Organismal genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Yeast as model organism

A

Grown in culture/on agar plates, haploid & diploid stages of life cycle, cheap + easy
- can introduce DNA via plasmid via homologous recombination to create mutant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

C. elegans as model organism

A

Worm w/ 4 day life cycle, fast generation, motile, easy identification of defects.
Add DNA via microinjection, reduce gene function via RNAi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drosophila as model organism

A

10 day life cycle, transposable elements allow addition/deletion.
Amenable to mutagenesis + chromosomal rearrangements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A. thaliana as model organism

A

Plant w/ 6 week life cycle. Can be transformed via plasmid in agrobacterium.
Amenable to mutagenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mouse as model organism

A

Similar gene content + physiology to humans.
Amenable to mutagenesis, transgenics, knockouts/knockins, conditional alterations.
Allows for tissue specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

Autosomal recessive, error in metabolism.
Phenylalanine not converted to tyrosine due to deficiency in PAH -> cognitive defects

Newborns can be screened + mutation found using chemical assay, dietary adjustments for improved cognitive development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Autosomal dominance in pedigree charts

A

50% chance transmission, must have affected parent, 2 affected people may have unaffected children, males + females affected equally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Autosomal recessive in pedigree charts

A

Affected person may not have affected parents, all children of 2 affected individuals are affected, males + females affected equally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Penetrance

A

Probability disease will appear when disease allele present (%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Expressivity

A

Range of symptoms possible for given disease e.g. Marfan syndrome can have mild symptoms so hard to diagnose
Cancer can have age-related onset of expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pleiotropy

A

One gene has many functions, can be in many tissues - LoF affects many systems
e.g. Nail-Patella syndrome (NPS), nail abnormalities, absent patella, glaucoma, kidney disease
LMX1B mutation -> multi-tissue expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maternal effect

A

Genotype/phenotype mismatch. Phenotype depends on gene expression early in development - mRNA + proteins provided by mother in egg.
In organisms w/ delayed zygotic transcription (not mammals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Allelic series

A

Different mutations in same gene cause different phenotypes.

e.g. Fibroblast growth factor receptors
receptor domains have many domains + many isoforms due to differential splicing
FGR3 autosomal dominant disease mutations - great phenotypic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Locus heterogeneity

A

Mutations in different genes.
e.g. retinitis pigmentosa

e.g. multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
Mainly autosomal dominant, 25% recessive caused by DTDST mutations
Caused by mutations in: COMP (50%), COL9A1, COL9A2, COL9A3, MATN3, DTDST (25%).

-> protein interaction network forms collagen for joint structure development BUT disrupted so abnormal phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Role of COMP in pseudoachondroplasia

A

Autosomal dominant disorder (1:20,000), more severe than epiphyseal dysplasia. Mutation -> structurally abnormal COMP.
-> example of allelic series

COMP expressed in chondrocytes + tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Linkage map

A

Based on meiosis recombination. Markers farther apart have more recombination.
Tightly linked markers have less recombination

**recombination hot/cold spots so not always linked to distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Haplotype analysis

A

Haplotype is combination of alleles present on same chromosome homologue.
- generated from SNP data, SNP combinations inherited + represent individual haplotype

Large scale analysis of haplotypes provides info on regions of DNA differing between populations.
-> disease characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Exome sequencing

A

Captures all exons to then identify variations (disease causing). Exons selected from total genome + hybridised.

e.g. Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia
Abnormal cilia, lack of function, mutation in 14 different genes.
-> exome sequencing on 2 affected individuals + their parents, looked for coding variants
1 unknown in HEATR2 (likely cause), changes conserved Leu to Pro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Limitations of exome sequencing

A
  • only samples known coding regions
  • only identifies sequence changes not chromosomal structure changes
  • many variations in each individual so don’t know which causes phenotype
  • false positives/negatives due to PCR amplification genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Next gen sequencing

A

Allows sequencing of large number of DNA mols in parallel.
- major modifications so don’t need primers
- rapid generation of large datasets
- alignment to reference genome needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Polygenic phenotype

A

Phenotype affected by many different genes, linkage more difficult to discover.

