

Question 72

Which treatment of wastes can be done in situ?
A. Air stripping
B. Chemical degradation
C. All of the given answers
D. Biodegradation

Answer 72

C. All of the given answers

Question 73

Which treatment method is NOT typically used
to remove organic compounds?
A. Thermal
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Chemica

Answer 73

A. Thermal

Question 74

The following are requirements for hazardous
waste storage EXCEPT
A. The floors should be impermeable liquids and
resistant to attack by chemicals.
B. Drums should be preferably stored upright or
pallets and stacked no more than four drums
C. The facility should be enclosed but ventilated.
D. The facility should be properly secured and can
be easily accessed by anyone.

Answer 74

D. The facility should be properly secured and can
be easily accessed by anyone.

Question 75

Waste solvents which are halogenated should
be placed in separate containers from nonhalogenated
waste solvents because ______.
A. Non-halogenated waste solvents are more toxic.
B. They are not compatible with each other.
C. They will react with each other.
D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste
solvents is higher

Answer 75

D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste
solvents is higher

Question 76

All of the following about hazardous waste
containers are true, EXCEPT for the following
A. Containers must be closed except when
removing or adding waste.
B. Any type of container, Including food containers.
can be used to contain hazardous waste.
C. Contents must be compatible with the type of
waste containers.
D. Containers must be clean on the outside.

Answer 76

B. Any type of container, Including food containers.
can be used to contain hazardous waste.

Question 77

Segregation of waste organic solvents is very
important because _______
A The costs for disposal of waste solvents differ.
B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled.
C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment.
D: All of the given answers

Answer 77

D: All of the given answers

Question 78

Which method is considered an unacceptable
means of disposing waste?
A. All methods given are unacceptable
B. Pouring down the sink
C. Placing in the regular trash
D. Pouring down the drainage canal

Answer 78

A. All methods given are unacceptable

Question 79

If you discover that a hazardous waste container
has a minor leak. what should you do?
A. Patch the leaking hazardous waste container.
B. Place the leaking container on to a secondary
container so that the waste will be property
collected until It is removed from the laboratory.
C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to
another empty container in good condition.
D. Immediately notify the Pollution Control Officer
so that an environmental report may be filed with
the regulatory agency.

Answer 79

C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to
another empty container in good condition.

Question 80

Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid
and water?
A. Pour acid into water
B. Pour them at the same time
C. Pour water into acid
D. Let the supervisor pour them

Answer 80

A. Pour acid into water

Question 81

Which of the following colors used on the ‘NFPA
diamond” chemical hazard warning label represents
the health hazard?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. White

Answer 81

B. Blue

Question 82

When a chemical splashes In the eye, rinse for
______
A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 15 minutes

Answer 82

D. 15 minutes

Question 83

How is clean, unbroken or broken glass waste
to be disposed of?
A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and
taped. For small quantities of broken glass. put into
sharps container
B. Into containers lined with black bags
C. Into containers lined with yellow bags.
D. Into containers lined with clear bags

Answer 83

A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and
taped. For small quantities of broken glass. put into
sharps container

Question 84

Which of the following is an acceptable practice
when working in a chemical laboratory?
A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles
while performing the analysis
B. Wearing sandals or open-toed shoes
C. Eating and drinking inside the chemical
laboratory
D. Wearing gloves to touch door handles, elevator
buttons, etc.

Answer 84

A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles
while performing the analysis

Question 85

Which of the following pair is not correct about
NFPA diamond chemical label hazard warning?
A. Blue: 0 highly toxic
B. Blue: health
C. Red: flammability
D. Red: 0 non-flammable

Answer 85

A. Blue: 0 highly toxic

Question 86

Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is
mixed with air in the appropriate concentration.
When handling flammable liquids, you should
_______
A avoid nearby sources of ignition
B. use adequately ventilated work areas
C. keep containers closed except during transfer of
Contents
D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors

Answer 86

D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors

Question 87

Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous
when ________
A. concentrated
B. all of the above
C. when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air md allowed to evaporate
D. heated

Answer 87

B. all of the above

Question 88

What is the hybridization of C that is bonded
with N in acetonitrile, CH3C ≡ N?
A. sp
B. sp3
C. sp2
D. sp3d2

Answer 88

A. sp

Question 89

Which of the following molecules has a linear
geometry?
A. water (H2O)
B. carbon dioxide (CO2)
C. ammonia (NH3)
D. boron trifluoride (BF3)

Answer 89

B. carbon dioxide (CO2)

Question 90

Which of the following LEAST describes an
organic compound?
A. It always comes from a living source.
B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon
atoms.
C. Light molecular weight compounds are
combustible.
D. None of the above

Answer 90

A. It always comes from a living source.

Question 91

The vital force theory was disproved by the
synthesis of which compound?
A. ethanol
B. cyanide
C. urea
D. ammonia

Answer 91

C. urea

Question 92

What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon
in acetone?
A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. sp3

Answer 92

B. sp2

Question 93

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional
isomer with the others? (???)
A. cyclohexene
B. 3-methylpentene
C. 2-hexyne
D. 1-hexene

Answer 93

B. 3-methylpentene

Question 94

Which of the following is a pair of
stereoisomers?
A. 2-octene and 3-octene
B. D-glucose and L-gulose
C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
D. hexanoic acid and heptanoic acid

Answer 94

C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene

Question 95

What is the common name for ethenylbenzene?
A. styrene
B. cumene
C. xylene
D. limonene

Answer 95

A. styrene

Question 96

Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic
compound?
A. neopentane
B. cycloheptane
C. 3-heptyne
D. xylene

Answer 96

B. cycloheptane

Question 97

Which of the following is/are characteristics of
an aromatic compound?
I. It is cyclic and planar.
II. It is completely conjugated.
III. It is composed of even- numbered carbon
atoms.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and Ill
D. l, Il, and Ill

Answer 97

B. I and II

Question 98

Which of the following is arranged in order of
increasing boiling point?
A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone <
butanol
B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane butanone < butanol
C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone
D. n-pentane 2-methylbutane butanol < butanone

