Orbit/Lids/Adnexa Flashcards

1
Q

<p>What are the dimensions of the adult orbit?</p>

A

<p>40mm W x 35mm H x 45mm D</p>

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2
Q

<p>What orbital bones make up the roof of the orbit?</p>

A

<p>Frontal andSphenoid (lesser wing)</p>

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3
Q

<p>What orbital bones make up the lateral wall?</p>

A

<p>Zygomatic andSphenoid (greater wing)</p>

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4
Q

<p>What orbital bones make up the floor?</p>

A

<p>Palatine, Maxillary, Zygomatic</p>

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5
Q

<p>What orbital bones make up the medial wall?</p>

A

<p>Sphenoid (lesser wing), Maxillary, Ethmoid, Lacrimal</p>

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6
Q

<p>Orbital length of the optic nerve? Intracanalicular length of the optic nerve? Intracranial length?</p>

A

<p>25-30mm, 9mm,16mm</p>

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7
Q

<p>What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure outside the annulus of Zinn?</p>

A

<p>Lacrimal (V1)</p>

<p>Frontal (V1)</p>

<p>Trochlear n. (CN IV)</p>

<p>Superior ophthalmic vein</p>

<p>"LFTS"</p>

<p></p>

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8
Q

<p>What structures pass though the superior orbital fissure within the annulus of Zinn?</p>

A

<p>Sup. division of CNIII</p>

<p>Nasociliary (V1)</p>

<p>Inf. division of CNIII</p>

<p>Abducens (CNVI)</p>

<p>"3N3 is6"</p>

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9
Q

<p>What structures pass through the optic canal?</p>

A

<p>Optic Nerve (CNII)</p>

<p>Ophthalmic artery</p>

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10
Q

<p>What structures pass through the inferior orbital fissue</p>

A

<p>Infraorbital neurovascular bundle</p>

<p>Inferior ophthalmic vein</p>

<p>Zygomatic nerve</p>

<p>Ganglionic branches (from pterygopalatine ganglion to maxillary n.)</p>

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11
Q

<p>What is the arcus marginalis?</p>

A

<p>Fusion of the orbital septum and periosteum at the orbital rim, fuses with dura covering ofoptic nerve</p>

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12
Q

<p>How many fat pads are in the upper eyelid?</p>

A

<p>2 - nasal fat pad (smaller and paler), and central</p>

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13
Q

<p>How many fat pads are in the lower eyelid? Which fat pads are separated by the inferior oblique?</p>

A

<p>3 - the IO separates nasal and middle fat pads; the lateral fat pad is smaller and more inferior</p>

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14
Q

<p>What is the innervation of the lacrimal gland?</p>

A

<p>Secretomotor - superior salivary nucleus of CN7</p>

<p>Sensory - CNV</p>

<p>Sympathetic - fromsuperior cervical ganglion</p>

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15
Q

<p>Whereare the glands of Wolfring found?</p>

A

<p>At the superior edge of tarsus</p>

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16
Q

<p>Where are the glands of Krause found?</p>

A

<p>In the fornices</p>

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17
Q

<p>Name the 3 anatomic parts of the orbicularis oculi</p>

A

<p>Pretarsal</p>

<p>Preseptal</p>

<p>Orbital</p>

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18
Q

<p>Where does the orbital septum fuse in non-Asian eyelids?</p>

A

<p>To the levator aponeurosis 2-5mm above the superior tarsal border</p>

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19
Q

<p>Where does the orbital septum fuse in Asian eyelids?</p>

A

<p>To the levator aponeurosis between the eyelid margin and the superior border of the tarsus</p>

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20
Q

<p>How long are the muscular and aponeurotic portions of thethe levator palpebrea?</p>

A

<p>Muscular = 40mm</p>

<p>Aponeurotic = 14-20mm</p>

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21
Q

<p>Where is Whitnall's tubercle located and what structures are attached to it?</p>

