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SET 5 (Roent, Oral Diagnosis & Oral Surgery) > Oral Surgery (dockeno) > Flashcards

Oral Surgery (dockeno) Flashcards

1
Q

extra-oral skin incision

A

10

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2
Q

stabbing (incision & drainage)

A

11

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3
Q

distal areas (w/ Hook)

A

12

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4
Q

major organ for hemostasis

A

Liver

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5
Q

Most common problems hemostasis

A

Loss of visibility

Formation of hematomas

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6
Q

Major problems

A

Hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock

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7
Q

to check the viscosity of the blood

A

INR

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8
Q

What test is required for px with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

A

FBS

HbA1c

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9
Q

What test is required for patient taking ASPIRIN

A

BUN & Creatinine

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10
Q

small vessels will last for

A

20-30 sec.

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11
Q

Large vessels will last for

A

5-10mins

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12
Q

Use of heat of end of cut vessel

A

Mosquito Hemostat

Electrocautery

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13
Q

best method to control bleeding

A

Surgicel

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14
Q

WOUND REPAIR

A
  1. Inflammatory Stage
  2. Fibroplastic (Proliferative ) Stage
  3. Remodeling Stage ( Wound Maturation)
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15
Q

begins the moment tissue injury occurs (2-5 days)

EVENT: Fibrin formation occurs

A

Inflammatory Stage

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16
Q

insoluble protein formed from FIBRNOGEN during the clotting of blood.
It forms a fibrous mesh that impedes the flow of the blood

A

Fibrin

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17
Q 
last for 2 days to 3weeks
Events: 
*Granulatiom tissue formation occurs
*Fibrinolysis happens via PLASMIn
* Fibronectin formation
A

Fibroplastic ( Proliferative) Stage

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18
Q

What are the components of granulation tissue?

A

Cells & Proliferative Capillaries

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19
Q

How many days after injury does fibroblast arrive in the wound

A

2-5:days

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20
Q

where collagen fibers are being replaced by a new collagen which are oriented to better resist tensile force on the wound.
Keloid & scar can form under this stage

A

Remodeling stage (Wound Maturation)

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21
Q

most important proteins

A

Elastin

Collagen

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22
Q

Other name of Scar

A

Cicatrix

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23
Q

oral cavity has the highest chance to form SCAR?

A

Labial frenum

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24
Q

1st type collagen arrived in wound healing

A

Type III- Reticular

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25
Q

Most abundant collagen present in wound healing

A
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26
Q

NO tissue loss are placed & stabilized in essentially the same anatomic position they held before injury
Ex. Well repaired, well-reduced bone fractures, odontectomy

A

Primary Intention

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27
Q

gap between the edges of an incision or between bone or nerve ends after repair
Ex. Extraction socket, poorely reduced fractures, deep ulcer, & large avulsed injuries

A

Secondary Intention

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28
Q

when healing of wounds through the use of tissue grafts in large wound healing by secondary intention

A

Tertiary Intention

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29
Q

It is concussion of nerve only. This is least severe
Degeneration: None
Regeneration: 1-1.5mm per day

A

Neuropraxia

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30
Q

damaged epineural sheat but not axon
Sign: Paresthesia
Degeneration: Segmental Demyelination
Regeneration: Axonal regeneratiom

A

Axonotmesis

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31
Q

complete loss of nerve continuity. Most severe

Degeneration: Wallerian Degeneration

A

Neurometmesis

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32
Q

It is a disintegration of the distal part of the nerve via phagocytosis
Regeneration: None