Answer 98

A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone <
butanol

Question 99

Which of the following solvents will butyric acid
be most soluble?
A. CCl4
B. water
C. hexane
D. CH2Cl2

Answer 99

B. water

Question 100

Among the Ortho, meta and para isomers of
xylene, which has the highest boiling point?
A. ortho-xylene
B. meta-xylene
C. para-xylene
D. Ortho-xylene and para-xylene

Answer 100

A. ortho-xylene

Question 101

Which is the most acidic among the following
compounds?
A. CH3OH
B. C6H5OH
C. CH3COOH
D. (CH3)3COH

Answer 101

C. CH3COOH

Question 102

Which functional group is directly responsible
for the flavors present in wine?
A. ester
B. ether
C. alcohol
D. anhydride

Answer 102

A. ester

Question 103

Which of the following is used commonly as
refrigerants?
A. alkyl ethers
B. alkyl esters
C. alkyl alcohols
D. alkyl halides

Answer 103

D. alkyl halides

Question 104

Which of the following is NOT a step in addition
polymerization?
A. initiation
B. substitution
C. propagation
D. termination

Answer 104

B. substitution

Question 105

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
A. H2/Pd-c
B. H2/Lindlar
C. Na/NH3
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

Answer 105

D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

Question 106

Which alkyl halide will most readily react in SN1
reactions?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. can be any

Answer 106

C. tertiary

Question 107

Which of the following compounds is NOT
produced from oxidation of alkenes?
A. ester
B. ketone
C. carboxylic acid
D carbon dioxide

Answer 107

A. ester

Question 108

An unknown alcohol was reacted with the Lucas
reagent and the observation was the immediate
appearance of turbidity.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. can be any

Answer 108

C. tertiary

Question 109

Pyridinium cholorochromate (PCC) is a mild
oxidizing agent. What is the product formed when 1
-butanol reacts with PCC?
A. butanal
B. 2-butanone
C. butanoic acid
D. tert-butanol

Answer 109

A. butanal

Question 110

What is the product when an aldehyde reacts
with a Grignard reagent?
A. a secondary alcohol
B. an aldehyde
C. a ketone
D. an alkene

Answer 110

A. a secondary alcohol

Question 111

Which of the following indicates a positive
observation for the iodoform test?
A. appearance of silver mirror
B. appearance of purple oily layer
C. appearance of yellow precipitate
D. appearance of colorless crystals

Answer 111

C. appearance of yellow precipitate

Question 112

Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of
carboxylic acids that can
A. react with themselves to form ketones.
B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides
and esters.
C. be made from alkyl alcohols by reaction with
thionyl chloride.
D. be reduced to ketones with hydrogen and a
platinum catalyst.

Answer 112

B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides
and esters.

Question 113

What is the funnel used in suction filtration?
A. filter funnel
B. dropping funnel
C. thistle funnel
D. Büchner funnel

Answer 113

D. Büchner funnel

Question 114

This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to
release the pressure build up inside the separatory
funnel during shaking.
A- stirring
B. venting
C. drawing
D. salting out

Answer 114

B. venting

Question 115

This method of distillation is suitable when the
components of a mixture to be separated are
thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high
temperatures.
A. steam distillation
B. simple distillation
C. fractional distillation

Answer 115

A. steam distillation

Question 116

It is the highest concentration of a substance in
the air that will produce a fire or explosion when
source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is
present.
A. lower flammable limit
B. upper flammable limit
C. reactivity limit
D. flash limit

Answer 116

B. upper flammable limit

Question 117

What is the most appropriate type of container
to be used for acid and base wastes?
A. metal drums
B. fiber drums
C. polyethylene drums
D. tightly-sealed glass container

Answer 117

C. polyethylene drums

Question 118

It is the more common form of high pressure
liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the
stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase
is polar.
A. HPLC-MS
B. HPLC-NMR
C. normal-phase
D. reversed-phase

Answer 118

D. reversed-phase

Question 119

In this chromatographic method, the sample
may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous
mobile phase.
A. gas chromatography
B. affinity chromatography
C. thin layer chromatography
D. high pressure liquid chromatography

Answer 119

A. gas chromatography

Question 120

In a calibration curve, absorbance is plotted
against the _______ of an analyte.
A. pH
B. volume
C. concentration
D. redox potential

Answer 120

C. concentration

Question 121

Which of the following can be done to purify a
synthesized solid product?
A. extraction
B. distillation
C. recrystallization
D. chromatography

Answer 121

C. recrystallization

Question 122

In an MSDS Data Sheet, which of the following
color symbolizes reactivity?
A. blue
B. red
C. yellow
D. white

Answer 122

C. yellow

Question 123

According to the GHS, which of the following is
not under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”?
A. compressed gas
B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas
D. explosive gas

Answer 123

D. explosive gas

Question 124

water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization
of benzoic acid. HOW should be addition of the
solvent?
A. Add benzoic acid to minimum amount of hot
water with stirring.
B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while
stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
C. Add maximum amount Of hot water to benzoic
acid while stirring.
D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid
while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves

Answer 124

D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid
while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves

Question 125

Sample preparation technique used prior to
instrumental analysis of metals.
A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction

Answer 125

C. acid digestion

Question 126

A simple fractional tube is packed with which of
the following?
A. wooden beads
B. plastic beads
C. metal beads
D. glass beads

Answer 126

D. glass beads

Question 127

The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes
at
A. a lower temperature than its boiling point
B. a higher temperature than its boiling point
C. its boiling point
D. none of the above

Answer 127

A. a lower temperature than its boiling point

Question 128

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography
plate is made up of
A. glass
B. wood
C. fiber
D. metal

Answer 128

A. glass

Question 129

Retardation factor is the ratio of
A. distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line
B. distance moved by solvent from base line to
distance moved by the substance from base line
C. distance moved by substance from top line to
distance moved by the solvent from top line
D. distance moved by solvent from top line to
distance moved by the substance from top line

Answer 129

A. distance moved by substance from base line to
distance moved by the solvent from base line

Question 130

Which of the following is FALSE regarding
galvanic cells?
A. TO set up this cell, a salt bridge is used.
B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are
different.

