Organ support Flashcards

1
Q

What are the principals of O2 therapy?

A
  • high flow, high concentration O2 should be given to any acutely dyspnoeic or hypoxaemic pt until accurate titration can be performed using ABG
  • Maintain SpO2 between 92-98- compromise may need to be made in acute on chronic hypoxaemic respiratory failure, or prolonged ARDs when lower values may be ok
  • When starting mechanical ventilation use a high FiO2 until accurate titration can be performed using ABG
  • Unless being treated for carbon monoxide poisoning or hyperbaric therapy, no need to maintain supranormal levels of PaO2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the types of respiratory support available?

A
  • Oxygen therapy
  • High-flow nasal cannula
  • Non-invasive ventilation
  • Intubation and mechanical ventilation
  • Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is ARDs?

A
  • occurs due to severe inflammatory reaction in lungs- oftern 2ndary to sepsis or trauma
  • acute onset of:
  • atelectasis
  • Pulmonary oedema (not related to HF or fluid overload)
  • Decreased lung compliance
  • Fibrosis of lung (after 10 days or more)
    *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the triad of ARDS/

A
  • Acute resp distress
  • Hypoxia
  • Bilateral infiltrates on chest xray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of ARDs

A
  • resp support
  • prone position
  • Careful fluid management to avoid excess fluid collecting in lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you tailor mechnical ventilation to a pt with ARDs?

A
  • Low volumes and pressures to avoid over-inflating the small functional portion of lung- lung protective ventilation
  • Postive end-expiratory pressure is used to prevent the lungs from collapsing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does prone positioning help in ARDs?

A
  • Reducing compression of the lungs by other organs
  • Improving blood flow to the lungs, particularly the well-ventilated areas
  • Improving clearance of secretions
  • Improving overall oxygenation
  • Reducing the required assistance from mechanical ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the types of oxygen delivery methods and concentrations?

A
  • Nasal cannula: 24 – 44% oxygen
  • Simple face mask: 40 – 60% oxygen
  • Venturi masks: 24 – 60% oxygen
  • Face mask with reservoir (non-rebreather mask): 60 – 95% oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is positive end- expiratory pressure?

A
  • End-expiratory pressure refers to the pressure that remains in the airqays at the end of exhalation
  • Additional pressure at the end stops the airways from collapsing
  • It reduced atelectasis
  • Improves ventilation of the alveoli
  • opens more areas for gas exchange
  • decreases breathing effort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is positive end-expiratory pressure added?

A
  • high flow nasal cannula
  • non-invasive ventilation
  • mechanical ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the benefits of high flow nasal cannula?

A
  • reduces the amount of room air that the patient inhales alongside the supplementary oxygen, increasing the concentration of oxygen inhaled with each breath.
  • adds some positive end-expiratory pressure to help prevent the airways from collapsing at the end of exhalation (although this effect is reduced if the patient opens their mouth).
  • provides dead space washout. The physiological dead space is the air that does not contribute to gas exchange because it never reaches the alveoli. Dead space air remains in airways and oropharynx, not adding anything to respiration and collecting carbon dioxide. High-flow oxygen effectively clears this and replaces it with oxygen, improving patient oxygenation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is CPAP?

A
  • constat pressure added to keep the airways exapnded
  • Not classed as NIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is NIV?

A
  • Involves using a full face mask, hood (covering the entire head) or a tight-fitting nasal mask to blow air forcefully into the lungs and ventilate them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is BIPAP?

A

BiPAP is a specific machine that provides NIV. BiPAP stands for Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does NIV work?

A
  • NIV involves a cycle of high and low pressure to correspond to the patient’s inspiration and expiration:
  • IPAP (inspiratory positive airway pressure) is the pressure during inspiration – where air is forced into the lungs
  • EPAP (expiratory positive airway pressure) is the pressure during expiration – stopping the airways from collapsing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is mechanical ventilation?

A
  • used when other forms are contraindicated or inadequate
  • Pts require sedation
  • ET tube or tracheostomy is required to connect ventilator to the lungs- no leaks should be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Outline the settings on a mechanial ventilator

A
  • FiO2 (concentration of oxygen)
  • Respiratory rate (breaths per minute)
  • Tidal volume (volume of air pushed in per breath)
  • Inspiratory:expiratory ratio (the ratio of time spent in inspiration and expiration)
  • Peak flow rate (the maximum rate of air flow during inspiration)
  • Peak inspiratory pressure (the maximum pressure during inspiration
  • Positive end-expiratory pressure (the positive pressure applied at the end of expiration to prevent airway collapse)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Modes of mechanical ventilation?