A

<p>11mm inferior to the FZ suture and 4-5mm posterior to the orbital rim;</p>

<p><strong>4 L's:</strong></p>

<p><strong>L</strong>ockwood suspensoryligament</p>

<p><strong>L</strong>ateral rectus check ligament</p>

<p><strong>L</strong>ateral palpebral ligament</p>

<p><strong>L</strong>evator aponeurosis</p>

<p>(Whitnall's ligament does NOT attach to the Whitnall's tubercle; actually inserts to trochlea medially and the FZ suture temporally)</p>

<p></p>

<p></p>

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22
Q

<p>From where does Muller's muscle originate? Where does it insert? What is it's length? How much does it raise the eyelid?</p>

A

<p>Origin: undersurface of levator at level of Whitnall's ligament</p>

<p>Insertion: superior border of tarsus</p>

<p>Length: 12-15mm</p>

<p>Action: raises eyelid 2mm</p>

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23
Q

<p>What are the lower eyelid retractors?</p>

A

<p>Capsulopalpebral fascia (analogous to levator aponeurosis), inferior tarsal muscle (analogous to Muller's), Lockwood's suspensory ligament</p>

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24
Q

<p>What are the heights of the superior and inferior tarsal plates?</p>

A

<p>10mm and 4mm respectively</p>

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25

Which limb of the medial canthal tendon is more important for appearance and function?

Posterior limb (attaches to posterior lacrimal crest), maintains apposition to the globe

26

What does the grey line demarcate?

Muscle of Riolan aka border of pretarsal orbicularis

27

What is the arterial supply to the upper eyelid?

ICA --> ophthalmic artery --> superior marginal arcade

28

What is the arterial supply to the lower eyelid?

External carotid artery --> facial artery --> angular artery --> inferior marginal arcade

29

What is the pretarsal venous drainage pathway?

Medially: Angular vein

Temporally: superificial temporal vein

30

What is the post-tarsal venous drainage?

orbital vein, facial vein, pterygoid plexus

31

What aspect of the face drain to the submandibular nodes?

Medial 1/3 of upper lid

Medial 2/3 of lower lid

32

What aspect of the face drains to the preauricular nodes?

Lateral 2/3 of upper lid

Lateral 1/3 of lower lid

33

What are the lengths of the canalicular system?

Pucta: 2mm

Canaliculus: 8mm

Lacrimal Sac: 10mm

Nasolacrimal duct: ~15mm

34

Where is the weakest area of the orbit?

Posterior medial floor (blow out fracture)

35

What is a tripod fracture?

Fracture of the zygomaticomaxillary suture, zygomaticofrontal suture, and the zygomatic arch + the orbital floor

36

What bone is involved in all LeFort fracture?

Pterygoid plate

37

What is a LeFort I fracture?

Low transverse fracture of the maxillary bone above teeth, no orbital involvement

"floating palate"

38

What is a LeFort II fracture?

Pyramidal fracture of nasal, lacrimal and maxillary bones, involves superior medial wall or maxilla (orbital floor)

"Floating maxilla"

39

What is a LeFort III fracture?

craniofacial dysjunction, through ZF suture, orbit, nose, ethmoids

"Floating face"

40

What are the stages of globe degeration?

1. atrophia bulbi without shrinkage

2. atrophia bulbi with shrinkage

3. Phthisis bulbi (disorganization)

increased risk of malignancy, get bscan annually

41

Most common fungal orbital infection?

Phycomycetes

42

What are the findings of mucormycosis?

non-septae, large branching hyphae;

invasion of blood vessels w/ thrombosis and necrosis

 

43

What is the treatment for mucormycosis?

Surgical debridement, IV amphotericin B

44

Aspergillosis findings & treatment?

Septate, branching hyphae

Disseminated vs Local forms

Treat with surgical debridement, amphotericin B, flucytosine, rifampin

45

What causes dengue fever and how does it present?

Flavivirus

75% present with eye soreness and pain with movements

46

What are the most common presentations/locations of orbital pseudotumor?

