Oral Test Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What privileges do you have as a private pilot? Where can you find this information?

A

61.113.

Can carry passengers. Can fly for a charity/ nonprofit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What limitations do you have as a private pilot?

A

Can’t pay less than pro rata share when having passengers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What Personal Documents do you need with you while flying?

A

P - Pilots License
M - Medical Certificate
A - Authorized ID
R - Radio Telephone Operator (International Flights)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the different types of Medical Certificates?

A

Class 1 - ATP
Class 2 - Commercial
Class 3 - Private
Basic Med

Bonus: Statement Of Demonstrated Ability (SODA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you determine if an aircraft is airworthy?

A

Does it have all necessary equipment?
Has it had all necessary inspections?
Does it have all necessary documents?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the minimum Equipment Required? Where can you find this information?

A
A - Airspeed indicator
T - Tachometer
O - Oil Pressure Gauge
M - Manifold Pressure Gauge
A - Altimeter
T - Temperature Gauge
O - Oil Temperature Gauge
F - Fuel Gauge
L - Landing Gear Position Indicator
A - Anti Collision Lights (beacon)
M - Magnetic Compass
E - ELT
S - Safety Belts

91.205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What equipment is required to fly at night?

A
F - Fuses
L - Landing Lights (only if for hire)
A - Anti Collision Lights
P - Position Lights
S - Source of power (alternator, generator)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On a preflight inspection, you notice that the landing light is inoperative. What do you do?

A

Not flying for hire or at night: Can fly anyways and bring it to the owner’s attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Ferry Report and how do you use it?

A

Allows a plane that does not have an airworthiness certificate or is missing a required instrument to be flown with the purpose of maintenance at destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the required Documents to fly?

A
A - Airworthiness Certificate
R - Registration
R - Radio License
O - Operating Limitations/Handbook
W - Weight & Balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the required inspections to fly?

A

A - Annual (12 months)
V - VOR check (30 days, only if flying IFR)
I - 100 hour (if aircraft is used for hire/instruction)
A - Altimeter (24 months)
T - Transponder (24 months)
E - ELT (12 months OR on for 1 hr of cumulative use OR 50% of battery)

Airworthiness Directives: Comply with. Some are next maintenance, some are immediate.
Service Bulletins: Comply with. Stay aware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the currency requirements?

A

Day passengers: 3 TO + 3 LDGS in past 90 days; Same category, class and type
Night Passengers: 3 TO + 3 full stop LDGS during night in past 90 days
Medical: Under 40: 60 months; Over 40: 24 months
Flight Review: 24 months; At least 1 hr flight training, 1 hr ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between currency and proficiency?

A
Currency = minimum to fly legally
Proficiency = Well above minimum. Competent for whatever situation arises.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of planes require endorsements?

A

Complex Airplane: Retractable landing gear, flaps and controllable pitch prop
High Performance Airplane: Engine capable of +200 horsepower
Tailwheel: Rather than a nose wheel in front and two wheels in the back, it has two wheels in the front and a tailwheel in the back. A reverse tricycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are AIRMETS?

A

** Hazardous to GA**
Issued every 6 hours starting at 0245 UTC

Sierra: Mountain Obscuration/Ceiling < 1000 and/or vis<3miles (over 50% of area)
Tango: Moderate/sustained turbulence on surface 30+ kts
Zulu: Moderate icing, freezing levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are SIGMETS?

A

** Hazardous to all aviation**

Active: (Non convective)

  • Severe icing, severe turbulence, dust/sand storms w/ vis < 3 miles, volcanic ash
  • Generally last 4 hours

Outlook SIGMETS: forecast for 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are convective SIGMETS?

A

** Hazardous to people on the ground **
Valid up to 2 hours, updated every hour

Line of thunderstorms (min 60 miles)
Embedded thunderstorms
Winds > 50 kts
Thunderstorms with heavy or greater precipitaiton
Tornado
Hail diameter >= 3/4 inch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the winds aloft and how do you read it?