A
  • Volume controlled ventilation (VC) – the machine is set to deliver a specific tidal volume per breath
  • Pressure controlled ventilation (PC) – the machine is set to deliver a specific pressure per breath
  • Assist control (AC) – breaths are triggered by the patient (or by the machine if there is no respiratory effort)
  • Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) – the patient breathes while the machine adds constant pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is ECMO?

A
  • Most extreme form of resp support, very rarely used
  • Blood is removed from the body and passed through a machine where oxygen is added and CO2 is removed, then pumped back into the body
  • Only used short term
  • Specialist centres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Indications of ET tube intubation?

A
  • Apnoea- e.g. unconsciousness, severe resp muscle weakness, self poisoning
  • Resp failure- e.g. ARDS, pneumonia
  • Airway protection- GCS< 8, trauma, aspiration risk, poisoning
  • Airway obstruction: maintain airway patency e.g. trauma, laryngeal oedema, tumour, burns
  • Haemodynamic instability- shock, cardiac arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Routes of ET intubation?

A
  • Orotracheal- usually preferred
  • Nasotracheal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Advs and Disadv of nasopharyngeal intubation?

A
  • increased pt comfort
  • easier placement
  • easier to secure the tube

Disadv
* sinusitis
* otitis media
* contraindicated in coagulopathy, CSF leak and nasal/basal skull fractures

23
Q

Complications of intubation?

A

Early
* trauma- haemorrhage, mediastinal perforation
* haemodynamic collapse e.g. positive pressure ventilation, vasodialtion, arrythmias or rapid correction of hypercapnia
* tube malposition

Late
* infection incl maxillary sinusitis if nasally intubated
* cuff pressure trauma
* mouth/lip or pharyngeal trauma

24
Q

What is preload?

A

amount that the heart muscle is stretched when filled with blood just before a contraction.

25
Q

What is afterload?

A

resistance that the heart must overcome to eject blood from the left ventricle, through the aortic valve and into the aorta

26
Q

What is contractilty?

A

refers to the strength of the heart muscle contraction.

27
Q

What is systemic vascular resistance?

A

resistance in the systemic circulation that the heart must overcome to pump blood around the body.

28
Q

Stroke volume?

A

volume of blood ejected during each beat.

29
Q

Cardiac output?

A

stroke volume x heart rate

30
Q

What is the MAP

A
  • the average blood pressure throughout the entire cardiac cycle, including both systole and diastole.
  • Mean arterial pressure is a product of cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. Low arterial pressure may be the result of low cardiac output or low systemic vascular resistance.
31
Q

Why is MAP so important?

A

essential for tissue perfusion throughout the body.
Low mean arterial pressure results in tissue hypoperfusion, leading to hypoxia, anaerobic respiration, lactate production and damage to the tissue.

32
Q

What is non-invasive cardiac monitoring?

A

Heart rate
Peripheral blood pressure
Pulse oximetry (oxygen saturations)
Continuous ECG monitoring

33
Q

What are the more intense cardiac monitoring?

A
  • Invasive blood pressure monitoring via an arterial line (a special cannula inserted into an artery)
  • Arterial blood gas analysis taken from an arterial line
  • Central venous pressure via a central venous catheter in the vena cava/right atrium
  • Central venous oxygen saturation measured using blood samples from a central venous catheter
  • Pulmonary wedge pressure via a pulmonary artery catheter (indicates the left atrial pressure) (rarely done)
  • Pulmonary artery oxygen saturation via a pulmonary artery catheter (rarely done)
  • Echocardiogram (transoesophageal or transthoracic)
34
Q

What is cardiac output monitoring?

A
  • Pulse contour cardiac output (PiCCO) monitors cardiac output via a central venous catheter and thermodilution arterial line
  • Oesophageal Doppler monitor assesses the blood flow through the thoracic aorta to estimate stroke volume and cardiac output
35
Q

What is the first step to think about before considering inotrope and vasopressor medications?

A

FLUID STATUS
* The central venous pressure is often used as an estimate of preload - shows how much blood is available to fill the heart before a ventricular contraction. If the central venous pressure is low, the heart has less blood filling the ventricles for each contraction.

