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Flight Safety EMB-145/ Legacy Oral Questions > Oral Questions > Flashcards

Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the aircraft dimensions

A

EMB-145: Legacy:
Wingspan 65’9” 68’11”
Tail 22’2” 22’2”
Length 98’ 86’5”

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2
Q

Which Cockpit windows are removable

A

DV Windows

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3
Q

How do you know if a cockpit window is not locked

A

Yellow pin will protrude

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4
Q

Which cockpit windows are heated

A

Windshield

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5
Q

Where are the fuel tanks located

A

All Aircraft: Wings
Legacy 600/650: +FWD Fuselage and Aft Fuselage
Legacy 650: +Ventral Tanks

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6
Q

What are two ways the pilot seat height can be adjusted

A

Electrically

Mechanically with hand crank

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7
Q

Where is the emergency evacuation checklist

A

Back of the QRH

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8
Q

How is the main door raised

A

Hydraulically via HYD Sys 1

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9
Q

How many times can the accumulator raise the main door

A

EMB 145: 4 times

Legacys: 3 times

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10
Q

What is the maximum number of people standing on the main door stairs

A

3

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11
Q

Name the doors on the T/O page of the MFD

A 
Main Door
Emergency Exit (right side only on Legacy aircraft)
Baggage Door 
Refueling Panel 
Under Cockpit Access Hatch, 
Fwd Electronics Compartment 
Rear Electronics Compartment 
Baggage Access Door (Legacy only)
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12
Q

What color are the indications when doors are closed? open?

A

Red; Green

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13
Q

When will you get the MAIN DOOR OPEN warning on the EICAS?

A

Main door open with #1 engine running

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14
Q

When will you get the SERVICE DOOR OPEN warning on the EICAS

A

Svc Door open with # 2 engine running

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15
Q

What does ACCESS DOOR OPEN mean

A

Either or all: under cockpit access, refueling panel access or rear electronics compartment access door is/ are open

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16
Q

What surface moves when you use the pitch trim?

A

Horizontal Stabilizer

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17
Q

Where are the emergency exits

A

Left and Right side of the fuselage (right side only on the Legacy aircraft)

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18
Q

What does a BLOCKED indication on the FA panel mean?

A

Hydraulic line is pressurized after closing the main door

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19
Q

How many degrees turn do you get with the tiller? With the rudder pedals? Total?

A

71 +5 =76

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20
Q

Name the 5 major CRT/ LCD screens in the cockpit

A

2 PFDs
2 MFDs
1 EICAS

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21
Q

Where are the circuit breaker panels in the cockpit?

A

Overhead and behind each pilot seat

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22
Q

Why is there a vent panel on the baggage door?

A

Allows opening of the door if residual pressurization remains on the aircraft.

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23
Q

How many smoke detectors are in the baggage compartment?

A

2

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24
Q

Where are the cockpit flashlights located?

A

1 behind the captains head

1 by the FO right leg

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25
Q

Where is the ELT located

A

Captain side fwd console

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26
Q

How is the nosewheel steering disconnected for towing

A

disconnect the locking pin and guide pin

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27
Q

What should you do if leaving the airplane overnight in cold temps?

A

Drain Water Tanks, Galley Lines, Coffee maker
Remove Batteries if under -15 deg C
Put Chocks against landing gear
If ramp is ICY apply parking brake (leave brake off if not ICY to avoid brake freezing).

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28
Q

What does the STOP REFUELING light mean on the refueling panel

A

airplane is energized with refueling panel open.

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29
Q

How is brake wear checked?

A

Check the brake wear indicators between the wheels on the main landing gear

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30
Q

Where can external air conditioning be applied to the aircraft?

A

A/C connection fwd underside of the fuselage

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31
Q

How is the refueling panel powered?

A

Hot battery bus 1

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32
Q

Where is the refueling panel located?

A

forward right side

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33
Q

What is the max quantity of Hydraulic Fluid?