A

Winds aloft = forecast for wind direction, speed and temperature for different altitudes at a location

TRUE (not magnetic) direction

First 2 #s: Multiply the # by ten to get the direction in degrees.
Second 2 #s: Wind Speed in kts.
Third 2 #s: Temperature in degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do you do if there is a 7 as the first number of the Winds Aloft?

A

The direction is 50 subtracted from the first two numbers.
You put a 1 in front of the wind speed.

For example. if it reads 731322, the direction is (73-50 = 23) 230 degrees and the wind speed is 113 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Read this Winds Aloft: 230733

A

Direction: 230 degrees
Wind Speed: 7 kts
Temperature: 33 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What types of In Flight Weather are available to pilots?

A

PIREPS
ATIS
AWOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

Issued every 6 hours
Valid for 30 hours.
Covers an area with a 5 nm radius from the center of the airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a Prognostic Chart?

A

Includes surface analysis (fronts) as well as predicted precipitation
12 hr and 24 hr forecast issued every 4 hrs
36 hr, 48 hr, and 60 hr forecast are issued twice daily
3-7 day forecasts is issued once daily ~1400Z with a Valid time at 1200Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What types of fuel can we use?

A

80/87 min (because we got approved from FAA) –> this is from the gas station
100LL –> DKX sells this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What if the FBO has 90? Can we use it?

A

Yes because it is above 80/87 and we have permission from FAA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many gallons of fuel do our tanks hold?

A

Useable: 38 gallons
Max: 42 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does the fuel get from the tanks to the engine?

A

Gravity fed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the mixture control?

A

The ratio between fuel and intake air in the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why do we sump the fuel?

A

To check if there is water or sediment in the fuel tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What kind of engine do we have?

A

Lycoming Engine O-320-E2D

150 HP
4 Cylinders
8 Spark Plugs
2 Mags
Horizontally opposed
Air and Oil Cooled
Naturally Aspirated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the four strokes of a piston engine?

A

Intake, Compression, Power and Exhaust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is our engine fuel injected or carbureted?

A

Carbureted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the benefits of fuel injected engines? What about carbureted?

A

Fuel Injected: less susceptible to icing, better fuel flow

Carburetor: cheaper to buy/fix, simpler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes carb ice?

A

Moisture in carb venturi combined with fluctuating temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of prop?

A

76in fixed pitch

2 blade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many volts is our battery?

A

12 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why does the alternator produce more than the battery?

A

For the alternator to be able to charge the battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If our alternator fails, will our engine continue to run?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How can the engine run if the alternator fails?

A

Engine is not reliant on the electrical system to continue, but it is to start.
The magnetos keep the engine running.
Therefore, a landing is necessary ASAP as if the engine fails, you would not be able to restart it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If we are just using the STBY batt, what equipment will we be left with?

A

The ESS (essential) bus, including COMM 1, NAV 1, lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How long can we fly on the standby battery?

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the Left Turning Tendencies:

A

Torque: Worse in low airspeeds, high power and high AOA, cause by Newton’s 3rd law
P-Factor: Falling blade moves more air than rising blade
Spiraling Slipstream: In takeoff, air travels around the fuselage in a corkscrew pattern and hits the rudder causing the plane to yaw to the left
Gyroscopic Precession: applied pressure to rotating disc results in force 90 deg perp to point of application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What color are runway centerline markings?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What color are taxiway lights?

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does a red sign with white numbers mean?

A

Denotes what runway this is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does a yellow sign with black writing mean?

A

Identifies areas in a specific direction (not current location)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does a black sign with yellow letters mean?

A

Identifies taxiway/runway plane is on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an ILS hold short area?

A

Edge of ILS critical area, Ground may ask you to hold short here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If you are on the runway and see a black number 2, what does that mean?

A

You have 2000 ft of runway left to takeoff/land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does a yellow X painted on the runway mean to us?

A

Out of service/Do not use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does a hold short line look like?