A

Wallerian Degeneration

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33
Q

Best time to removed impacted tooth

A

2/3 of the root is formed

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34
Q

worst time

A

completed root formation

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35
Q

least difficult

A

MA

VA

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36
Q

Most difficult

A

DA

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37
Q

A severe MA which requires bone removal & tooth sectioning

A

Horizontal

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38
Q

Lower 3rd

easiest to hardest

A

MA- Horizontal- Vertical - DA

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39
Q

Upper 3rd

A

DA- Vertical- Horizontal- MA

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40
Q

it the crowm is completely ant. to the ABR

A

Class I

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41
Q

approximately 1/2 of the crowm covered by ramus

A

Class II

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42
Q

tooth located completely in to the ramus

A

Class III

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43
Q

nearly to the occlusal plane of the adjacent molar

A

Class A

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44
Q

between the occlusal plane & cervical line of the adjacent molar

A

Class B

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45
Q

below the cervical line of the adjacent molar

A

Class C

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46
Q

assess the position of the impacted lower tooth

A

WAR lines

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47
Q

refers to the highest point pf impacted relation to adjacent tooth

A

White line

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48
Q

refers to the portion of impacted exposed to extenal oblique ridge

A

Amber Line

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49
Q

level of access for elevating the impacted

A

Red line

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50
Q

Pre-surgical Procedures

A
  1. Scrub technique
  2. Surgical Drapping
  3. Eye Patch (pads)
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51
Q

The most commonly used flap is ____ with the use of ___ for the initial incision in mand. impacted tooth
while_____ for the initial incision in Max. impacted teeth

A 
Envelope flap
# blade15
# blade 12
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52
Q

It is used for reflecting the flap

A 
Mucoperiosteal Elevator (MPE) 
aka. Molt No. 9
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53
Q

mostly used for flap retractors

A

Austin & Minnesota

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54
Q

3 Principles of Elevator

A
  1. Lever
  2. Wedge
  3. Wheel & Axle
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55
Q

most common principles of elevator

A

Lever

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56
Q

when using crossbar but it causes most trauma or fracture

A

Wheel & Axle

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57
Q

Main fx of suturing

A

To stabilize the flap

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58
Q

Most common suturing technique

A

Interrupted

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59
Q

Most commonly used suturing material

A

Silk 3.0

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60
Q

Imp. primary teeth extractiom

A

Palatal Force

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61
Q

Most common post - operative condition

A

Pain & Edema

1-2wks

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62
Q

Most common surgical complication

A

Root displacement

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63
Q

2-3mm displaced tooth

A

Minimal attempt or you can leave it in place

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64
Q

If large root fragment-if in the sinus do

A

Caldwell- luc approach

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65
Q

Used to elevate root tip

A

Cryer

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66
Q

Impacted Maxillary 3rd Molar

A

Infratemporal Space

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67
Q

Impacted Mandibular 3rd moladr

A

Submandibular

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68
Q

perforation of the sinus in the socket

A

Oro-antral Communicatiom

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69
Q 
Oro-antral communication
small opening (2mm)
A

No tx

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70
Q

Medium opening (2-6mm)

A

Figure of 8 suture without Gel Foam

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71
Q

Large opening (>7mm)

A

Pedicle or Berger’s Flap

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72
Q

done when suturing the wound under tension or too tight

A

Wound Dehiscence

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73
Q

most common area to have dehiscence

A

Internal Oblique Ridge

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74
Q

most common complication of traumatic tooth extraction.

Develops 3rd-4th day result high levels of fibrinolytic activity due to TRAUMA

A

Dry Socket (Alveolar Osteitis)

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75
Q

Mosf common complain Dry socket

A

Pain & Fetid odor

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76
Q

Tx of Dry socket

A

Eugenol
Benzocaine
Balsam of Peru

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77
Q

area that remains devoid of tissue after closure of the wound

A

Dead space

78
Q

Most accurate way check temp./ fever

A

rectal

79
Q

least accurate

A

Axilla

80
Q

Most common cause of hypoglycemia atteck in clinic

A

Px. skip breakfast

81
Q

Suppressing Drugs

A

Alkylating agents
Antimetabolites
Cyclosporine A
Steroids

82
Q

they keep the cell from reproducimg by damaging its DNA

A

Alkylating Agents

83
Q

It interfere with DNA & RNA growth (Fluorouracil)