Most common diseases are polygenic. SNP markers used to generate haplotypes + GWAS can identify regions associated w/ disease using population haplotypes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

GWAS (pros & cons)

A
  • generate haplotype data from affected + unaffected groups
  • evaluate genomic region for association w/ disease

Microarray SNP chip -> Validation -> Replication -> Finemapping -> Functional studies

Advantages: compare large groups + identify regions contributing to variation in phenotype, useful for common disease w/ polygenic basis

Disadvantages: need many people in each group, associated regions often have no genes or unlikely candidates, need functional experiments to demonstrate (association not causation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are Mendelian traits?

A

Traits inherited by offspring from their parents, characterized by discrete units

Mendel proposed that traits are determined by alleles, which can be dominant or recessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can you distinguish between Mendelian and Quantitative traits?

A

Mendelian traits follow discrete inheritance patterns, while quantitative traits show continuous variation

Quantitative traits often involve multiple genes and environmental factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does it indicate if a trait disappears in F1 and reappears in 25% of F2?

A

The trait is recessive to the dominant trait

This follows Mendel’s laws of inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the genetic ratio of offspring from a two-trait cross in Mendelian inheritance?

A

9:3:3:1

This ratio represents the expected phenotypic outcomes of a dihybrid cross.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What did Francis Galton contribute to the study of quantitative inheritance?

A

He studied seed size in pea plants and introduced statistical concepts like regression and correlation

Galton’s work laid the groundwork for the biometric approach in genetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the conflict between Mendelian and biometric approaches?

A

Mendelian focuses on discrete traits, while biometricians emphasize continuous variation in traits

This conflict delayed the integration of genetics with natural selection theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the modern theory regarding phenotypic control?

A

Some phenotypes are controlled by one gene, while others are influenced by multiple genes and environmental interactions

This complexity reflects the multifactorial nature of many traits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: All phenotypes are controlled by a single gene.

A

False

Many phenotypes are determined by multiple genes and their interactions.

31
Q

Fill in the blank: The ratio of offspring from a two-trait cross is _______.

A

9:3:3:1

32
Q

What role did Francis Galton play in the eugenics movement?

A

He was a founder of the movement that led to racist policies and forced sterilization programs

Galton’s ideas, while influential in statistics, contributed to harmful social policies.

33
Q

Mendelian vs Biometric approach to the effect of mutants on evolution

A

Mendelians believe variation in discrete characteristics drives evolution (new mutants have large effects)

Biometricians believe that evolution is natural selection acting on continuously distributed characters

34
Q

What are quantitative traits?

A

Phenotypes that vary along a range of values, controlled by interactions between genes and environment.

35
Q

What is quantitative trait inheritance?

A

The inheritance pattern of phenotypes that can be measured on a continuous scale.

36
Q

What is the difference between quantitative trait loci and Mendelian trait inheritance?

A

Quantitative trait loci are genes that cause quantitative traits, while Mendelian traits follow discrete inheritance patterns.

37
Q

What are major genes?

A

Genes that produce a detectable effect on phenotype.

38
Q

How can genes influence phenotypes?

A

Genes can be additive or dominant in their effects.

39
Q

What does it mean for genes to be additive?

A

Each gene contributes equally to the variation in phenotype.

40
Q

What does it mean for genes to be dominant?

A

One gene has a more significant effect on phenotype than other genes.

41
Q

What is heritability test for?

A

To determine if variation in a trait is controlled by genetics, assessing if relatives are more similar than non-relatives.

42
Q

Why is classifying individuals with quantitative traits difficult?

A

Because the effects of many genes are too small to measure individually.

43
Q

Fill in the blank: Quantitative traits are controlled by interactions between _______ and environment.

A

[genes]

44
Q

What are melanosomes?