A

5.5 litres

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34
Q

What are the power sources for the 5 main screens?

A

PFD 1 and MFD 2: DC1
MFD 1 and PFD 2: DC2
RMU 1 and EICAS: ESS 1
RMU 2: ESS 2

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35
Q

What areas does DAU 1 collect Data from?

A

1 engine and fwd systems

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36
Q

How many channels are in each DAU

A

2 channels (A and B)

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37
Q

If DAU 1(A) fails, what would you do?

A

Nothing, the system will go to the backup channel

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38
Q

If DAU 1(B) fails, what would you do?

A

Revert to DAU 2

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39
Q

What does an IC-600 do?

A

takes the information from the DAU(s) and turns it into the symbols we see on the screens

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40
Q

Which IC600 normally displays the EICAS

A

1

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41
Q

What would and IC-600 #1 failure look like?

A

Red X on PFD 1, MFD 1 and EICAS

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42
Q

What would and IC-600 #1 failure look like?

A

Red X on PFD 1, MFD 1 and EICAS

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43
Q

How would you know if the Aural warning unit is functioning properly?

A

You get an “Aural Units OK” on power up.

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44
Q

How many channels are on the AWU?

A

2 channels (A&B)

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45
Q

What does the takeoff configuration warning check for?

A
  • Parking Brake released
  • Flaps set for Takeoff (9 or 18 deg)
  • Spoilers stowed
  • Pitch Trim (4-8 deg up in the green)
  • Aux tank system knob not in the “off” position (Legacy only)
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46
Q

When should the SPS be tested

A

Prior to each leg

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47
Q

How would you know if the SPS test failed?

A

Test button remains illuminated

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48
Q

What does a white stripe in a button indicate?

A

In most cases this is not a position normal for flight

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49
Q

What does it mean if you see a red X on the screen?

A

IC-600 failed

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50
Q

What messages would you see if you push the SG button on the reversion panel

A

The ADC, ATT and MAG indications are displayed as well as the SG1 and SG2 annunciator to the left of the attitude sphere on both PFDs

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51
Q

What are the 3 colors of EICAS messages

A

Cyan - Advisory
Amber - Caution
Red - Warning

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52
Q

What order are messages presented on the EICAS?

A

By group priority (red, amber, cyan) and then by recency withing the group.

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53
Q

What order are messages presented on the EICAS?

A

By group priority (red, amber, cyan) and then by recency withing the group.

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54
Q

Why should you set the flight number on the Captains Clock?

A

This sets the FDR

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55
Q

How is forced standby mode of the radar overidden on the ground

A

Push the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.

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56
Q

What is Pitot Static 3 used for?

A

1) Standby IAS
2) Standby ALT
3) CPAM

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57
Q

What is Pitot Static 3 used for?

A

1) Standby IAS
2) Standby ALT
3) CPAM

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58
Q

if RMU#2 fails, how can COM2 and NAV2 be tuned?

A

Using the TBCH

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59
Q

What controls the electrical system

A

EDL

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60
Q

How many main batteries are there? Voltage and Type?

A

Two 24 volt NICAD batteries

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61
Q

What is the purpose, voltage and type of the backup battery?

A

Purpose is to operate the GCUs. 24 volt lead acid battery.

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62
Q

How many generators are there?

A

5

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63
Q

Where would you read generator voltage?

A

Electrical Page of the MFD

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64
Q

How is the APU generator different than the engine driven generator.

A

1) It is a starter generator

2) Provides 400 amps up to 30,000’ and 300 amps above.

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65
Q

How is the APU generator different than the engine driven generator.

A

1) It is a starter generator

2) Provides 400 amps up to 30,000’ and 300 amps above.

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66
Q

How many generators are needed to power all Buses in flight?

A

3 or more

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67
Q

Which buses are powered with only one Generator in flight?

A

All except the SHED buses.

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68
Q

Will the SHED bus over-ride knob work in flight?

A

No, works on the ground only

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69
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?