A

Antimetabolites

84
Q

Mild cellulitis

A

Massive antibiotic

85
Q

Severe Cellulitis

A

I&D with massive antibiotic

86
Q

I&D with massive antibiotic

A

Abscess

87
Q

used to drain abscess without damaging the neurovascular tissue with the use of LISTER SINUS FORCEPS

A

Hilton’s Method

88
Q

caused by Aerobic

A

Cellulitis

89
Q

caused by Anaerobic

A

Abscess

90
Q

Antibiotic of choice in cellulitis

A

Pen VK

91
Q

If caused by staphylococcus?

A

Cephalexin

92
Q

Most common cause of failure in tx abscess

A

Wrong choice of antibiotic

93
Q

Done first before prescribing antibiotic for abscess

A

Culture test

94
Q

Inflammatiom of operculum

A

Pericoronitis

95
Q

Pericoronits is more common in

A

Lower caused by trauma

96
Q

What is the cause of pericoronitis

A

Max. 3rd molars

97
Q

Tx. Pericoronitis

A

Operculectomy

Removal of 3rd molar

98
Q

Most common sign of ESRD

A

Uremia
CC: Metallic taste
Best time if dialysis= 1 day after dialysis

99
Q

Drug should be avoided with ESRD

A

NSAIDs
Meperidine
Morphine
Acetaminophen

100
Q

Uncontrolled DM

Most common concern due to the drugs that they are takin

A

Hypoglycemia

101
Q

Suppressing Diseases

A

Leukemia
Lymphoma
Malignant Tumors

102
Q

Effective Orally Administered antibiotics useful for odontogenic infections

A
  1. Penicillin
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Cephalexin
  5. Metronidazole
  6. Tetracycline
103
Q

inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillin

104
Q

if allergic to penicillin

A

Erythromycin

105
Q

1st choice if caused by Actinomycosis Infection

A

Clindamycin

Pseudomembranous Colitis

106
Q

best antibiotic for anaerobic infection

A

Metronidazole

107
Q

kill all except. Streptococcus

A

Tetracycline

108
Q

Px. who are required to take prophylaxis

A

SBE
ABE
RHD
Artrial Septal Defect

109
Q

affect mitral valve

A

SBE

110
Q

Staph. aureus affect tricuspid valve

A

ABE

111
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis
to prevent Bacteria during overinstrumentations & multiple extraction
All layer of ❤️ infected - mitral valve

A

RHD

112
Q

Most required antibiotic prophylaxis

A

Atrial Septel Defect

113
Q

Adult
Amox:
Clindamycin

A

1-2g

600mg

114
Q

Children
Amoxcillin
Clindamycin

A

50mg/kg

20mg/kg

115
Q

Lifeline of the practice

A

RECALL

116
Q

A thin potential space between the Levaror Anguli Oris (Caninus) & Levator labii superioris alaque nase muscles.
Most dangerous space infection

A

Canine Space

117
Q

result from the superior spreas of infections via hematogenous route of CANINE SPACE INFECTION

A

CST

118
Q

Anterior Boundaries of CST

A
  1. Superior & Inferior Opthalmic veins
  2. Drains into FACIAL VEIN
  3. Angular Vein
119
Q

Posterior Boundaries of CST

A
  1. Pterygoid Plexus of veins

2. Emissary Veins

120
Q

swelling below the zygomatic arch & above the imferior border of the mamdible
Cause: Maxillary > Mand. molars infections

A

Buccal Space

121
Q

Important structures of Buccal Space

A

Buccal fat pad
Stensen’s duct
Facial artery

122
Q

space lies posterior to the maxilla ; bounded mesially by the lateral plate of the pterygoid process & superiorly by the base of the skull. It can also result to CST but infection spreads via PTerygoid Plexus Of Veins

A

Infratemporal Space

123
Q

Primary Mandibular Space

A
  1. Submental
  2. Sublingual
  3. Submandibular
124
Q

It is due to infection of molars that lies inferior to mylohyoid
Imp. structures: Facial & Hypoglossal nerves