Answer 130

B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.

Question 131

During electroplating of silver, the silver ions are
reduced at the
A. anode
B. cathode
C. electrolyte solution
D. none of the above

Answer 131

B. cathode

Question 132

A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1
M cuS04 solution and an iron rod in 2 M FeS04
solution. Identify the anode and cathode.
A. anode-copper; cathode-iron
B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
C. anode-copper; cathode-copper
D. anode-iron; cathode-iron

Answer 132

B. anode-iron; cathode-copper

Question 133

The different types of energies associated with a
molecule are
A. Electronic energy
B. Vibrational energy
C. Rotational energy
D. All of the above

Answer 133

D. All of the above

Question 134

Beer’s Law states that
A. absorbance is proportional to both the path
length and concentration of the
absorbing species
B. absorbance is proportional to the log of the
concentration of the absorbing species
C. absorbance is equal to PO/P
D. none of the above

Answer 134

A. absorbance is proportional to both the path
length and concentration of the
absorbing species

Question 135

Which list below gives only spin active nuclei?
A. 1H, 2H, 12C
B. 1H, 12C, 19F
C. 1H, 13C, 19F
D. 2H, 12C, 19F

Answer 135

C. 1H, 13C, 19F

Question 136

Which of the following is the principle of Atomic
Absorption spectroscopy?
A. Color is measured.
B. Color is simply observed.
C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted
radiation is measured.
D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in
vapor state and are excited to higher states

Answer 136

D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in
vapor state and are excited to higher states

Question 137

Which of the following is(are) application(s) of
ion exchange chromatography?
A. Softening Of hard water
B. Demineralization of water
C. Separation and determination of anions
D. All of the above

Answer 137

D. All of the above

Question 138

Which of the following is widely used for the
separation/purification of specific biomolecules?
This relies on the highly specific binding between an
analyte and its counterpart.
A. Chiral chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Ion exclusion chromatography

Answer 138

B. Affinity chromatography

Question 139

Which of the following statements about mass
spectroscopy is(are) correct?
l. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
ll. The ions are separated according to their mass to
charge ratio.
Ill. The addition of compound identification mass
spectra can be utilized to determine precise
isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.
A. Il only
B. land Ill
C. Il and Ill
D. I, Il, and Ill

Answer 139

D. I, Il, and Ill

Question 140

IR spectroscopy is useful for determining certain
aspects of the structure of organic compounds
because
A. All molecular bonds absorb IR radiation.
B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass.
C. Each element absorbs at a characteristic
wavelength.
D. Most organic functional groups absorb in
characteristic region of IR spectrum.

Answer 140

D. Most organic functional groups absorb in
characteristic region of IR spectrum.

Question 141

Determine which compound will have the
following IR peaks: 3020-3100 and 1650-1670 cm-1
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. 3-hexyne
D. n-hexane

Answer 141

B. cyclohexene

Question 142

The region of electromagnetic spectrum for
NMR is
A. IR
B. UV-Vis
C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency

Answer 142

D. Radio frequency

Question 143

What must be done to the solid samples for it to
be introduced into the column without using solid
injection syringes in gas chromatography?
A. dissolved in volatile liquids
B. introduced using sampling loops
C. introduced using rotary sample valve
D. introduced in hot-zone of the column

Answer 143

A. dissolved in volatile liquids

Question 144

Which of the following is NOT an ideal
characteristic of a detector used in gas
chromatography?
A. high reliability
B. short response time
C. linear response to the solutes
D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a
carrier gas

Answer 144

D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a
carrier gas

Question 145

Which of the following detectors is widely used
to detect environmental samples like chlorinated
pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls?
A. Flame ionization detector
B. Electron capture detector
C. Thermionic specific detector
D. Thermal conductivity detector

Answer 145

B. Electron capture detector

Question 146

Which of the following is NOT true about the
guard column used in liquid chromatography?
A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column.
B. It filters particles that clog the separation column.
C. The size of packing varies with the type of
protection needed.
D. It allows entry of particles that cause
precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase

Answer 146

D. It allows entry of particles that cause
precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase

Question 147

Which of the following columns are not used in
liquid or high performance liquid chromatography?
A. guard column
B. capillary column
C. analytical column
D. separation column

Answer 147

B. capillary column

Question 148

Which compound is different among the other
compounds?
A. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
B. CH3COCH2CH3
C. C6H5OCH2CH3
D.C6H5 CH2OCH3

Answer 148

B. CH3COCH2CH3

Question 149

Electrophiles are
A. electron-poor species
B. electron-rich species
C. positively charged ions
D. electrically neutral species

Answer 149

A. electron-poor species

Question 150

How many σ and π bonds are present in
benzene?
A. 6 σ and 3 π

B. 3 σ and 6 π

C. 3 σ and 12 π

D.12 σ and 3 π

Answer 150

D.12 σ and 3 π

Question 151

Which of the following is an aromatic
compound?
A. acetylene
B. acetone
C. styrene
D. polyethylene

Answer 151

C. styrene

Question 152

In what way does the reactivity of CH3C≡CH
differ from CH3CH=CH2?
A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while
propene is not.
B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while
propene reacts readily with bromine
C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over
platinum, while propene does
D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while
propene is not.

Answer 152

A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while
propene is not.

Question 153

Baeyer’s reagent is used to characterize
alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer’s reagent?
A. Neutral solution of HCI
B. Alcoholic solution of carbonate
C. Ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate
D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

Answer 153

D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

Question 154

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in
CHCl3?
A. Hexane
B. benzene
C. 1-hexene
D. cyclohexane

Answer 154

C. 1-hexene

Question 155

Which of these compounds exist as cis and
trans isomers?
A. dichlorobenzene
B. 1-chloropropene
C. dichloroethyne
D. 1,2-dichloropropane

Answer 155

B. 1-chloropropene

Question 156

Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction?
A. elimination
B. rearrangement
C. electrophilic addition
D. free-radical substitution

Answer 156

D. free-radical substitution

Question 157

Which of the following is the most activating in
electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. -NO2
B. -NHCOCH3
C. -CN
D. -NH2

Answer 157

D. -NH2

Question 158

Which of the following is the rate determining
step in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. generation of the electrophile
B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s bond to
form a carbocation
C. loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring
D. none of the above

Answer 158

B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s bond to
form a carbocation

Question 159

Which of the following CANNOT be a product of
the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AICl3?
A. toluene
B. isopropyl benzene
C. o-xylene
D. p-xylene

Answer 159

B. isopropyl benzene

Question 160

Alkyl halides are very reactive towards
nucleophiles because
A. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a good
leaving group.
B. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a poor
leaving group.
C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good
leaving group.
D. they have an electrophilic carbon and a poor
leaving group.