  • CVP helps guide fluid resuscitation.
  • Giving additional IV fluids helps increase the central venous pressure, helping the heart fill with blood during diastole.
  • Preload and stroke volume are improved, ultimately improving the cardiac output.
36
Q

Complications of too much fluid?

A
  • congestive heart failure,
  • pulmonary oedema
  • increased mortality.
37
Q

What are inotropes?

A
  • alter the contractility of the heart
38
Q

What is a positive inotrope?

A
  • increase the contractility of the heart
  • Increases cardiac output and mean arterial pressure
  • used in pts with low cardiac output
  • this could be due to HF, recent MI or post- heart surgery
39
Q

What types of drugs are positive inotropes?
How do these work?
Give examples

A
  • Catecholamines
  • These stiulate the sympathetic nervous system via alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors
  • Examples incl:
    Adrenaline
    Dobutamine
    Isoprenaline
    Noradrenaline (weak inotrope and mostly a vasopressor)
    Dopamine (not an inotrope at lower infusion rates)
40
Q

How do you give a positive inotrope?

A
  • given through a central venous catheter
  • only used when pt can be monitored closely
  • Dose titrated depending on pts clinical condition, MAP, CVP and CO
41
Q

What is a negative inotrope?
Give examples

A
  • reduce the contractility of the heart
  • Examples incl:
    Beta-blockers
    Calcium channel blockers
    Flecainide
42
Q

What is Milrinone?

A
  • Postive inotrope
  • Works as a phosphodiesterase- 3 inhibitor
43
Q

What is Levosimendan?

A
  • positive inotrope
  • works by increasing the heart muscles sensitivity to calcium
44
Q

What are vasopressors?

A
  • medications that cause vasoconstriction
  • This increases systemic vascular resistance and cosequently MAP
45
Q

When are vasopressors used?

A
  • commonly by anaesthestists as a bolus or in ICU as an infusion to improve a pts BP and therefore tissue perfusion
  • Severe sepsis- often used
46
Q

Examples of vasopressors?

A
  • Noradrenaline (given as an infusion via a central line)
  • Vasopressin (given as an infusion via a central line)
  • Adrenaline (given as an infusion via a central line or as a bolus in an emergency)
  • Metaraminol (given as a bolus or an infusion)
  • Ephedrine (given as a bolus)
  • Phenylephrine (given as a bolus or an infusion)
47
Q

What is glycopyronium?

A
  • antimuscarinic used to treat bradycardia often during operations
48
Q

When in a intra-aortic balloon pump used?

A
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina and myocardial infarction)
  • Immediately following heart surgery
49
Q

How is an intraortic balloon pump used?

A
  • catheter inserted into the arterial system usually via femoral artery up to the descending throacic aorta
  • At the tip is an inflatable balloon
  • Balloon intermittently inflate and deflated by a special machine synchronised to heart contractions
  • during diasotle- balloon is inflated which pushes blood backwards into coronary arteries- improving coronary perfusion
  • during systole- balloon is deflated- this creates a vacuum effect as empty space in created that the balloon previously filled- this reduces afterload and increases cardiac output

increases coronary blood flow, reduces afterload, increases CO

50
Q

What are the indications for acute dialysis?

A

AEIOU mnemonic
* Acidosis
* Electrolyte abnormlities (treatment resistnt hyperkalaemia)
* Intoxication- overdose of certain medications
* Oedema- severe and unresponsive pulmonary oedema
* Uraemia symptoms such as seizures or reduced consciousness

51
Q

What are the dialysis options needed for a pt with renal failure

A
  • peritoneal (rarely used in acute renal failure)
  • Haemodialysis
52
Q

What is needed for haemodialysis?

A
  • good access to an abudant blood supply
  • done in an acute setting with a vas cath
  • two lumens are needed- one to remove the lood and one to put the blood back in
  • Anticoagulation with citrate or heparin is necessary to prevent blood clotting in the machine and during the process
53
Q

What are the two types of haemodialysis?
Outline them both.

A
  • Continuous renal replacement therapy- continuously performing dialysis 24 hours a day. Most pts in ICU with haemodialysis will be on this
  • Intermittent haemodialysis- performing dialysis for set periods for examples 3-12 hours
54
Q
A