A

Submandibular (Submaxillary)

125
Q

Bilateral indurated swelling of submental, submandibular & sublimgual spaces caused by Streptococcal infections

A

Ludwig’s Angina

126
Q

Clinical Appearance of Ludwig’s Angina
Primary concern:
Standard Airway:

A

Elevated & displaced tongue
Breathing
Cricothyrotomy

127
Q

Palpable soft tissue that appears HArd & dense

A

Induration

128
Q

movable mass & compressible that appears soft

ex. Pus

A

Fluctuant

129
Q

infection from buccal space & mand. 3rd molar with pericoronitis

A

Masseteric Space

130
Q

infection from submandibular & sublingual spaces
Nerves: Mental, Lingual, Inferior Alveolar, Auriculotemporal & Mylohyoid (Branches of Mand. Nerve)
Incision: Buccinator

A

Pterygomandibular Space

131
Q

When infection is severe which gives DUMB- BELL Appearance

A

Temporalis Space

132
Q

when masseteric, pterygomandibular & temporalis are taken as a group
Trismus is very common

A

Masticator Space

133
Q

Due to infected mand. 3rd molar, tonsillar infections, pharyngitis & parotitis
Pathognomonic sign: Hot potato voice

A

Lateral Pharyngeal Space

134
Q

Deep Neck Space Infection

A
  1. Prevertebral space
  2. Visceral Vascular Space
  3. Retropharyngeal Space
135
Q

1st paranasal sinus developed. It is lined with Pseudostratified Columnar Ciliated with goblet cells

A

Maxillary Sinus (Antrum of Higmore)

136
Q

It involves non-vital teeth

A

Odontogenic Sinusitis

137
Q

Odontogenic sinusis tx

A

Antibiotic 10-14 days
(co-amox or ampicillin)
caldwell - luc procedure

138
Q

What are the causative agents of sinusitis

A

Strep. Pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Moraxella Catarrhalis

139
Q

Location drainage of max. sinusitis

A

Frontal
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Max. sinus

140
Q

Diagnostic Tool

A
  1. Sialography
  2. Sialodochitis
  3. Sialodenitis
  4. Sialodendoscopy
141
Q

gold standard in diagnostic salivary gland radiology that aids in detection of radiopaque stone (Sialolith)

A

Sialography

142
Q

dilation of salivary duct “sausage like” pattern used to diagnose sialolith

A

Sialodochitis

143
Q

Inflammation of acino-parenchyma of the gland. It is a PRE-CANCEROUS lesion

A

Sialodenitis

144
Q

Most common malignancy of major salivary glands?

A

MEC?

145
Q

Most common malignancy of minor salivary glands?

A

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

146
Q

Which gland is most commonly affected with diseases?

A

Adrenal Gland?

147
Q

Indications of Enucleation

A

Unilocular rdl
Asymptomatic
Less than 1-cm cystic lesion

148
Q

Removal of 1-2mm of bone around the entire periphery of the cyst cavity after doing enucleation. It is used for very benign type of lesions
Objective: To prevent recurrence

A

Enucleation w/ curettage

149
Q

Total removal of a cystic lesion WITH ruptured cystic lining
Main tx for OKC
Indication: Multilocular RDL

A

Curettage

150
Q

Multilocular rdl DOAVO

A 
Dentigerous Cyst
Odontogenic Keratocyst
Ameloblastoma
Vascular Malformation
Odontogenic Myxoma
151
Q

creating a surgical window in the wall of the cyst & lining of the cyst if Left in situ
Obj. To spare vital structure from damage
Indication- Larger than 1cm cystic lesion
Symptomatic

A

Marsupialization (Partsch I technique / Decompression)

152
Q

Combination of marsupialization with enucleation

A

Waldron’s Technique ( Partsch II Technique)

153
Q

mainly indicated in Ameloblastoma & CEOT (Pindborg tumor)

A

Resection

154
Q

prevent cells from multiplying

A

Radiotherapy

155
Q

Most common imfection in radiotherapy

A

Osteoradionecrosis?