Answer 160

C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good
leaving group.

Question 161

SN2 means
A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both
alkyl halide and nucleophile
B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both
alkyl halide and nucleophile
C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only
the alkyl halide
D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only
the nucleophile

Answer 161

B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both
alkyl halide and nucleophile

Question 162

Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo
both SN1 and SN2 reactions?
A. CH3X
B. (CH3)2CHX
C. (CH3)3CX
D. (CH3)3CCH2X

Answer 162

B. (CH3)2CHX

Question 163

Which compound has the highest boiling point?
A. CH3CH2CH3
B. CH3OCH2CH3
C. CH3COCH3
D. CH3CH2CH2OH

Answer 163

D. CH3CH2CH2OH

Question 164

Which of the following reactions will NOT
produce aldehydes?
A. ozonolysis of alkenes
B. hydration of alkynes
C. oxidation of primary alcohols
D. dehydration of secondary alcohols

Answer 164

D. dehydration of secondary alcohols

Question 165

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in
which of these classes of organic
compounds?
A. alkynes
B. alcohols
C. aldehydes
D. carboxylic acids

Answer 165

D. carboxylic acids

Question 166

Which reaction could occur between acetic acid
and ethanol?
A. addition
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. oxidation

Answer 166

B. esterification

Question 167

Which of the following reagents can be used to
distinguish between phenol and carboxylic
acid?
A. aqueous NaCl
B. aqueous NaOH
C. aqueous FeCl3
D. Tollens reagent

Answer 167

D. Tollens reagent

Question 168

Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols
and alcohols because of
A. formation of dimers
B. highly acidic hydrogen
C. intermolecular hydrogen bonding
D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base

Answer 168

D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base

Question 169

Solvent extraction is more effective when the
extraction is repeated with
A. extra solvent
B. large solvent
C. small solvent
D. no solvent

Answer 169

C. small solvent

Question 170

The insoluble impurities during recrystallization
are removed by
A. hot gravity filtration
B. vacuum filtration
C. cooling
D. drying

Answer 170

A. hot gravity filtration

Question 171

During recrystallization, 0.85 g of crude aspirin
was dissolved in a suitable solvent and after
filtration and drying, 0.68 g of crystals were
recovered. Calculate the % recovery.
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 65%
D. 80%

Answer 171

D. 80%

Question 172

The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist
in equilibrium is the
A. melting point of liquid
B. freezing point of liquid
C. freezing point of solid
D. all of the mentioned

Answer 172

B. freezing point of liquid

Question 173

Which of the following is NOT separated using
distillation?
A. acetone and water
B. aniline and chloroform
C. impurities in sea water
D. milk and water

Answer 173

D. milk and water

Question 174

Steam baths are often used to heat volatile, nonaqueous, flammable solvents because of the
following EXCEPT
A. Can only heat up to 100’C so no
overheating occurs in the compounds of the
sample
B. Flash fires are unlikely in most solvents
C. Overheating is possible
D. Provides instant heat

Answer 174

C. Overheating is possible

Question 175

The beads in a fractional column are for
A. vapors to condense
B. vapors to evaporate
C. vapors to generate
D. all of the mentioned

Answer 175

A. vapors to condense

Question 176

Fractional distillation is a process of separation of
which of the following?
A. two immiscible liquids
B. one miscible and one immiscible liquid
C. two miscible liquids
D. none of the above

Answer 176

C. two miscible liquids

Question 177

What is the advantage of steam distillation?
A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive
compounds
B. Reduces decomposition of inorganic compounds
C. Increases the decomposition of temperaturesensitive compounds
D. Increases the decomposition of inorganic
compounds

Answer 177

A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive
compounds

Question 178

Which of the following is NOT true about steam
distillation?
A. very long extraction times
B. very short extraction times
C. high energy consumption
D. no need for subsequent separation steps

Answer 178

B. very short extraction times

Question 179

Which of the following is the correct way to
determine the boiling point of an unknown
compound?
A. Heating a compound to boiling and measuring
the temperature of the hot plate.
B. Heating a compound to near boiling and placing
the thermometer in the liquid.
C. Boiling a compound and placing the
thermometer in the refluxing vapor.
D. Boiling a compound and placing the
thermometer in the boiling liquid.

Answer 179

C. Boiling a compound and placing the
thermometer in the refluxing vapor.

Question 180

The principle of TLC is that
A. Different compounds are absorbed on an
absorbent to different degrees.
B. Different compounds are absorbed on an
absorbent to same degrees.
C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an
adsorbent to different degrees.
D. Different compounds are absorbed on an
absorbent to same degrees.

Answer 180

C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an
adsorbent to different degrees.

Question 181

Which of the following statements about
visualization during TLC is TRUE?
A. Spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the
eyes.
B. Spots can be detected by putting the plate under
ultraviolet light.
C. Spots can be detected by placing the plate in a
covered jar containing iodine crystals.
D. All Of the above.

