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organisms and evolution Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

definition of a hazard

A

something with potential to cause harm

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2
Q

definition of a risk

A

the likelihood of harm arising from exposure to a hazard

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3
Q

what does risk assessing involve?

A

identifying control measures to minimise risk

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4
Q

how should sampling wild organisms be carried out?

A
  • in a way that minimises the impact on wild species and habitats
  • consideration should be given to rare and vulnerable species and habitats that are protected by legislation
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5
Q

4 different sampling techniques

A
  • point count
  • transect line
  • remote detection
  • capture techniques
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6
Q

capture techniques

A
  • traps and nets
  • used for mobile species like mice
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7
Q

remote detection

A
  • used to detect elusive species
  • camera traps/scat sampling
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8
Q

point count

A
  • involves recording all individuals seen from a fixed location
  • can be compared to other locations or same location at a different time
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9
Q

transect line using quadrats

A
  • line along which different samples can be taken, set up along an area with variable terrain or abiotic factors
  • allows sessile organism abundance to be recorded
  • abiotic features can also be measured to determine habitat features of organisms
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10
Q

two ways in which organisms can be classified

A

taxonomy and phylogenetics

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11
Q

what is taxonomy?

A

identification and naming of organisms and classifying them based on shared characteristics
- based on morphology

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12
Q

what is phylogenetics?

A

the study of evolutionary history and relationships among individuals or groups of organisms
- uses heritable traits to make inferences about an organisms evolutionary history

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12
Q

what is a phylogenetic tree?

A

a diagrammatic hypothesis of an organism’s relatedness to other organisms

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13
Q

what does genetic evidence reveal?

A

relatedness obscured by divergent or convergent evolution

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13
Q

three taxonomic groups needed

A

nematodes: round worms which show great variety, often parasitic
arthropods: joint-legged invertebrates which are identified by their segmented body, typically paired with appendages (wasps, spiders, butterflies)
chordates: sea squirts and vertebrates (birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish)

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14
Q

what are model organisms?

A

organisms which have been well studied or are easily studied
- used to obtain information that can be applied other species which are more difficult to study directly

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14
Q

methods of monitoring populations

A
  • banding
  • tagging
  • surgical implantation
  • painting
  • hair clipping
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15
Q

indicator species

A

presence, absence/abundance of them can give info of environmental qualities such as the presence of pollutants

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16
Q

what does an absence of indicator species suggest?

A

a species is susceptible to some factor in the environment

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17
Q

what does an abundance of indicator species suggest?

A

a species is favoured by the conditions

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18
Q

what is ethology?

A

the study of animal behaviour

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19
Q

ways of quantifying animal behaviour?

A

latency, frequency, duration

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20
Q

what is latency?

A

time between stimulus occurring and the response behaviour

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21
Q

what is frequency?

A

number of times a behaviour occurs within the observation period

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22
Q

what is duration?

A

the length of time each behaviour occurs for during the observation period

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23
Q

what is an ethogram?

A

a method of recording animal behaviours over a set period of time

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24
Q

what is recorded in an ethogram?

A
  • specific behaviours observed and recorded
  • duration of each behaviour and total time of observation are recorded
  • time budget can be constructed to show the percentage of time spent on each behaviour
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25
Q

what is anthropomorphism?

A

assigning human emotions to animal behaviour

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26
Q

why should anthropomorphism be avoided when performing an ethogram?

A

it can lead to invalid conclusions

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27
Q

what is evolution?

A

the change over time in the proportion of individuals in a population differing in one or more inherited trait

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28
Q

2 ways changes in allele frequency can occur

A

selection (natural or sexual)
genetic drift

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29
Q

what is natural selection and how does it arise?

A
  • non-random increase in frequency of advantageous alleles and non-random decrease in frequency of deleterious alleles
  • acts on genetic variation
  • arises as a result of mutation
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30
Q

what will happen when more offspring are produced than the environment can handle?

A

only the best adapted will survive

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31
Q

what is sexual selection?

A

non-random process involving the selection of alleles that increase the chance of mating and producing offspring
- doesn’t increase chances of survival

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32
Q

what is sexual selection due to?

A

either male to male rivalry or female choice

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33
Q

what is male to male rivalry

A
  • males compete aggressively to defend territories and gain access to females
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34
Q

what is female choice?