A

Two yellow dashed lines and two full dashed lines w/ a black background. If full lines are closest to you, stop before them. If dashed lines are closest to you, stop after crossing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the colors of a rotating beacon and what do they mean?

A

Civilian: Flashing white and green
Military: Two quick white flashes followed by a green flash
Day Operations: Weather < VFR mins: (<3SM or ceiling < 1000 ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the light gun signals and what do they mean?

A

Flashing red: flying- airport unsafe, don’t land. Ground- taxi clear of runway

Flashing white: ground - return to starting point

Flashing red & green: both - exercise extreme caution

Steady red (in air): Continue circling, give way to other aircraft

Green in air: Cleared to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the four types of hypoxia.

A

Hypoxic: lack of oxygen absorbed due to pressure decrease

Hypemic: blood can’t carry oxygen to cells → CO poisoning

Stagnant: poor blood circulation, from pulling Gs or too cold, can cause hyperventilation

Histotoxic: inability to use oxygen, from alcohol/drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Headache
drowsiness
numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do you recover from Hypoxia?

A

Descend below 10k ft, slow breathing rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

Rapid breathing, inhaling O2 and CO2

58
Q

What would cause one to hyperventilate?

A

Anxiety
panic
stagnant hypoxia

59
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

A

Anxious
trouble breathing
racing heartbeat

60
Q

How do you recover from hyperventilation?

A

Breath in paper bag

slow breathing

61
Q

What can spatial disorientation lead to?

A

Vestibular illusions, loss of control and CFIT

62
Q

What is Somatogravic Spatial Disorientation?

A

thinking linear acc/dec is climb/desc

63
Q

What is Somatogyral Spatial Disorientation?

A

not detecting mvmt/ perceiving mvmt in opp direction

64
Q

What is CFIT?

A

(Controlled flight into terrain) = PIC flies plane into obstacle without knowledge/recognition of danger until too late

65
Q

How can you avoid motion sickness?

A

start with shorter flights

avoid turbulence flights at first

66
Q

How does stress and fatigue affect piloting ability?

A

Adrenaline
Increased Blood Pressure
Too much stress
Decreased performance

67
Q

What are the types of stress and fatigue?

A

Acute (short term) and chronic (long term) stress
Fatigue = physiological stress. → acute, chronic and skill

Acute triggers flight or flight response. Can be beneficial.
Chronic is never beneficial.

68
Q

What is the PAVE checklist.

A

Personal Minimums Checklist: to help ensure our bodies are in good condition to fly

P - Pilot
A - Aircraft
En - V - ironment
E - External Pressures

69
Q

What is the IMSAFE checklist.

A

Personal Minimums Checklist: to help ensure our bodies are in good condition to fly

I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Emotion
70
Q

How does alcohol affect flying? For how long? For what BAC?

A

Impaired judgment and perception
Impaired coordination and motor control, etc.

How many hours: Up to 8 hours
Blood alcohol content: Less than 0.04

71
Q

Who should I consult if I start taking a new prescription drug to ensure it is approved for flying?

A

Primary care physician or AME (aviation medical examiner)

72
Q

How long should you wait to fly after scuba diving?

A

Flight alts 8,000ft and below: At Least 12 hours

8,000ft and above or controlled ascent: At least 24 hours

73
Q

What happens if you do not wait to fly after scuba diving?

A

DCS (decompression sickness)

74
Q

How does our vision change with night flying?

A

Scotopic Vision → blind spot directly in center of vision

75
Q

How does our scan change in night flying?

A

30 deg sectors for 2-3 sec, overlap each 10 deg

76
Q

How long does it take to adapt to night vision?

A

30 mins

77
Q

What personal equipment should you bring on a night flight?

A

red/green flashlight (cockpit)
white flashlight (preflight)
Extra batteries
Spare Radio

78
Q

Why a red or green flashlight?

A

Has less of an effect on your eyes, takes less time to readjust

79
Q

How would you pick a place to land at night?