Answer 181

D. All Of the above.

Question 182

Amino acids can be detected by spraying the
stationary phase with ninhydrin solution. This
can be done in
A. gas chromatography
B. paper chromatography
C. liquid chromatography
D. column chromatography

Answer 182

B. paper chromatography

Question 183

Karl Fischer titration, which determines trace
amounts of water in a sample, uses which
electrochemical method?
A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Voltammetry
D. Iodometry

Answer 183

B. Coulometry

Question 184

Which of the following is NOT a common
method used for purification?
A. Electrolysis
B. Sublimation
C. Crystallization
D. Chromatography

Answer 184

A. Electrolysis

Question 185

Method of passing the sample through a metal
or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to
separate particles into uniform sizes.
A. sieving
B. milling
C. pulverizing
D. macerating

Answer 185

A. sieving

Question 186

In the decomposition and dissolution of solids
during sample preparation, which of the following is
expensive and often the last resort?
A. fusion technique
B. simple dissolution
C. acid treatment using oxidation
D. dissolution using ultrasound and appropriate
solvent

Answer 186

A. fusion technique

Question 187

Sample preparation technique used prior to
instrumental analysis of metals.
A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction

Answer 187

C. acid digestion

Question 188

In handling acid wastes, what type of protective
gloves should be used?
A. cloth gloves
B. rubber gloves
C. surgical gloves
D. disposal plastic gloves

Answer 188

B. rubber gloves

Question 189

The following are the minimum requirements for
hazardous waste storage facilities EXCEPT
A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
B. Properly secured and not easily accessed by
unauthorized persons.
C. Accessible in cases of emergency and for
purposes of inspection and monitoring.
D. Equipped with floors that are impermeable to
liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals, not
slippery, and constructed to retain spillages.

Answer 189

A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.

Question 190

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which
applies to wastes that have the potential to
contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of.
These materials are regulated as hazardous waste
due to their potential to leach out specific toxic
substances in a landfill.
A. ignitability
B. reactivity
C. toxicity
D. corrosivity

Answer 190

C. toxicity

Question 191

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the
appropriate waste labels shall include?
A. Volume of Waste
B. Generator ID Number
C. HW class and Number
D. All of the above

Answer 191

D. All of the above

Question 192

An institution that handles chemicals relies on
the to make the initial determination of whether a
waste is hazardous and to label the waste
accordingly?
A. Laboratory safety manager
B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources
C. Principal Investigator
D. Plant Safety Officer

Answer 192

B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources

Question 193

Hazardous waste should be kept separate from
other waste because
A. costs are different.
B. different treatments.
C. others can be recycled.
D. all of the above.

Answer 193

D. all of the above.

Question 194

Which of the following should be done when
handling flammable and combustible liquids?
A. Keep away from potential ignition sources.
B. Use and store in adequately ventilated areas.
C. Keep container closed except when dispensing.
D. All of the above

Answer 194

D. All of the above

Question 195

What should you do when a waste container
has a minor leak?
A. Patch up the container.
B. Transfer to another container.
C. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body.
D. Put the container with leak in a bigger container

Answer 195

B. Transfer to another container.

Question 196

According to NFPA, what color refers to
flammability.
A. blue
B. yellow
C. red
D. white

Answer 196

C. red

Question 197

Which of the following can be disposed down
the drain?
A. 1 g/L PCl5
B. 0.1 M H2SO4
C. 200 g/L PCl5
D. None of the above

Answer 197

D. None of the above

Question 198

The following are good sampling practices
EXCEPT
A. If possible, mix the material before getting the
sample.
B. Take several increments and composite them to
form the sample.
C. Sample frequently enough to allow for the
identification of process cycles.
D. Collect the sample in a container made of
material that will chemically react with the sample

Answer 198

D. Collect the sample in a container made of
material that will chemically react with the sample

Question 199

Organic peroxides are dangerous when
A. heated
B. concentrated
C. you let ether, p-dioxane, THF, among others to
vaporize
D. All of the above

Answer 199

D. All of the above

Question 200

Which of the following is NOT a good practice in
storing chemicals?
A. Store peroxidizable materials away from heat and
light.
B. Maintain a clearance Of at least 18 in. from the
sprinkler heads to allow proper functioning of
the sprinkler system.
C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.
D. Do not store materials on top of high cabinets
where they will be hard to see or reach.

Answer 200

C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.

Question 201

When handling concentrated acids except
hydrofluoric acid, which of the following PPE
must be worn?
A. gloves
B. lab gown and safety boots
C. masks with respirators
D. all of the above

Answer 201

D. all of the above

Question 202

When using a fume hood, all of the following
must be done EXCEPT
A. Making sure that the exhaust is operating.
B. Keeping the hood closed, except during
apparatus set-up or when working within the hood.
C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile
chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not
available.
D. Removing contaminated items with odors and
hazardous materials only after decontamination
or if placed in a closed container to avoid release of
contaminants into the air.

Answer 202

C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile
chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not
available.

Question 203

When working with chemicals that has splash
hazards, what is the most appropriate PPE to
use?
A. Prescription glasses
B. goggles
C. face shield only
D. safety glasses

Answer 203

B. goggles

Question 204

According to the GHS, which of the following is
NOT under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”?
A. compressed gas
B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas
D. explosive gas

Answer 204

D. explosive gas

Question 205

Which of the following is NOT a proper
laboratory practice?
A. Wearing of masks and gloves
B. Drying of glassware after washing
C. Adding water to strong acid
D. Tying or braiding long hairs

Answer 205

C. Adding water to strong acid

Question 206

A technical document, which is GHS compliant,
that contains all the information related to the health
hazard, storage, precautionary measures,
emergency procedures, etc. when handling
chemicals.
A. Safety Data Sheet
B. Chemical Data Sheet
C. Material Safety Data Sheet
D. Chemical Safety Data Sheet

Answer 206

A. Safety Data Sheet

Question 207

Which of the following statements about
spectroscopic methods is correct?
A. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
more amount of sample than classical methods.
B. Spectroscopic methods require more time and
more amount of sample than classical methods.
C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods.
D. Spectroscopic methods require more time and
less amount of sample than classical methods.

Answer 207

C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods.

Question 208

It has the highest temperature characteristics of
any glass. Its maximum continuous use temperature
is approximately 9000C. It has a near zero thermal
expansion and so is extremely thermal shock
resistant. It is also chemically inert to most
substances except for a few substances including
hydrofluoric acid and hot potassium hydroxide.
A. lime glass
B. lead glass
C. borosilicate
D. fused quartz

Answer 208

D. fused quartz

Question 209

Which of the following demonstrates proper
drying of cuvette?
A. dry using a desiccator
B. place in an oven to dry overnight
C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry
D. none of the above

Answer 209

C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry

Question 210

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of
Beer-Lambert’s law?
A. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and
preferably monochromatic.
B. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may
interfere in the final absorbance of solution.
C. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize
and thereby affecting absorption of
solution.
D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the
quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.