A

females will choose a male based on traits he displays, if males cannot control access to females

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35
Q

what is genetic drift?

A

random process which results in an increase or decrease in the frequency of inherited traits

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36
Q

when does genetic drift occur?

A

when a chance event such as a natural disaster causes unpredictable fluctuations in allele frequency from one generation to the next

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36
Q

examples of genetic drift

A
  • population bottlenecks
  • founder effects (isolation of a few members of a population from a larger one - gene pool is therefore not representative of the original pool)
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37
Q

what are selection pressures?

A

environmental factors that influence which individuals in a population pass on their alleles
- can be biotic or abiotic

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38
Q

what does the Hardy-Weinberg principle state?

A

in the absence of evolutionary influences, allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant over the generations

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39
Q

what is fitness in evolution?

A

a measure of the tendency of some organisms to produce more surviving offspring than competing members of the same species

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40
Q

two ways in which fitness can be defined

A

absolute or relative terms

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41
Q

definition of absolute fitness

A

ratio between the number of individuals of a particular genotype after selection, to that before selection

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42
Q

definition of relative fitness

A

ratio of number of surviving offspring per individual of a particular genotype to the number of surviving offspring per individual of the most successful genotype.

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43
Q

what is co-evolution?

A

the process by which two or more species evolve in response to selection pressures imposed by each other

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44
Q

where is co-evolution seen?

A

in pairs of species that have symbiotic relationships

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45
Q

what is symbiosis? + 3 types

A

co-evolved intimate relationship between members of two different species
- mutualism, commensalism, parasitism

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46
Q

sexual reproduction definition

A

offspring arise from the combination of male and female gametes after the process of fertilisation

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47
Q

asexual reproduction

A

offspring arise from a single organism and share the DNA of that parent only

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48
Q

costs of sexual reproduction

A
  • only half the population are able to produce offspring
  • only half of each parents’ genome is passed onto offspring, disrupting successful parental genomes
49
Q

benefits of sexual reproduction

A
  • outweigh the costs due to increase in genetic variation of the population
  • this provides raw material for adaptation which gives sexually reproducing organisms a better chance of survival under changing selection pressures
50
Q

benefits of asexual reproduction

A
  • one parent can produce a colony of virtually unlimited size
  • offspring can be reproduced more often and in larger numbers
  • whole genomes are passed onto offspring
  • maintaining genome of parent is an advantage in very narrow, stable niches/when recolonising disturbed habitats
51
Q

costs of asexual reproduction

A
  • not able to adapt easily to changes in their environment
  • mutations can occur that provide some degree of variation and enable natural selection to occur
  • organisms often have mechanisms for horizontal gene transfer, which results in faster evolutionary change than in those that use vertical transfer
52
Q

parthenogenesis definition

A

type of asexual reproduction in which an unfertilised female gamete develops into a new individual

53
Q

where is parthenogenesis most common?

A

in cooler climates or areas with low parasite density or diversity

54
Q

meiosis definition

A

division of the nucleus that results in the formation of haploid gametes from a diploid gamete

55
Q

what are gametocytes?

A

cells in eukaryotes which give rise to gamete

56
Q

M1 - pairing of homologous chromosomes

A
  • prior to M1, during interphase, homologous chromosomes duplicate so each is now made of two sister chromatids
  • chromosomes condense and the homologous chromosomes pair up so that they are aligned gene by gene
57
Q

M1 - crossing over

A
  • a chiasma forms at a random position between the homologous pairs
  • sections of DNA can be exchanged at these points
  • this crossing over of DNA is random and produces genetically different recombinant chromosomes
  • this can result in new combinations of the alleles of these genes, which increases variation
58
Q

M1 - alignment on the metaphase plate

A
  • spindle fibres attach to the homologous pairs and line them up at the equator of the cell
  • the orientation of the pairs of homologous chromosomes at the equator is random
  • this means each pair is positioned independently of the others, irrespective of whether they came from the mother or father
  • known as independent assortment
59
Q

M1 - separating homologous chromosomes

A
  • microtubules begin to shorten
  • the chromosomes of each homologous pair are separated and move to opposite poles of the cell
  • the chromosomes group in each end of the cell and a nuclear membrane forms around them
  • cytokinesis occurs and two daughter cells are formed
  • sister chromatids are no longer identical due to the crossing over
  • two haploid cells are formed
60
Q

meiosis II

A
  • each of the two cells from meiosis I undergoes a further division
  • sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated
  • total of four haploid cells are produced
61
Q

what is the SRY gene?