1. Myositis (involves muscle AND tendon)

2. Dacryoadenitis

3. Scleritis

4. Orbital Apex

5. Diffusely thoughout orbit

47

What are the laboratory findings for orbital pseudotumor?

1. Eosinophilia

2. Elevated ESR

3. +ANA

4. CSF pleocytosis

48

Treatment for orbital pseudotumor?

steroids 1mg/kg prednisone, slow taper due to chance of recurrence; if no response, can consider radiation or immunomodulatory therapy (cyclosporine, MTX, cyclophosphamide)

49

When does orbital pseudotumor warrant work-up for systemic vasculitis or lymphoproliferative disordersz/

Simultaneous bilateral orbital inflammation in adults

(In children, ~1/3 are bilateral and rarely associated with systemic disorders)

50

What are the histological findings for orbital pseudotumor?

pleomorphic cellular infiltrate consisting of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils with variable degrees of reactive fibrosis

51

When to biopsy for orbital inflammation?

Isolated inflammation of the lacrimal gland

52

How does sclerosing orbital pseudotumor differ from NSOI?

Fibrosis of orbit and lacrimal gland

Slow insidious onset, pain less common, eye white and quiet

Less responsive to steroids

A-scan: low reflectivitiy (both lymphoma and orbital pseudotumor)

associated with retroperitoneal fibrosis

53

What is the most common cause of proptosis?

Thyroid eye disease

54

What is the most common clinical manifestation of thyroid eye disease?

Lid retraction

55

What is von Grafe's sign?

Lid lag on downgaze in thyroid eye disease

56

What would you find on pathology in thyroid eye disease?

patchy infiltrates of lymphocytes, monocytes, mast cells and fibroblasts; enlargement of muscles

57

What muscles are typically involved in thyroid eye disease?

IMSLO = Inferior > medial > superior > lateral > obliques

(tendons are usually spared)

58

In what order do you perform surgery for thyroid eye disease?

Orbital decompression --> strabismus --> eyelid surgery

59

Requirements before strabismus surgery in TED?

stability for 6 months

avoid if anterior inflammation is present

Prefer recession over resection

60

What are the common findings of sarcoidosis (in the eye)?

Panuveitis (often bilateral)

Thickened Descemet's membrane, band K, nummular keratitis, deep stromal vacuoles

pars planitis

chorioretinitis

orbital apex syndrome

ptosis

conjunctivitis

dacryoadenitis

 

61

Pathology for sarcoid

Non-caseating granulomas

Langhans' Giant Cells

62

Granulomatosis w/ Polyagniitis findings

painful proptosis

reduced motility

chemosis

scleritis

keratitis

optic nerve edema

NLDO

63

GPA pathology

triad of vasculitis, granulomatous inflammation, and tissue necrosis

64

Differences between direct carotid-cavernous fistula vs dural-sinus fistula?

Direct c-c fistula: high flow, associated with head trauma; dilated corkscrew  scleral/episcleral vessels, chemosis, elevated IOP, pulsatile proptosis, orbital bruit, dilated retinal veins; may develop ischemic maculopathy or RAO, enlarged C/D, CN6 palsy, anterior seg ischemia, blood in Schlemm's

Dural-sinus fistula: low-flow communication between meningeal branches of carotid artery and dural walls of cavernous sinus; often asymptomatic, associated with HTN, atherosclerosis, connective tissue diseases, may close spontaenously, need MRI/MRA

65

Dilated superior orbital vein on CT along with dilated corkscrew episcleral/scleral vessels, chemosis, orbital bruit, recent history of head trauma; diagnosis?

Carotid-cavernous fistula

66

Hamartoma vs Choristoma

Hamartoma = growth arising from tissue normal found in that site (nevus, neurofibroma, neurilemmoma, schwannoma, glioma, hemangioma, hemangiopericytoma, lymphangioma, trichoepithelioma)

Choristoma = growth arising from tissue not normally found in that site (dermoid, dermatolipoma, ectopic lacrimal gland)

67

Most common benign orbital tumor in adults?