Answer 210

D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the
quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.

Question 211

A graphical representation of measuring signal
as a function of quantity of analyte.
A. calibration curve
B. absorbance chart
C. quality control chart
D. none of the above

Answer 211

A. calibration curve

Question 212

Which species of the following is used to
bombard with the sample for which mass
spectroscopy has been performed?
A. alpha particles
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons

Answer 212

C. electrons

Question 213

Which of the following molecules will NOT show
an infrared spectrum?
A. HCl
B. H2O
c. CO2
D. CH4

Answer 213

c. CO2

Question 214

In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one
wavelength at a time, which took a long time. Today
spectra can be acquired faster due to the
A. light is faster today that it used to be
B. absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan
all frequencies at once
D. none of the above

Answer 214

C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan
all frequencies at once

Question 215

What compound is possibly shown in an
infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650
cm-1?
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. benzene
D. acetone

Answer 215

B. cyclohexene

Question 216

What is the correct increasing order of
stretching frequencies for C≡C, C=C and C-C?
A. C-C > C=C > C≡C
B. C≡C > C=C > C-C
c. C-C > C=C < C≡C
D. C≡C < C-C > C=C

Answer 216

B. C≡C > C=C > C-C

Question 217

NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical
nature of the ______ and spatial positions of ____
A. Electrons, Protons
B. Neutrons, electrons
C. Nuclei, electrons
D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

Answer 217

D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

Question 218

In the IR spectrum of compound, there is a
strong absorption at 1718 cm-I in addition to bands
at 2978 and 2940 cm-1 and bands below 1500
cm-1. The 1 H NMR spectrum shows two signals: a
quartet and a triplet with relative integrals of 2:3.
Determine the molecular formula of compound X.
A. CH3CH2CO2H
B. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
D. CH3CH2OH

Answer 218

C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3

Question 219

Chromatography is used to
A. Separate two or more compounds based on their
polarities.
B. Separate two or more compounds based on their
masses.
C. Separate two or more compounds based on how
strongly they interact with other compounds.
D. All of the above

Answer 219

D. All of the above

Question 220

Which type of chromatography is used for
structural analysis?
A. Affinity chromatography
B. Partition chromatography
C. Column chromatography
D. Paper chromatography

Answer 220

D. Paper chromatography

Question 221

Which of the following can be separated using
column chromatography?
A. sugar derivatives
B. hydrolyzed peptides
C. inorganic complex ions
D. chlorophylls and carotenoids

Answer 221

D. chlorophylls and carotenoids

Question 222

Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis
and isolation of
A. starch
B. tyrosinase
C. antibodies
D. all of the mentioned

Answer 222

D. all of the mentioned

Question 223

Which of the following is useful for the
separation of low molecular weight gases?
A. Gas-solid chromatography
B. Gas-liquid chromatography
C. Liquid-liquid chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

Answer 223

A. Gas-solid chromatography

Question 224

The analysis and separation of industrial
products like soap and synthetic detergents is done
using
A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Partition chromatography
D. Ion exchange chromatography

Answer 224

B. Gas chromatography

Question 225

Ion exchange particles carry fixed positive or
negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has
S03-H+ groups were H+ can be exchanged for
A. cations
B. anions
C. small cations and large anions
D. small anions and large cations

Answer 225

A. cations

Question 226

A graph showing the detector’s response as a
function of elution time, band’s shapes, position,
and resolution.

A. monitor display
B. quality control chart
C. calibration curve
D. chromatogram

Answer 226

D. chromatogram

Question 227

A technique for separating mixtures into their
components in order to analyze, identify, purify,
and/or quantify the mixture or components.
A. spectroscopy
B. chromatography
C. gravimetry
D. titrimetry

Answer 227

B. chromatography

Question 228

Which of the following is NOT an application of
high performance liquid chromatography?
A. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
B. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
C. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
D. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood

Answer 228

D. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood

Question 229

Quantitative analysis can be done using
A. Gas chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Thin layer chromatography
D. Ion exchange chromatography

Answer 229

A. Gas chromatography

Question 230

In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2
hybridized?
A. C2H2
B. C2H4
C. C3H8
D. C4H1O

Answer 230

B. C2H4

Question 231

How many different structural isomers exist for
dichloropropane, C3H6Cl2?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 231

C. 4

Question 232

How many different alcohols (not including
stereoisomers) have the molecular formula
C4H10O?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 232

C. 4

Question 233

For which compound are the empirical and
molecular formulas the same?
A. C6H5COOH
B. C6H4(COOH)2
C. HOOCCOOH
D. CH3COOH

Answer 233

A. C6H5COOH

Question 234

All of the formulas below correspond to stable
compounds EXCEPT
A. CH20
B. CH30
C. CH202
D.CH40

Answer 234

B. CH30

Question 235

Which of the following is(are) polar?

I. CO ll. COCl2 Ill. CH2Cl2
A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. I and Ill only
D. Il and Ill only

Answer 235

D. Il and Ill only

Question 236

Identify the incorrect statement regarding
cycloalkanes.

A. They have sp3
hybridized carbons.

B.They have tetrahedral bond angles.

C. Their stability varies directly with their respective
size.

D. They undergo reactions similar to that of alkanes.

Answer 236

B.They have tetrahedral bond angles.

Question 237

Select the incorrect statement regarding
alkenes.
A. In alkenes, the carbons are connected by bonds.
B. Alkenes have almost same physical properties as
that of the alkanes.
C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.
D. Alkenes undergo polymerization reaction.

Answer 237

C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.