A

23.5 volts (uses battery 2)

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70
Q

If below min. batt voltage, how would you start the APU?

A

Use GPU

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71
Q

At what voltage do batteries need to be removed and recharged?

A

19 volts or less

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72
Q

Which battery is used for APU start

A

2

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73
Q

Is the electrical system primarily AC or DC?

A

DC

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74
Q

Is the electrical system primarily AC or DC?

A

DC

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75
Q

Can the GPU charge the batteries?

A

No

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76
Q

How will you know if the GPU is plugged into the plane but not selected?

A

You will see “GPU Avail” inscription

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77
Q

When is the ground service bus powered?

A

When GPU is plugged in and you see the GPU Avail inscription.

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78
Q

Which buses are powered with battery power only on the Ground?
In the Air?

A

On the Ground: All except the SHED buses and ground service BUS
In the Air: Hot and Essential Buses only (Electrical Emergency).

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79
Q

How long will batteries provide power in an electrical emergency?

A

40 mins (to include 3 APU start attempts)

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80
Q

How long will batteries last with no generators on the ground?

A

15 mins

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81
Q

What protection is available with 4 or 5 generators but not with 3?

A

2 separate networks

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82
Q

What does the essential power button do?

A

Forces the aircraft into an electrical emergency by shedding all buses except HOT and Essential.

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83
Q

What does the essential power button do?

A

Forces the aircraft into an electrical emergency by shedding all buses except HOT and Essential.

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84
Q

What does the backup battery button on the electrical panel do?

A

When pushed in (normal) - connected to the electrical system.
When pushed out - removes it from the electrical system and prevents it from charging

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85
Q

What is the purpose of the Central DC bus?

A

Plug in point for the APU and GPU and connects the two networks when Gens fail or engines shut down.

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86
Q

What is the purpose of the Central DC bus?

A

Plug in point for the APU and GPU and connects the two networks when Gens fail or engines shut down.

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87
Q

What are the 3 lights on the nose gear?

A

1 landing light (left)

2 taxi lights (right) - Clear on top and corrugated on the bottom

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88
Q

Will the nose gear lights stay illuminated when the gear is retracted?

A

No

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89
Q

Should both Nav Lights on a wingtip be illuminated?

A

No

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90
Q

What can you do if one Nav light is burned out?

A

Opposite set can be used by using the NAV LT switch on the maintenance panel behind the captains seat.

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91
Q

Which bus are the taxi lights on?

A

Shed bus.

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92
Q

When will the no smoking and fasten belts lights turn on automatically.

A

When pax O2 masks deploy and cabin pressure reaches 14,500 feet.

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93
Q

What powers the emergency lights?

A

2 dedicated batteries charged by the essential bus

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94
Q

Who can turn on the emergency lights?

A

Cockpit crew or flight attendant.

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95
Q

Who can turn on the emergency lights?

A

Cockpit crew or flight attendant.

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96
Q

What is on the accessory gear box?

A 
Hydraulic Pump 
Oil Pump 
PMA
FPMU
ATS
Generators (2)
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97
Q

What does a forced mixer do?

A

mixes the bypass air and core gas before it exits the engine and attenuates noise (muffler)

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98
Q

Where is air bled from the engine?

A

9th and 14th stage

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99
Q

What is the bypass ratio of the engine?

A

5 to 1

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100
Q

What controls the fuel for the engine

A

FPMU

101
Q

What is a CVG and what is its purpose?

A

Compressor Variable Geometry - optimizes efficiency and reduces the likelyhood of compressor stalls

102
Q

How many igniters on the engine?

A

2

103
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there?

A

16

104
Q

If the ignition is set to auto how many igniters will turn on during start on the ground? In flight?

A

1 and 1

105
Q

When would you turn the igniters to on?

A

Cold Start, Heavy Rain, Turbulence etc.

106
Q

When would you turn the igniters to OFF?

A

Dry Motoring

107
Q

How many fan blades are there?