A

the sex determining region on the Y chromosome
- determines development of male characteristics in most mammals

62
Q

what does the Y chromosome lack?

A

many genes found on its homologous X chromosome

63
Q

what is sex linkage?

A
  • in XX females, a recessive allele on one X can be masked by a dominant allele on the other X
  • in XY males, a recessive allele on the X has no second copy to mask its effects
  • this can lead to carrier females and affected males
64
Q

what does X chromosome inactivation prevent?

A

a double dose of gene products which could be harmful to cells

65
Q

what is a hermaphrodite?

A

species that have functioning male and female reproductive organs in each individual

66
Q

benefits of hermaphrodites

A
  • there is no requirement for a partner to be of the opposite sex
67
Q

what can cause changing of sex in an individual?

A

environmental factors such as size, competition, parasitic infection and temperature

68
Q

clearest sexual dimorphism in vertebrates

A

gamete size

69
Q

which parent provides greater investment?

A

females/mother

70
Q

how are organisms classified (r and K)

A

based on their level of parental investment in offspring, and the number of offspring produced

71
Q

where does r-selection occur?

A

in unstable environments where the species has not reached its reproductive capacity

72
Q

where does K-selection occur?

A

in stable environments

73
Q

benefits of internal fertilisation

A
  • increased chance of internal fertilisation
  • fewer eggs needed
  • offspring can be retained internally for production and/or development
  • higher offspring survival rate
74
Q

costs of internal fertilisation

A
  • a mate must be located, requires energy expenditure
  • requires direct transfer of gametes of gametes from one partner to another
75
Q

benefits of external fertilisation

A

very large number of offspring can be produced

76
Q

costs of external fertilisation

A
  • many gametes predated, not fertilised
  • no/limited parental care
  • few offspring survive
77
Q

4 types of mating system

A

monogamy, polygamy, polygyny, polyandry

78
Q

monogamy definition

A

mating of a pair of animals to the exclusion of all others

79
Q

polygamy definition

A

individuals of one sex have more than one mate

80
Q

polygyny definition

A

one male mates exclusively with a group of females

81
Q

polyandry definition

A

one female mates with a number of males in the same breeding season

82
Q

what is sexual selection

A

selects for characteristics that have little survival benefit for the individual, but increase their chances of mating

83
Q

are males of females more conspicuous?

A

males - they often have more obvious markings, structures and behaviours

84
Q

what does female choice involve?

A

females assessing honest signals of the fitness of males

85
Q

what do honest signals indicate?

A

favourable alleles that increase chances of survival of offspring, or a low parasite burden suggesting a healthy individual

86
Q

what do males do in lekking species?

A
  • gather to display at a lek, where female choice occurs
  • dominant males occupy the centre of the lek, with subordinates and juveniles at the fringes
87
Q

what is an ecological niche?

A

a multi-dimensional summary of tolerances and requirements of a species

88
Q

when is a fundamental niche occupied?

A

in the absence of interspecific competition

89
Q

when is a realised niche occupied?

A

in response to interspecific competition

90
Q

what is competitive exclusion

A

where the niches of two species are so similar that one declines to local extinction

91
Q

when can competitors co-exist?

A

when the realised niches are sufficiently different, so resource partitioning can occur

92
Q

what does degenerate mean (parasites) and why does this occur?

A
  • lacking in structures and organs found in other organisms
  • occurs because a host provides so many of the parasite’s needs
93
Q

ectoparasites

A

live on the surface of the host

94
Q

endoparasites

A

live within the tissues of the host

95
Q

what is a definitive host?

A

organism on or in which the parasite reaches sexual maturity

96
Q

what is an intermediate host?

A

may also be required for the parasite to complete its life cycle

97
Q

what do vectors do?