156
Q

Major adverse effect of radiation in the oral cavity

A

Xerostomia ( Dry mouth)

157
Q

most common facial fracture. Repairing 7-10 days

A

Nasal

158
Q

2nd most common facial fracture

A

Mandible
Condyle
Angle
Symphysis

159
Q

Bucket Handle Appearance

A

Bilateral fracture of symphysis

160
Q

Most common sign of mandibular fracture

A

Malocclusion

161
Q

Most common sign of malignancy in mandible

A

Paresthesia

162
Q

Muscle involved in displaced in mand. fracture

A

Mylohyoid

Ant. Belly of Digastric

163
Q

Midface Fractures

A

Le Fort I / Floating Jaw
Le Fort II / Pyramidal Fracture
Le Fort III / Dish face

164
Q

Guerin sign an ecchymosis found in buccal mucosa & palTal areas

A

Guerin Sign

Le Fort I

165
Q

separation of maxilla & attached nasal complex from the orbital & zygomatic structures

A

Le Fort II (Pyramidal Fracture)

166
Q

Dish face

A

Le Fort III

167
Q

most common midface fracture

A

Zygomatic Complex fracture

168
Q

Symptom:
Radiographic tx.
of Zygmatic Complex Fracture / Tripod fracture

A

Infraorbital nerve paresthesia

Submentovertex / Jug handle view

169
Q

Most severe fracture

A

Le Fort III / Tranverse / Craniofacial Dysostosis

170
Q

Radiographic technique is recommende for LE FORT midface fractures

A

Submento Vertex / Jughandle

171
Q

Best tool to diagnose midface fracture

A

CT scan

172
Q

Blow in fracture

A

inward fractue w/ orbital rim

173
Q

Types of Fractures

A
  1. Greenstick ( Bamboo)
  2. Simple (Closed fracture)
  3. Compound (Open fracture)
  4. Comminuted
174
Q

incomplete fracture where one side of the bone is broken & other is bent.
Most common fracture children
Tx.

A

Greenstick (Bamboo)

Bringing teeth normal occlusion with interdental wiring

175
Q

complete transection of the bone with minimal fragmentation

A

Simple (closed fracture)

176
Q

results in communication with the external environment of the oral cavity. Most common to have infection

A

Compound (Open fracture)

177
Q

left on multiple segments. Most common to have blockage in breathing
Ex. Gunshot wound

A

Comminuted

178
Q

Radial pulse

A

Adult

179
Q

Carotid pulse

A

children

180
Q

most common hereditary orofacial deformities

A

Cleft lip & Palate

181
Q

Rule of 10

A

10 wks
10 lbs
10 cc
10,000 wbc count

182
Q

Classification of Cleft by Veau

Soft palate cleft sith slight cleft in hard palate

A

Class I

183
Q

Soft palate cleft with hard palate cleft

A

Class II

184
Q

Unilateral complete soft, hard, alveolar & lip cleft

A

Class III

185
Q

Bilateral complete soft, hard, alveolar & lip cleft

A

Class IV

186
Q

those who refuse surgical approach

A

Obturator

187
Q

retained for 3-4 month post surgically for complete wound healing

A

Surgical Obturator

188
Q

Types of Computed Tomography

A
  1. SPECT- Single Photon Emission Computerized Tomography
  2. Positron Emission Tomography
  3. Cone Beam CR
189
Q

used to determine active areas of bone metabolism. It is done after Nuclear Imaging

A

SPECT

190
Q

how the organs & tissues inside your body are actually working

A

PET

Positron Emission Tomography

191
Q

assess the density & dimension of the bome

A

Cone Beam CT

SET 5 (Roent, Oral Diagnosis & Oral Surgery) (4 decks)

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