Cavernous hemangioma

Pathology: blood-filled cavernous spaces, lined by epithelial cells

Findings: slowly progressive proptosis, may induce hyperopia, retinal striae, IOP elevation, strabismus, ON compression

68

Imaging findings for cavernous hemangioma?

US: high internal reflectivity

CT: well-demarcated, encapsulated intraconal mass

MRI: hypointense to fat on T1; hyperintense to fat on T2, equivalent to vitreous

69

Treatment of hemangiopericytoma?

Complete excision (concern for metastasis)

70

Most common benign orbital tumor in children?

Capillary hemangioma

Pathology: numerous blood-filled channels lined by epithelium; unencapsulated

Location: superonasal orbit, medial upper eyelid

Often regresses spontaneously by age 5-8 in 80% of cases

71

Most common location for Neurilemmoma (Schwannoma)

Superior orbit, causing progressive proptosis and globe dystopia

72

Schwannoma pathology stain and types?

S-100 stain

Antoni A: spindle cells arranged in cords/whorls/palisades, Verocay bodies

Antoni B: loose, myxoid; stellate cells w/ mucoid stoma

73

Optic nerve sheath meningioma spenser's triad?

optociliary shunt vessels, optic atrophy, optic nerve meningioma

Pathology: sheets of cells or whorls, Psammoma bodies in center

Treatment: observation, excision to prevent ON or chiasm involvement

74

bilateral lacrimal gland enlargement, limitation of EOMs, visual disturbance, diagnosis?

Benign reactive lymphoid proliferation

Pathology: mature lymphocytes with reactive germinal centers; T-cells, 60-80% w/ scattered polyclonal B-cells, high degree of endothelial cell production

75

Atypical lymphoid hyperplasia findings

low-grade lymphoma, no mitotic activity

Path: follicles and polymorphous response

40% develop systemic disease within 5 years

76

Orbital Lymphoma findings

EOM limitation, painless lacrimal gland swelling, salmon patch, visual changes, 17% bilateral

77

Orbital Lymphoma Pathology

atypical immature lymphocytes with mitoses; diffuse or follicular; monoclonal b-cells 60-90% w/ scattered reactive T-cells

78

Risk of systemic involvement of orbital lymphoma by location?

eyelid (67% have systemic) > orbita (35%) > conjunctiva (20%)

79

Ossifying fibroma

Occurs 2nd and 3rd decades, more common in women

well-circumscribed, slow growin, monostotic lesion

Pathology: vascular stroma containing lamellar bone with rim of osteoid and osteoblasts

80

Where do osteomas originate from?

frontal and ethmoid sinuses

Pathology: lamellar bone with variable amounts of fibrous stroma

81

What is the most common mesenchymal orbital lesion in adults?

Fibrous histiocytoma

distinguishable form hemangiopericytoma only on biopsy

storiform (cartwheel/spiral), nebullar pattern (fibroblasts)

image: histocytes on left, fibrous on right

82

Most common epitheloid tumor of the lacrimal gland?

 

Pleomorphic adenoma (Benign mixed tumor)

Firm mass, painless proptosis

CT: well-circumscribed, may be nodular, may indent bone

Path: ductal structures, osteoid and cartilaginous metaplasia

83

What is the preferred treatment for pleomorphic adenoma?

Complete surgical resection, incomplete excision may lead to recurrence and malignant transformation into pleomorphina adenocarcinoma

84

Rapidly progressive, painful lacrimal gland tumor in elderly with long history of lacrimal mass?

Pleomorphic adenocarcinoma (malignant mixed tumor)

Treat with radical orbitectomy w/ bone removal

85

Most common malignant lacrimal gland tumor?

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

4th decade of life

rapid progression, painful proptosis due to perineural spread

Highly malignant

Swiss chess appearance on path

CT may show bony erosion, poorly circumscribed

Treat with resection including bone, radiation

Poor prognosis

86

Which sinus tumor is associated with cystic fibrosis? Most common location?