A

24

108
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

With fuel via the FCOC

With air via the ACOC

109
Q

How is fuel warmed?

A

FCOC

110
Q

What is the max oil quantity

A

12 qts

111
Q

What is the min oil quantity for dispatch

A

8 qts

112
Q

What does the PMA do?

A
  • Powers the FADECs above 50% N2
  • Powers the ignition above 10% N2
  • Provides backup power for the thrust rating mode buttons
113
Q

What sources can provide air for engine start

A
  • APU bleed
  • Engine bleed (crossbleed)
  • External air cart (huffer)
114
Q

How many FADECs per engine?

A

2

115
Q

If taking off in ALT T/O-1 what will happen if the ATTCS is triggered?

A

provides T/O thrust

116
Q

What does N1 target mean?

A

“Blue T” - max thrust for a given rating mode, achieved with thrust levers in the thrust set detent

117
Q

What does N1 request mean?

A

“Green Bug” - N1 requested by a given thrust lever position.

118
Q

Where do you read which FADEC is in control?

A

to the left or right of the corresponding N1 gauge

119
Q

What do you look for to confirm a good start on the engine?

A

Normal acceleration of 1% per second and oil pressure at least 34 psi.

120
Q

Why do you reset/ ALTN FADECs after engine start?

A

Reset: Clears short term faults

ALTN - Alternates FADEC A and B

121
Q

How many locks are on the Thrust Reversers?

A

3
Primary - Electrical/ Hydraulic
Secondary - Electrical/ Hydraulic
Tertiary - Electrical/ Electrical

122
Q

What does the Amber REV on the EICAS mean

A

Reverser doors are in transit

123
Q

What does the Green REV on the EICAS mean

A

Reverser doors are fully deployed

124
Q

If single engine, how do you deploy the reverser after landing?

A

Inop engine thrust lever must be set to idle.

125
Q

What conditions must be met to apply max reverse?

A

1) Weight on mains plus 25 kts or

2) Weight on all three gear

126
Q

What will the FADEC do if a reverser is deployed in flight?

A

Command idle thrust to minimize the effects on the aircraft.

127
Q

How many fuel pumps are in the wings

A

3

128
Q

How will you know if a fuel pump fails?

A

Pressure will drop to below 6.5 psi and two other pumps will automatically turn on

129
Q

What is the total fuel capacity

A

EMB 145 LR: 11,434 lbs

Legacy 600: 18,356 lbs

130
Q

How is the collector box kept full of fuel?

A

Venturi style Ejector Pump and Flap Valves

131
Q

What is the purpose of the transfer ejector pump?

A

Keep the collector box full

132
Q

If all wing pumps fail, will the engines quit

A

No, there is the ability to suction feed up to 25,000 ft.

133
Q

How can fuel level be measured if the fuel quantity gauge is inoperative?

A

Direct Measuring Sticks (3 per tank)

134
Q

What are the power sources of the wing fuel pumps?

A

A pumps - On Side Essential
B pumps - Cross Side Essential
C pumps - On Side DC

135
Q

What happens when LOW 2 is selected on the fuel X-FEED

A

Engines and APU will draw fuel from the #1 (Left tank) only.

136
Q

Can you transfer fuel from one wing tank to the other?

A

No

137
Q

What are the differences between the engine driven hydraulic pump and the electric hydraulic pump?

A

1) Pressure - Eng pump output is 3000 psi and Elec is 2900 PSI
2) Volume - Eng pump has capability to output 10 times more volume than electric.

138
Q

What does pressing the ENG PUMP SHUTOFF button do?

A

Cuts off hydraulic fluid supply to the engine driven pump.

139
Q

When will the electric hydraulic pump turn on in AUTO mode?

A

When system pressure falls below 1600psi or if associated engine goes below 56.4% N2.

140
Q

Is the priority valve on system 1 or 2

A

System 1

141
Q

What is the priority valve used ?

A

In case of EDP failure, gives priority to the flight controls over the landing gear.