A

Cellular compartments that store melanin

Melanosomes play a crucial role in determining pigmentation in humans.

45
Q

What types of melanin are identified in human pigmentation?

A
  • Eumelanin - black/brown
  • Pheomelanin - red/yellow

These two types of melanin contribute to the variety of human skin and hair colors.

46
Q

What factors contribute to human pigmentation variation?

A
  • Differences in number of melanosomes
  • Type of melanin
  • Size and shape of melanosomes

These factors are influenced by genetic variants that affect pigmentation.

47
Q

What is the evolutionary function of pigmentation variation?

A
  • Protection against UV radiation
  • Synthesis of vitamin D

Geographic variation in pigmentation serves these important biological functions.

48
Q

What is the significance of selective mouse breeding?

A

It generates strains that are homozygous at all loci and have different genotypes at many loci.

49
Q

What is QTL identification in mice?

A

It involves identifying genomic variations between strains that affect phenotype.

50
Q

What is the role of F1 in genetic studies?

A

F1 is produced by crossing two inbred strains and is heterozygous for all loci.

51
Q

What is a two-bottle choice test in mice used for?

A

To study alcohol preference behaviour by offering one bottle with water and another with ethanol.

-> D2 consumes less than 1g/kg/day while B6 consumes 10g/kg/day.

52
Q

What percentage of individuals are affected by alcoholism?

A

Approximately 5%.

53
Q

What accounts for 50-60% of the variability in alcoholism manifestation?

A

Genetic factors.

54
Q

What does crossing F1 produce?

A

F2 lines, each mouse having different combinations of homozygous DNA.

55
Q

What can be inferred if half of the offspring are grey and half are green?

A

There has been recombination or crossing over.

56
Q

What is linkage analysis?

A

Markers which are polymorphic between strains + have a known chromosomal location used
SSR used, gel electrophoresis to detect SSLP of PCR product -> animals w/ 2 bands are heterozygous.

For SNPs, can detect by sequencing PCR product that amplifies SNP

57
Q

Gene identification

A

Can narrow down scope of investigation depending on study.
e.g. for alcoholism in mice - expressed in brain, synaptic function, gene w/ sequence change that causes functional change to protein (Stxb1)

58
Q

How can you confirm that a gene is causative?

A

Transgenic rescue - add wt allele to mutant & see phenotype disappear

Can use knock-in to generate same sequence change in wt mice + induce same phenotype

59
Q

Epigenetics

A

Study of heritable changes that occur without a modification in DNA sequences of genes

  • histone modification
  • DNA methylation
  • nucleosome remodelling
  • non-coding RNA mediation
60
Q

DNA methylation

A

Addition of methyl group to cytosine (C) - blocks transcription due to tightly packed chromatin.
- methylated genes generally not expressed
- occurs in mammals + plants

Form of ‘imprinting’ , can change depending on parental chromosome

61
Q

What causes Prader willie & Angelman syndromes?

A

Micro-deletions on Chromosome 15.

  • PWS , short stature, impaired cog development, respiratory distress, obesity
    Paternal allele mutated + maternal imprinted (silenced) -> loss of SNRPN expression
  • AS, developmental delay, hyperactivity, impaired cog function, seizures
    Maternal allele mutated + paternal imprinted (UBE3A gene)
62
Q

What is the epigenetic reprogramming cycle?

A
  • imprint establishment in gametes
  • matured and then maintained in fertilisation
  • imprint read into differentiated cells
  • erased in primordial germ cells

Differentiated gametes undergo widespread epigenetic reprogramming

Zygotic genome activated at 2 (mice) or 8 (humans) cell stage.
In mammals - 2 cell lineages of trophectoderm + ICM.
ICM -> forms epiblast & primitive endoderm

ICM + TE have different degree of methylation. ICM forms embryo + TE forms placenta.