A

play an active role in the transmission of the parasite and may also be a host

98
Q

plasmodium (process)

A
  • infected mosquito acts as a vector, bites a human
  • plasmodium enters bloodstream, asexual reproduction occurs in the liver and red blood cells
  • red blood cells burst and gametocytes are released into the bloodstream
  • another mosquito bites an infected human and the gametocytes enter the mosquito, maturing into male and female gametes, allowing sexual reproduction to occur
  • mosquito can then infect another human host
99
Q

what are viruses?

A

parasites that can only replicate inside a host cell
- they contain genetic material in the form of DNA or RNA, packaged in a protein coat
- outer surface contains antigens that a host cell may or may not be able to detect as foreign

100
Q

viral life cycle - stages

A

1 - infection of host cell with genetic material
2 - host cell enzymes replicate viral genome
3 - transcription of viral genes and translation of viral proteins
4 - assembly and release of new viral particles

101
Q

what are RNA retroviruses?

A

viruses with RNA rather than DNA

102
Q

what happens when RNA retroviruses inject their RNA into a host cell?

A

the also inject an enzyme - reverse transcriptase

103
Q

what does reverse transcriptase do?

A
  • synthesises DNA from the RNA
  • the DNA is then inserted into genome of the host cell
  • the viral genes can then be expressed to form new viral particles
104
Q

transmission definition

A

the spread of a parasite to the host

105
Q

virulence definition

A

the harm cause to a host by a parasite

106
Q

methods of transmission - ectoparasites

A
  • direct contact
  • consumption of intermediate host
107
Q

methods of transmission - endoparasites

A

often via vector

108
Q

factors influencing transmission

A
  • overcrowding of hosts
  • mechanisms such as vectors and waterborne dispersal stages that allow parasites to spread even if the host is at full capacity
  • host behaviour is often exploited by parasite to maximise transmission
109
Q

non-specific immune responses

A
  • physical barriers
  • chemical secretions (saliva, tears)
  • inflammatory response (enhanced blood flow to injury site, brings phagocytes)
  • natural killer cells (release chemicals which cause cell death by apoptosis)
  • phagocytes (engulf the parasites and store them in a vacuole)
110
Q

what happens when tissues become damaged or invaded?

A

cytokines are released, causing increased blood flow, resulting in white blood cells accumulating at the site of infection

111
Q

what do lymphocytes have on their surface?

A

a receptor which can potentially recognise a parasite antigen

112
Q

what happens when an antigen binds to a lymphocyte?

A

the receptor selects that lymphocyte to divide and produce a clonal population

113
Q

what gives an antibody its specificity for the binding antigen?

A

variable region of amino acid sequence

114
Q

what can the antibody-antigen complex result in?

A

inactivation of the parasite, making it susceptible to a phagocyte
or can stimulate a response that results in cell lysis

115
Q

what do memory lymphocytes do?

A
  • produce a secondary response when the antigen enters the body in the future
  • this results in enhanced antibody production
116
Q

which type of parasite has demonstrated the most success in evading the immune system

A

endoparasites

117
Q

how do endoparasites evade the immune system?

A

they don’t stimulate an immune response, despite possessing foreign antigens, they mimic host antigens to avoid detection.
they are also capable of modifying the host immune response to reduce their chances of destruction

118
Q

antigenic variation

A

some parasites show antigenic variation, which allows them to change between different antigens during the course of an infection

119
Q

what does antigenic variation allow?

A
  • parasites to evolve faster than the host immune system can respond to the new antigens
  • re-infection of the same host with the new variant
120
Q

what’s another method of evading immune surveillance?

A

by integrating the virus’ genome into host genomes existing in an inactive state called latency
- the virus becomes active again when favourable conditions arise

121
Q

what is epidemology?

A

the study of the outbreak and spread of infectious diesease

122
Q

what do vaccinations do?

A
  • reduce the spread of disease, as they contain antigens that can elicit an immune response
123
Q

what is the herd immunity threshold?

A

the density of resistant hosts in the population required to prevent an epidemic

124
Q

challenges to overcome in the successful treatment and control of parasites?

A
  • some parasites are difficult to culture on the lab, making it difficult to design vaccines
  • rapid antigenic variation
  • the similarities between host and parasite metabolism make it difficult to find drug compounds which only target the parasite

advanced higher biology (2 decks)

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