A

Highways, pre-identified before the flight

80
Q

What illusions can occur at night?

A

Somatogravic acceleration on takeoff
Belief that the nose is too high

Black hole approach: Water or unlit terrain, may think the runway is tilted left and upsloping
False Horizon: Orienting yourself to ground lights
Flicker vertigo: Blinking light causing nausea

81
Q

Do you have to file a VFR flight plan?

A

You do not need to file a VFR flight plan

Class C or B airports may require this to fly out of them

82
Q

How do you open/close a VFR flight plan?

A

By calling the Flight Service Station (FSS)

This can also be filed on Foreflight

83
Q

What is Vr?

A

(Rotation Speed): 60 mph

84
Q

What is Vx?

A

(Best Angle of Climb): 68 mph

85
Q

What is Vy?

A

(Best Rate of Climb): 80 mph

86
Q

What is Vs?

A

(Stall Speed Clean): 57 mph

87
Q

What is Vso?

A

(Stall Speed in Landing Configuration): 49 mph

Note: As weight decreases, stall speed will also decrease

88
Q

What is Va?

A

(Max Gross Weight Maneuvering Speed): 112 mph

89
Q

What is Vno?

A

(Max Structural Cruising Speed): 145 mph

90
Q

What is Vne?

A

(Never Exceed Speed): 189 mph

91
Q

What is Vfe?

A

(Max Flap Extended Speed): 100 mph

92
Q

What is Vglide?

A

(Best Glide Speed): 80 mph

93
Q

What does LAHSO stand for and do you have to participate in it?

A

Land And Hold Short Operations

No

94
Q

What are FDC NOTAMS?

A

(Notice to Airman)
Flight Data Center
TFR (Temporary Flight Restriction) is an FDC NOTAM
Regulating in nature

95
Q

What are the Oxygen Altitude Regulations?

A

12,500 - Pilots must wear oxygen if above for >30 min
14,000 - Pilots are required to have oxygen at all times
15,000 - Passengers must be provided oxygen

96
Q

What is the Service Ceiling for C-172M?

A

13,100 ft

97
Q

What is the pilot’s bill of rights? Where can you find it?

A

The FAA must notify you if they are suspending your license. Gives you a chance to refute it.
Can be found in the front of the FAR/AIM

98
Q

What is your indicated altitude?

A

What the altimeter reads

99
Q

What is your true altitude and how do you get it?

A

Height of the airplane above the mean sea level (MSL)

True Altitude = Indicated Altitude + (ISA Deviation × 4/1000 × Indicated Altitude)

100
Q

What is your pressure altitude?

A

True altitude corrected for a non-standard atmosphere

Barometric pressure set to 29.92

101
Q

What is your density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for a non-standard temperature

102
Q

What is your absolute altitude?

A

Height of the airplane above the ground level (AGL)

103
Q

What is your IAS?

A

Indicated Air Speed - what the airspeed indicator reads (from pitot tube)

104
Q

What is your CAS?

A

Calibrated Air Speed - IAS corrected for instrument/positional errors

105
Q

What is your TAS?

A

True Air Speed - Speed of the aircraft relative to the speed of the air
Higher alt = less dense = less molecules entering pitot tube = IAS is underestimating TAS
Accounts for outside air temp

106
Q

What is your GS?

A

Ground Speed - speed of aircraft relative to the ground. TAS corrected for wind speed.

107
Q

How do you get calibrated Airspeed?

A

Calibration chart of the aircraft manual

108
Q

How do you get True Airspeed?

A

Add 2% to the CAS for each 1,000 ft of altitude

109
Q

What is a spin?

A

One wing is more stalled than the other, nose down

110
Q

What is your airspeed in a spin?

A

Very slow

111
Q

Which wing is stalled in a spin? Why?

A

Both, but the one in the direction of the spin is more stalled as it has more drag

112
Q

How do you recover from a spin?

A
(PARE)
Power Idle
Ailerons neutral
Rudder opposite of spin
Elevator forward
113
Q

What is your airspeed in a spiral?