Question 238

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
A. H2/Pd
B. Na/NH3
C. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

Answer 238

D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

Question 239

When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is
the end product?
A. formic acid
B. acetic acid
C. oxalic acid
D. glucose

Answer 239

A. formic acid

Question 240

Which of the compounds below will react readily
with chlorine by addition?
I. C2H2 (ethyne) ll. C2H4 (ethene) Ill. C6H6
(benzene)
A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. Il and Ill only
D. l, Il, and Ill

Answer 240

B. I and Il only

Question 241

What is the order of reactivity of the following
compounds in EAS?
l. benzene ll. toluene Ill. phenol IV. benzoic acid
A. IV< I < II < III
B. I < IV < II < III
C. III < II < I < IV
D. II < III < IV < I

Answer 241

A. IV< I < II < III

Question 242

Which of the following alcohols would be most
soluble in water?
A. Propanol
B. Hexanol
C. Pentanol
D. Butanol

Answer 242

A. Propanol

Question 243

Which statement(s) about substitution reactions
are correct?
l. The reaction between NaOH and I-chloropentane
predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism.
ll. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro-2-
methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism.
Ill. The reaction between NaOH with Ichloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with Ibromopentane.
A. land Il
B. I and Ill
C. Il and Ill
D. I, Il and Ill

Answer 243

B. I and Ill

Question 244

A low concentration of nucleophile favors
A. SN1
B. SN2
C. Both SN1 and SN2
D. Neither SN1 nor SN2

Answer 244

D. Neither SN1 nor SN2

Question 245

Which of the following is NOT true for SN1
reactions?
A. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction.
B. They are favored by polar protic solvents.
C. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this
mechanism.
D. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the
rate of such reactions

Answer 245

A. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction.

Question 246

What occurs during an electrophilic aromatic
substitution?
A. [1] addition [2] hydrolysis
B. [1] elimination [2] addition
C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation
D. [1] substitution [2] rearrangement

Answer 246

C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation

Question 247

What are the reagents needed in bromination of
benzene via EAS?
A. Bromine in H20
B. Bromine in CH3Cl
C. Bromine in CH2Cl2
D. Bromine and FeBr3

Answer 247

D. Bromine and FeBr3

Question 248

The major reason that phenol is a better
Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is
A. it is a better proton donor.
B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance.
C. the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing
group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction.
D. the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating
group by induction, which destabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction.

Answer 248

B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance.

Question 249

When aldehydes and ketones react via
nucleophilic addition, they are converted to
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. ethers
D. alcohols

Answer 249

D. alcohols

Question 250

What is the correct order of reactivity of the
following towards nucleophilic addition?
A. methanal > ethanal > acetone
B. acetone > ethanal > methanal
C. methanal > acetone > ethanal
D. ethanal > methanal > acetone

Answer 250

A. methanal > ethanal > acetone

Question 251

W h a t i s t h e I U P A C n a m e f o r
CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?
A. pentanal
B. I-pentanol
C. I-pentanone
D. pentanoic acid

Answer 251

A. pentanal

Question 252

Which of these compounds contain a carboxy
group?
A. propanol
B. propanal
C. propanone
D. propanoic acid

Answer 252

D. propanoic acid

Question 253

Which family of compounds is most frequently
used as flavoring agents?
A. acids
B. alkenes
C. esters
D. ethers

Answer 253

D. ethers

Question 254

Calculate the percent yield when 0.5 mol of
acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of alcohol produces
0.25 mol of ethyl acetate.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Answer 254

B. 50%

Question 255

Which of the following compounds are basic?
A. alkenes
B. alkynes
C. amines
D. alcohols

Answer 255

C. amines

Question 256

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence
of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for
this compound?
A. C4H8O2
B. C4H10O
C. C5H10O2
D. C5H12O

Answer 256

A. C4H8O2

Question 257

The most notable difference between a
saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the
same number of carbon atoms is that the saturated
fat
A. melts at a higher temperature.
B. melts at a lower temperature.
C. releases much more energy when metabolized.
D. releases much less energy when metabolized.

Answer 257

A. melts at a higher temperature.

Question 258

When proteins are broken down, they are
converted to
A. fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. nucleic acids
D. sulfonic acids

Answer 258

B. amino acids

Question 259

Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood
because
A. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules.
B. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher
temperature of the body.
C. pressure is increased inside the body.
D. pressure inside the body is different outside of it.

Answer 259

A. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules.

Question 260

A technique for separating mixtures into their
components in order to analyze, identify, purify,
and/or quantify the mixture or components
a. spectroscopy
b. chromatography
c. gravimetry
d. titrimetry

Answer 260

b. chromatography

Question 261

Which of the following is NOT an application of
high-performance liquid chromatography?
a. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
b. Analysis of proteins, drugs, and explosives
c. Separation of lipids, fatty acids, and steroids
d. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood

Answer 261

d. Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood

Question 262

Quantitative analysis can be done using
a. Gas chromatography
b. Liquid chromatography
c. Thin layer chromatography
d. Ion exchange chromatography

Answer 262

a. Gas chromatography

Question 263

Which of the following statements about
spectroscopic methods is correct?
a. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
more amount of sample than classical methods
b. Spectroscopic methods require more time and
more amount of sample than classical methods
c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods
d. Spectroscopic methods require more time

Answer 263

c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and
less amount of sample than classical methods

Question 264

Which of the following demonstrates proper
drying of cuvette?
a. Dry using a desiccator
b. Place in an oven to dry overnight
c. Blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry
d. None of the above

Answer 264

c. Blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and
allow to air dry

Question 265

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of
Beer-Lambert’s law?
a. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and
preferably monochromatic
b. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may
interfere in the final absorbance of solution
c. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize
and thereby affecting absorption of solution
d. Beer-lambert’s law does not for the quantitative
basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

Answer 265

d. Beer-lambert’s law does not for the quantitative
basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

Question 266

What compound is possibly shown in an
infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650
cm-1?
a. Cyclohexane
b. Cyclohexene
c. Benzene
d. Acetone

Answer 266

b. Cyclohexene

Question 267

In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one
wavelength at a time, which took a long time. Today
spectra can be acquired faster due to the
a. Light is faster today that is used to be
b. Absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
c. Fourier transfer algorithm which allows to scan all
frequencies at once
d. None of the above