Sinus mucocele (must rule out encephalocele/meningocele)

Frontoethmoidal sinus (most common): above medical canthal tendon, displaces globe down and out

Sphenoid and posterior ethmoid sinus: retrobulbar pain, 50% have nasal symptoms, cranial nerve palsies

Maxillary sinus: globe displaced upward, erosion of orbital floor may cause enophthalmos

87

What type of cancer is most common in sinus carcinomas?

Squamous cell carcinomas, most commonly from maxillary sinus

88

How do mets to orbit differ in pediatrics vs adults?

peds tumors metastasize more commonly to orbit than to uvea

89

Most common source of orbital mets in women?

Breast cancer

90

Most common source of orbital mets in men?

Lung cancer

91

Orbital mets causing enophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia?

Breast cancer

92

Orbital mets mimicking pseudotumor?

Prostate cancer

93

Closure for small eyelid lacerations?

Closure for 25-50% eyelid defect?

Closure for >50% eyelid defect?

Small: direct closure

Moderate: Tenzel rotational flap

Large: Cutler-Beard (upper); Hughes (lower)

94

External hordeolum origin?

Glands of Zeiss

95

Internal hordeolum origin?

Meibomian gland

96

Organism associated with angular blepharitis?

Moraxella

97

Type of hypersensitivity in acne rosacea?

Type IV 

98

Findings and treatment of contact dermatitis?

Erythematous, scaling lesions, may have vesicles or weeping lesions

Treat with elimination of inciting agent, mild topical steroid or tacrolimus 0.1%

99

Organism responsible for this lesion?

Poxvirus MCV (molluscom contagiosum virus)

Treat with excision, cryo, curettage

100

Organism, findings, treatment of Leprosy?

Mycobacteria leprae

loss of lashes, trichiasis, ectropion, exposure keratitis

dapsone, rifampin

101

Blepharospasm vs hemifacial spasm

BEB: bilateral, not present during sleep, unclear etiology but potentially basal ganglia

HFS: usually unilateral due to CN7 compression, or CPA tumor

102

recurrent attacks of transient, painless eyelid edema resulting in atrophy, wrinkling, and redundancy of eyelid skin; usually women, familial

blepharochalasis

103

Testing for ptosis:

Normal palpebral fissure height?

Normal MRD-1?

Normal levator function?

Muller muscle contribution?

 

PF normally 10-11mm

MRD-1 ~4mm

LF: normal >12mm, fair 6-11mm, poor if <5mm

Muller's muscle raises lid about 2mm

104

Most common cause of eyelid retraction

Thyroid eye disease

105

Types of ectropion

Involutional

Paralytic

Cicatricial

Mechanical

106

Types of entropion

Spastic

Involutional

Cicatricial

Congenital (very rare, epiblepharon or tarsal kink)

107

Floppy eyelid sydrome findings

Chronic papillary conjunctivitis

associated wtih obesity, keratoconus, sleep apnea

108

Differential Dx for madarosis

eyelid neoplasm, chronic blepharitis, trauma, burns, trichotillomania, alopecia, seborrheic dermatitis, chemotherapy, malnutrition, leprosy, lupus

109

Conditions associated with poliosis/vitiligo

VKH

Sympathetic ophthalmia

Wardenburg syndrome

Tuberous sclerosis

Radiation

Dermatitis

110

Virus associated with this eyelid lesion?