63
Q

Describe the process of comatic cell nuclear transfer

A

Cloning e.g. Dolly the Sheep

Nucleus removed from adult cell, oocyte transferred w/ no nucleus.
Implant it into host mother -> nucleus/DNA supplied from adult w/ imprint in place
- electric current applied so nucleus fuses w/ empty egg

4% results in birth of live young

64
Q

How does large offspring syndrome arise?

A

Often unhealthy live young from cloning.
- respiratory distress, 2-fold increase in birth weight
- skeletal, immunological + placental defects

Caused by improper placental development due to imprinting defect.
- abnormal X chrom inactivation in females + imprinting (far less methylation) defects both genders

65
Q

Is epigenetics the cause of clone abnormalities?

A

Cloned animals used in natural mating -> offspring do not show defects (LOS)

They have same genotype but not same epigenetic imprinting SO yes.
Gene expression changed -> determines survival & phenotype

66
Q

Histone modifications

A

Chromatin organisation formulates gene expression pattern.
Epigenetic signatures vary by cell type & in disease.

Chromatin & miRNA environment dictates cellular gene expression

67
Q

What was Barkers impact on epigenetic inheritance?

A

Mapped areas of infant mortality + low birthweight in UK 1910s, analysed death rates due to Cardiovascular + type II diabetes 1970s -> correlation w/ deprivation

Hypothesised nutrient conditions during pregnancy affect health in adult life (thrifty phenotype)
Programming - caused persistent physiological + metabolic changes which cannot be compensated by adequate nutrition after birth

68
Q

How did the Dutch Hunger Winter (1944-45) support Barker’s hypothesis?

A

Maternal starvation during pregnancy limits intrauterine growth of offspring -> higher CV + diabetes rates
-> placental abnormalities + maternal stress

Offspring had children w/ low birthweights -> not found w/ siblings not born in famine

69
Q

What are the epigenetic changes linked to early development during a famine?

A

Individuals exposed to famine in gestation -> reduced methylation of IGF2 gene at age 60.
Vs siblings not conceived in famine had higher levels of IGF2 methylation

SO uterine environment encodes epigenetic state during development
- maternal obesity increases risk type II diabetes in child
monozygotic twins discordant for type II diabetes

70
Q

What are the effects of diet on epigenetic state in rats?

A

Fed normal and low protein (LP) diet during gestation + lactation.

  • Hnf4a polymorphisms confer type II diabetes risk
  • Hnf4a expression reduced in LP diet rats - persists throughout life
  • Hnf4a levels normally decrease in old age

LP diet induces DNA methylation + histone acetylation on Hnf4a enhancer region -> changes expression throughout life

71
Q

Transgenerational inheritance

A

Refers to altered phenotypes in offspring through beyond F2 generation to F3.
- need to eliminate effect on gametes to confirm
- offspring exist as germ cells in grandmothers pregnancy
- can study w/ animal models

Multigenerational exposure can be seen in grandchildren (F2) but no further.

72
Q

What is the experimental evidence for transgenerational inheritance?

A

Folate deficiency - folate is carrier of methyl groups needed for cellular metabolism.
Mttr gene needed for normal metabolism of folate + methionine

Mttr mutation (gt) - insertion leads to folate metabolism deficiency

Analysed gt heterozygote intercrosses:
- phenotypes did not correlate w/ maternal or offspring phenotypes
- 45% zygotes showed abnormal phenotype in development
- abnormal phenotypes present in all offspring genotypes equally (F2)

SO hypothesised maternal + grandparental genotype might correlate w/ offspring

73
Q

How did they determine if Mttr mutation is an example of transgenerational inheritance?

A

Analysed pedigree charts - pregnancies w/ abnormal litters always had mutant grandparents
- global DNA methylation levels disrupted in mutant adult livers
- Wt littermates show disrupted methylation levels in adult liver

Wt pre-implantation embryos w/ mutant maternal grandparent transferred to wt female for development
Wt embryos w/o mutant maternal grandparents used as controls
-> found congenital defects only in offspring w/ mutant maternal grandparent

Defects persisted for at least 5 generations -> transgenerational