142
Q

What is the accumulator on system 1 used for?

A

Stores 3000 psi for raising of the landing gear and main cabin door (3 times on legacy, 4 times on 145s)

143
Q

What is the accumulator on system 2 used for?

A

Emergency parking brake (6 applications or hold for 24 hours)

144
Q

Where are the accumulators located?

A

System 1 - Forward right side HYD compartment (below FO seat

System 2 - Rear right side HYD compartment (trailing edge of wing)

145
Q

How is the hydraulic system pressurized

A

Engine Driven Pumps and Electric Motor Driven Pump.

146
Q

Where can you check the HYD system quantity

A

On the HYD page of the MFD

147
Q

What powers the ailerons

A

HYD system 1 and 2

148
Q

What powers the rudder

A

HYD system 1 and 2

149
Q

What powers the flaps

A

Electrical System

150
Q

What are the tabs on the elevator for?

A

Reduce pilot effort needed to overcome aerodynamic forces

151
Q

What is the difference between the spring tab and servo tab?

A

Spring Tab - Inner tab used in high speed flight

Servo Tab - Outer tab used in low speed flight

152
Q

When will spoilers deploy

A 
Low TLA (below 30 deg) or engines have failed. 
Weight on wheels and 25 kts
153
Q

When can you use speed brakes

A

Low TLA (below 50 deg)
Flaps 0-9 deg
Speed Brake Lever open

154
Q

Which Spoiler panels open in flight?

A

Outboard

155
Q

Which spoiler panels open on the ground?

A

All four boards

156
Q

What is rudder hardover protection

A

In case of runaway rudder, HYD pressure is removed if all the following conditions are met:

  • Both engines running
  • Rudder deflected more than 5 deg
  • At least 130 lbs of opposite force
157
Q

What does RUDDER OVERBOOST mean?

A

both rudder system actuators are pressures above 135 KIAS

158
Q

Can you reconnect flight controls in the air?

A

No

159
Q

What is the procedure for releasing the Gust lock?

A
  • Release to intermediate position for 10 secs (light goes out)
  • Lift lever and pull back on flight controls, move lever full forward
  • Check elevator movement (full back, full fwd, full back)
160
Q

How many pitch trim motors are there?

A

2

161
Q

If the CA and FO both hit their main trim switches, who has priority?

A

Capt.

162
Q

Does the main trim or backup trim have priority?

A

First come first serve

163
Q

When will the trim automatically cut out?

A

after 3 secs of continuous operation.

164
Q

Why is there a speed limitation for re-trimming on takeoff?

A

To avoid excessive loads on the horizontal stabilizer actuator (HSA).

165
Q

Can you trim with the autopilot engaged

A

No

166
Q

Where can you read pitch trim if the indications on the cockpit are inoperative?

A

At the leading edge of the Horizontal Stabilizer and Vertical Stabilizer.

167
Q

Which side is the artificial feel unit on?

A

FO side

168
Q

How does roll trim work?

A

re-positions neutral position of the ailerons

169
Q

How many flap motors are there?

A

2

170
Q

Do flap motors work together or one at a time?

A

together

171
Q

What prevents flap asymmetry?

A

Velocity sensors

172
Q

What does the quick disconnect button do

A

interrupts the electrical signal and disconnects all trim systems and inhibits stick pusher when pressed and held. If pressed momentarily it will disconnect the AP and YD.

173
Q

How can you disconnect an inadvertent stick pusher?

A

press and hold quick disconnect button

174
Q

What does SPS/ ICE SPEEDS mean?

A

Speeds to activate shaker and pusher increased to account for Icing conditions

175
Q

How do you clear the the SPS/ ICE SPEEDS message

A

Stall test on the ground

176
Q

What does SPS ADVANCED mean

A

Speeds to activate shaker and pusher increased to account for issues with Landing Gear, Flaps etc.

177
Q

What areas are heated with bleed air?