Answer 267

c. Fourier transfer algorithm which allows to scan all
frequencies at once

Question 268

Which of the following molecules will NOT show
an infrared spectrum?
a. HCl
b. H2O
c. CO2
d. CH4

Answer 268

c. CO2

Question 269

Which species of the following is used to
bombard with the sample for which mass
spectroscopy has been performed?
a. Alpha particles
b. Neutrons
c. Electrons
d. Protons

Answer 269

c. Electrons

Question 270

A graphical representation of measuring signal
as a function of quantity of analyte.
a. Calibration curve
b. Absorbance chart
c. Quality control chart
d. None of the above

Answer 270

a. Calibration curve

Question 271

NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical
nature of the __ and spatial positions of __
a. Electrons, protons
b. Neutrons, electrons
c. Nuclei, electrons
d. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

Answer 271

d. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

Question 272

In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2
hybridized?
a. C2H2
b. C2H4
c. C3H8
d. C4H10

Answer 272

b. C2H4

Question 273

What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in
carboxyl group?
a. sp
b. sp3
c. sp2
d. dsp5

Answer 273

c. sp2

Question 274

In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond
the shortest?
I. CH3NH2 II. CH2NH III. (CH3)4N^+ IV. CH3CN
a. II
b. I
c. IV
d. III

Answer 274

c. IV

Question 275

How many different compounds have the
formula C5H12?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3

Answer 275

c. 4

Question 276

How many different alcohols (not including
stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C4H10O
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Answer 276

c. 4

Question 277

For which compound are the empirical and
molecular formulas the same?
a. C6H5COOH
b. C6H4(COOH)2
c. HOOCCOOH
d. CH3COOH

Answer 277

a. C6H5COOH

Question 278

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
a. H2/Pd
b. Na/NH3
c. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
d. BH3/H2O2,NaOH

Answer 278

d. BH3/H2O2,NaOH

Question 279

When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is
the end product?
a. Formic acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Oxalic acid
d. Glucose

Answer 279

a. Formic acid

Question 280

Which of the compounds below will react readily
with chlorine by addition?
I. C2H2 (ethyne)
II. C2H4 (ethene)
III. C6H6 (benzene)
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III

Answer 280

b. I and II only

Question 281

What is the order of reactivity of the following
compounds in EAS?
I. Benzene
II. Toluene
III. Phenol
IV. Benzoic acid
a. IV < I < II < III
b. I < IV < II < III
c. III < II < I < IV
d. II < III < IV < I

Answer 281

a. IV < I < II < III

Question 282

What are the reagents needed in bromination of
benzene via EAS?
a. Bromine in H2O
b. Bromine in CH3Cl
c. Bromine in CH2Cl2
d. Bromine and FeBr3

Answer 282

d. Bromine and FeBr3

Question 283

Which of the following is NOT true for SN1
reactions?
a. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction
b. They are favored by polar protic solvents
c. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through
this mechanism
d. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect
the rate of such reactions

Answer 283

a. They occur through a single step concerted
reaction

Question 284

A low concentration of nucleophile favors
a. SN1
b. SN2
c. Both SN1 and SN2
d. Neither SN1 nor SN2

Answer 284

d. Neither SN1 nor SN2

Question 285

Which statement(s) about substitution reactions
are correct?
I . T h e re a c t i o n b e t w e e n N a O H a n d 1 -
chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism
II. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro- 2-
methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism
III. The reaction between NaOH with 1-
chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with 1-
bromopentane
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III

Answer 285

b. I and III

Question 286

Which of the following alcohols would be most
soluble in water?
a. Propanol
b. Hexanol
c. Pentanol
d. Butanol

Answer 286

a. Propanol

Question 287

The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which
of the following product?
I. Ethanal
II. Ethanoic acid
III. Carbon monoxide
IV. Carbon dioxide
a. IV
b. I
c. II
d. III

Answer 287

b. I

Question 288

The major reason that phenol is better Bronsted
acid than cyclohexanol is
a. It is a better proton donor
b. The pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance
c. The phenyl group is an electron withdrawing
group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction
d. The cyclohexyl group is an electron donating
group by induction, which destabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction

Answer 288

b. The pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by
resonance

Question 289

W h a t i s t h e I U P A C n a m e f o r
CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
a. Pentanal
b. 1-pentanol
c. 1-pentanone
d. Pentanoic acid

Answer 289

a. Pentanal

Question 290

Which of the following is produced when
hydrogen is reacted with 2-butanone?
a. Tertiary
b. Aldehyde
c. Primary alcohol
d. Secondary alcohol

Answer 290

d. Secondary alcohol

Question 291

Which of these compounds contain a carboxy
group?
a. Propanol
b. Propanal
c. Propanone
d. Propanoic acid

Answer 291

d. Propanoic acid

Question 292

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence
of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is theformula for
this compound?
a. C4H8O2
b. C4H10O
c. C5H10O2
d. C5H12O

Answer 292

a. C4H8O2

Question 293

Which family of compounds is most frequently
used as flavoring agents?
a. Acids
b. Alkenes
c. Esters
d. Ethers

Answer 293

c. Esters

Question 294

Calculate the percent yield when 0.5mol of
acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of alcohol produces
0.25 mol of ethyl acetate
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

Answer 294

b. 50%

Question 295

Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood
because
a. The hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules
b. The solubility of oxygen is increased by the
higher temperature of the body
c. Pressure is increased inside the body
d. Pressure inside the body id different outside it

Answer 295

a. The hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four
oxygen molecules

Question 296

When proteins are broken down, they are
converted to
a. Fatty acids
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Sulfonic acids

Answer 296

b. Amino acids

Question 297

The most notable difference between a
saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the
same number of carbon atoms is that the saturated
fat
a. Melts at a higher temperature
b. Melts at a lower temperature
c. Releases much more energy when metabolized
d. Releases much less energy when metabolized

Answer 297

a. Melts at a higher temperature

Question 298

Which of the following compounds are basic?
a. Alkenes
b. Alkynes
c. Amines
d. Alcohols

Answer 298

c. Amines