HPV - Squamous papilloma

Most common benign eyelid lesion

111

Papillomatous proliferation of suprabasalar (prickle cells)

 

Seborrheic keratosis

112

Single-lumen, round/oval lesion lined by keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium and filled with cheesy keratin debris

Epidermal inclusion cyst (epidermoid cyst)

113

lined by keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium and dermal appendages such as hair shafts and sebaceous glands

Dermoid cyst

114

Fluid-filled lesipons near lateral canthus

Hydrocystoma, most often eccrine (can be apocrine if arising from glands of Moll)

115

Muir-Torre Syndrome

multiple sebaceous neoplasms, keratoacanothomas, and visceral tumors (esp GI)

116

waxy, yellow nodules on lower lid, usually in young women, benign proliferation of eccrine ductal structures

Syringoma

117

Benign adnexal tumor of hair follicle origin; firm flesh-colored/yellowish dome-shaped papule

Trichoepithelioma

Mean age 45ys, more common in women

Will increase in size and number

Histopathology: basaloid cells surrounding a keratin center

Treatment: excision, dermabrasion, cryo, laser

118

Hamartoma of hair follicle tissue; solitary, small, dome-shaped, flesh-colored papule or nodule w/ a diagnostic central keratin killed pore, may have wisps of hair

Trichfolliculoma

No malignent potential, simple excision

119

Cowden's disease

Multiple trichilemmomas, marker for breast (40%) or thyroid cancer

crusty lesion with rough surface, may mimick BCC/SCC/sebaceous CA

120

Calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe

Pilomatrixoma

solitary, firm deep nodule with overlying normal pink or bluish skin

Common in children

associated with Myotonic Dystrophy and Gardner's sydrome

121

Percentage of actinic keratosis that evovle into SCC?

12% (25% will resolve spontaneously)

122

Elastoic degeneration, overlying hyperkeratosis, focal parakeratosis, clefts in dyskeratotic areas

Actinic Keratosis

123

Benign pigmented lesion from neural crest cells?

Nevus

124

Type of nevus with greatest malignant potential?

Junctional nevus

125

Pigmented skin lesion

Compound nevus

Both intradermal and junctional components, malignant potential from junctional component

126

Most common type of nevus?

Intradermal nevus

most bening, can be amelanotic, can be papillomatous, flat or dome-shaped

127

Congenital nevus secondary to fusion of lids during embyonic development? involves upper and lower lids?

Kissing nevus

128

Nevus with no malignant potential?

Spindle cell nevus

compound nevus of childhood

129

Melanotic Freckle of Hutchinson

aka Lentigo Maligna

cutaneous version of PAM

melanoma arises in 30%

may have conj but no episcleral pigment

130

Freckles, scaling in young patient due to defect in DNA repair?

Xeroderma pigmentosa

AR inheritence

UV light endonuclease defect

3% incidence of malignant melanoma

131

Pathology: Basaloid blue cells arranged in nests and cords, peripheral palisading commonly seen

Basal Cell Carcinoma

most common malignancy of the eyelid (40x more common than SCC)

 

132

Site of BCC with poorest prognosis?

Medial canthus, often extends deeper into lacrimal system

Location in order of frequency:

lower lid > medial canthus > upper lid > lateral canthus

 

133

Most common form of BCC?

Nodular

134

More aggressive form of BCC?

Morpheaform

Firm, flat lesion with indistinct borders

Penetrates into dermis, pagetoid spread

Pathology: thin cords of basal cells

 

135

Dome-shaped squamous lesion, rapid onset, usually elderly patients, may involute spontaneously

Keratoacanthoma

central keratin-filled crater and elevated rolled edges, resembles BCC

Pathology: cup-shaped lesion with keratin core

Treatment: observation, excision, local steroid injection

136

2nd or 3rd most common malignancy of the eyelid, may mimick chronic blepharitis

Sebaceous gland carcinoma

Highly malignant, lethal (5 yr mortality = 30%)

Argument over whether more common than SCC

 

137

origin of sebaceous gland carcinoma

Meibomian gland

Can arise from Zeis glands or caruncle

Orange-yellow nodule

Pathology: large foamy, lipid-laden tumor cells, vacuolated cytoplasm

138

Treatment for sebaceous gland carcinoma

wide excision, send for frozen section, conj map biopsy

exenteration for pagetoid spread or orbital involvement

palliative radiation

139

Most common form of melanoma?

Superficial spreading

Spreading macule w/ irreg outline, variable pigmentation, invasive phase marked by papules and nodules

Path: pagetoid nests in all levels of epidermis

69% 5-year survival

140

Most common type of melanoma of the eyelid?