A

Wings, Horizontal Stab and Engine Lip

178
Q

What areas are heated electrically?

A
  • Windshields
  • Probes, Sensors, Static Ports
  • Water and Lav Drains
179
Q

How does the Ice Detector Work?

A

change in ultrasonic vibration frequency detects ice and sends a signal to open Ice Valves for 60 seconds. Heat is applied to the detector for 7 seconds to melt the ice and the cycle repeats.

180
Q

Can the APU bleed be used for Anti- Ice?

A

No

181
Q

How do you perform an Ice Test

A 
Engine Bleeds - Open 
Ice Detect Override Knob - All 
Thrust Levers - 83% N2
Ice Detection Test Knob - 1 then 2 (15 secs Max per side)
4 Open Inscriptions - check
182
Q

What EICAS messages should be presented after an Ice Test

A

Ice Det 1 (or 2) Fail
Ice Condition
BLD 1 (or 2) Low Temp
Cross Bleed Open (maybe)

183
Q

What does the Ice detection over-ride knob do?

A

AUTO - Turns on AI automatically only when ice is detected. Need 25 knots on the ground for wings and stab
ENG - Turns Engine AI on. Ice needs to be detected and at least 25 knots of speed is required for Wings and Stab
ALL - Turns AI on for Engine Wings and Stab (no detection needed). 25 knots still needed for Wings and Stab.

184
Q

What conditions must be met for the wing/stab anti-ice valves to open on the ground?

A

speed over 25 knots

185
Q

Can you turn the gasper fan off on the ground

A

No

186
Q

Can you turn the recirc fan off on the ground

A

Yes

187
Q

What cools the fwd avionics bay

A
  • NACA ducts with water separators
  • A pair of recirc fans that run as soon as the aircraft has DC power
  • a pair of thermostatically controlled exhaust fans turn on when internal temp exceeds 24 deg C
188
Q

What cools the AFT avionics bay

A
  • Gasper Fan on the ground

- Outflow air from pax cabin

189
Q

When will the XBLEED open if set to auto?

A
  • Anti Icing is on

- Crossbleed air is needed to start in engine (eng. #2 engine needs to be started with APU or ENG 1)

190
Q

How do you switch to manual mode for temp control?

A

Pull the knob out

191
Q

How will you know if there is a bleed leak?

A
  • Leak Inscription

- EICAS message

192
Q

What automatically happens when a massive leak is detected?

A

Associated EBV will be closed

193
Q

How will you know if the APU bleed valve is OPEN

A

Open inscription and white stripe

194
Q

When will the high stage valve (14th) open

A
  • Anti Ice On
  • Low TLA
  • Crossbleed Start
195
Q

What is the air bled off the fan used for?

A

Pre Cools the air from the compressor section

196
Q

Where does the left pack send air

A

Cockpit

197
Q

Where does the right pack send air

A

Passenger Compartment

198
Q

When will the ram air valves open

A

if both pack go off line

199
Q

Why might you turn XBLEED off?

A

Manually isolate bleed air in case of abnormal bleed operation.

200
Q

How does an air conditioning pack work?

A

Takes air from the compressor, runs it through heat exchangers, removes moisture with a condenser and then sends relatively cooler air to the cabin.

201
Q

If the Dump button is pressed in AUTO mode, what will the cabin altitude raise to?

A

The lower of 14,500’ or actual pressure alt.

202
Q

How many outflow valves are there?

A

2

203
Q

Do the outflow valves work together or one at a time?

A

Together

204
Q

Where are the outflow valves located

A

Back bulkhead of baggage compartment

205
Q

What altitude should you set in the pressurization controller

A

Landing Field

206
Q

What does the CPAM do?

A

Calculates the data to send CAB ALT, CAB delta P, CAB RATE and 10,000 ft alarm to EICAS.