A

Fast

114
Q

Which wing is stalled in a spiral?

A

Neither

115
Q

How do you recover from a spiral?

A

Power Idle
Ailerons neutral
Elevator backwards
Apply power once airspeed is reduced

116
Q

How would you get yourself into a spiral?

A

Pulling up without leveling wings

117
Q

What is an advisory circular?

A

FAA documents/rules but not for the aircraft itself.

Ex. Must turn crosswind w/in 300 ft of downwind altitude

118
Q

What is a NASA report?

A

Immunity for violating FAA regulations inadvertently → no punishment but still on your record
Must report w/in 10 days
Can’t use the immunity twice in 5 years

**not guaranteed but likely

119
Q

Can you fly through a Prohibited Area?

A

Not without prior coordinated permission

120
Q

Can you fly through a MOA?

A

Yes

121
Q

Can you fly through Restricted Area?

A

Not without prior coordinated permission

122
Q

How do you overtake another aircraft?

A

Alter your course to the right

123
Q

How do you get Special VFR and what are the requirements?

A

Request from the control or approach tower
Requirements:
Min: 1,000 ft ceiling, 3 mi visibility
Must be an IFR pilot

124
Q

What do the following transponder codes mean? 7500, 7600, 7700, 1200, 7777

A
7500 - Hijacked aircraft
7600 - Coms failure
7700 - Aircraft in emergency
1200 - VFR
7777 - Military Intercept
125
Q

Guard:
What is the guard frequency?
What happens on it?
When are you required to monitor it?

A

121.5
Emergency frequency
Always required to monitor it if you have 2 radios

126
Q

What Flight Service Frequencies: weather en route options do you have?

A
  1. 1 - VOR

122. 2/122.3 - Flight service station

127
Q

What do you do when there is an Engine Fire during Start?

A

Continue cranking the engine, idle for 1-2 mins, shut down engine. If it doesn’t start, stop and extinguish the fire.

128
Q

What do you do when there is an Engine Fire during Flight?

A

Throttle to idle cutoff, fuel selector to off, shut off cabin heat. If fire is not extinguished, rapid decent. Land immediately.

129
Q

What do you do when there is High oil pressure/low oil Temp?

A

Start descending, land

130
Q

What do you do when there is High oil pressure/high oil Temp?

A

Decrease RPM, descend and land

131
Q

What do you do when there is Loss of Suction Gauge?

A

Start descending, land

132
Q

What do you do when there is a loss of the Alternator?

A

VFR = no big deal, magnetos continue to spark. Shut off all non-essential equipment. Still should land at the nearest airport.

133
Q

What do you do when there is an Electrical Fire during flight?

A

Turn off the master switch. Use an extinguisher if necessary. Check circuit breakers. Turn on electronics one by one to identify the cause. Land at the nearest airport. If possible, call ATC, squawk 7700 and IDENT.

134
Q

Loss of Engine - are you concerned with landing downwind?

A

No

135
Q

What does the pitot tube do?

A

Measures the stagnation pressure

Affects airspeed indicator

136
Q

What does the static system do?

A

Measures the gauge pressure

Affects airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator and altimeter

137
Q

What does the Vacuum System do?

A

Uses suction to spin the gyroscopes

Affects the turn coordinator, attitude indicator and the heading indicator

138
Q

What does the DC Electric system do?

A

Runs off the engine to supply continuous energy to the electrical system. Charges the battery while the engine is running.
Affects the turn coordinator.

139
Q

Line Under Frequency means code:

A

VOR

140
Q

What are the VFR Fuel Minimums?

A

Day: +30 mins past destination
Night: +45 mins past destination

141
Q

What is wake turbulence?

A

Wingtip vortices caused by pressure differentials from an aircraft producing lift

142
Q

What are the procedures to avoid wake turbulence?

A

Landing: stay at or above the previous plane’s flight path

Taking off: Rotate prior to the previous plane’s rotation point