Nodular melanoma

5th decade, more common in men, palpable lesion

more aggressive, with vertical invasion

44% 5-year survival

141

Treatment and prognosis of malignant melanoma?

wide surgical excision, lymph node dissection if indicated

prognosis depends on depth of vertical invasion

<0.75mm indicates favorable prognosis

142

Most common site for Merkel Cell tumor?

upper eyelid

rare, vascular red-blue vascular tumor

mets and death in 30% of patients

Treatment: wide excision with immunohistochemical stains, lymph node dissection, radiation

143

Systemic involvement of Xanthalesma?

Erdheim-Chester disease (lipoid granulomatosis)

lipogranulomas of the liver, heart, kindey, lung, bones

144

Mycosis fungiodes

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

Pathology: Lutzner cells and Pautrier abscesses

145

What is the dye disappearance test?

Instillation of fluorescein

Wait 5 minutes

Check for clearance of dye from tear meniscus

146

Jones I test?

Perform Dye Disappearance Test first

Recover dye from nose with cotton tipped applicator

(abnormal test results occurs in 1/3 of individuals)

147

Jones II test?

After Jones I test, flush residual fluorescine from conjunctival sac

Then irrigate nasolacrimal system with saline

148

In the Jones II test, what does recovery of dye in the nose after irrigation indicate?

Functional obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct

149

In the Jones II test, what does recovery of clear saline in the nose represent?

canalicular obstruction or non-functional lacrimal pump 

150

What is a dacryoscintogram?

Instillation of technetium 99 - physiologic test

151

What is a dacryocystogram?

Injection of Lipiodol (Ethiodol) - outlines drainage system

152

Correction of canalicular obstruction?

Punctal obstruction - dilation, punctoplasty

Partial Canalicular obstruction - crawford stents, vier rods

Canalicular obstruction <8mm from punctum - Jones tube

Canalicular obstruction >8mm from punctum - DCR

153

Etiologies for NLDO?

involutional, trauma, chronic sinus disease, nasal polyps, dacryocystitis, granulomatous disease

Treat wtih silicone intubation, DCR

154

Lacrimal sac obstruction etiology and treatment?

trauma, acute or chronic dacryostitis

Treat with DCR

155

Typical microrganism in canaliculitis?

Typical findings?

Treatment?

Micro: Actinomyces israelii (most common), also candida albicans, aspergillus, nocardia, HSV, VZV

Findings: pouting punctum, discharge, may have bloody tears, sulfur granules

Treatment: warm compress, probing and irrigation with penicillin, canalicular curettage, incision and debridement

156

Dacryocystitis organisms?

Staph, strep, pseudomonas, H.flu (children, rare after vaccination), Klebsiella, actinomyces, candida

157

Dacryocystitis findings and treatment?

Acute: edema, erythema, distention below medial canthal tendon

Chronic: distended lacrimal sac, minimal inflammation

Treatment: warm compress, topical/systemic abx, I&D, avoid probing and irrigation during acute infection, DCR after acute inflammation subsides

158

Etiology of dacryoadenitis?

Acute: infection (Staph, gonorrhea, mumps, EBV, VZV)

Chronic: inflammation or infection (NSOI, sarcoid, Mikulicz, lympoid, syphilis, TB)

159

Diagnosis and treatment of dacryoadenitis?

Treatment: CT scan, consider culture, labs, biopsy

Treatment: systemic abx if indicated, treatment of underlying condition, excision, I&D

160

Findings in lacrimal sac tumors?

Painless mass above the medial canthal tendon, tearing, may have bloody tears (hemolacria), bleeding with probing

dacryocystogram outlines tumor

161

Most common primary lacrimal sac tumor?

Squamous papilloma

162

Most common primary malignant lacrimal sac tumor?

Squamous cell carcinoma

163

Second most common malignant lacrimal sac tumor?

Lymphoma