207
Q

At What cabin altitude will you get the Aural warning “CABIN”

A

9900’

208
Q

Where should the manual knob be positioned in automatic mode

A

Full DN

209
Q

How long will the aircraft maintain takeoff cabin altitude

A

15 mins or until it reaches theoretical cabin altitude

210
Q

How many weight on wheels proximity switches are there?

A

5

211
Q

What is the nose gear proximity switch used for?

A

Nose wheel steering

Thrust reverser logic

212
Q

How are nose gear doors held in place

A

Hydraulic pressure

213
Q

How is the gear held in the up position

A

J hooks

214
Q

When will you get the landing hear voice message

A

With the gear up and:

1) RA below 1200’ (or inop) Flaps 0-9 and LOW TLA (can be cancelled)
2) RA below 1200’ Flaps 22-45 and LOW TLA (cannot be cancelled)
3) Any ALT when Flaps are 45 (cannot be cancelled)

215
Q

How are the wheels stopped after raising the gear?

A

Nose - Snubbers

Mains - Automatic Braking

216
Q

What do amber hatches on the gear indication mean

A

Landing Gear in transit

217
Q

What do red hatches on the gear indication mean

A

Landing Gear still in transit after 20 seconds

218
Q

How should the parking brake be applied and released?

A

Depress the toe brakes while applying or releasing.

219
Q

What protections are available for main brakes

A

Anti Lock: +30kts -30% =0
Anti Skid: above 10 kts relieves partial pressure until slow wheel catches up
Touchdown: Weight on Mains plus 50kts or WOW plus 3 seconds.

220
Q

Does the emergency brake have any protections?

A

No

221
Q

Where is brake temperature read

A

on the HYD and Brakes page of the MFD

222
Q

Can gear position be read anywhere besides the EICAS

A

on the RMU

223
Q

How is the steering disengaged

A

Steering disconnect buttons on both yolks

224
Q

How should you stop the APU normally?

A

APU stop button

225
Q

When do you turn the APU master knob to off

A

Below 5%

226
Q

What controls the APU

A

Own FADEC

227
Q

When does the APU generator come on line

A

95% plus 7 seconds

228
Q

How long should you wait to use the APU bleed air after start

A

3 mins

229
Q

What will cause the APU to shut down automatically in Flight

A

Will run until it cant run anymore

230
Q

What will cause the APU to shut down on the ground automatically

A

just about anything

231
Q

Why is there a 10 second delay in shutting down the APU in case of fire

A

to account for the fire test.

232
Q

How many engine fire bottles are there

A

2

233
Q

How is the APU protected from fire

A

Fire loop system, 1 fire bottle and APU fuel shutoff valve.

234
Q

How is the lav protected from fire

A

Halon bottles with tips that melt when heated.

235
Q

What indication is there that there was a fire in the lav trash

A

You can check the Halon meter in the mirror.

236
Q

How many fire bottles are in the baggage compartment

A

2

237
Q

How long does the metering bottle in the baggage compartment last

A

EMB 145: 50 mins

Legacy: 75 mins

238
Q

What happens when you push the bagg extg button?

A

Signal sent to shut off fan

Fires both bottles

239
Q

What could it mean if the bagg extg button illuminates but there is no EICAS message for bagg smoke

A

Fan has failed or fire test button has been pushed for less than 2 seconds

240
Q

What happens if you hold the fire test button longer than 10 seconds

A

APU will shut down

241
Q

What is the green disc next to the O2 panel

A

Blow out disc in case of over-pressurization

242
Q

How is the O2 mask tested

A
  • Set BOOM/ MASK to MASK
  • Select HOT MIC
  • Actuate the test slide button
  • Note cats eye O2 flow and listen to speaker for O2 flowing
  • While Holding the test slide down, press the EMERGENCY button
  • reset BOOM/ MASK to BOOM and return to normal microphone inputs.
243
Q

What kind of O2 do the pax have

A

EMB 145 - Generated through a chemical reaction

Legacy - one or two O2 cylinders filled to 1850 psi

244
Q

How long will pax O2 last

A

EMB 145 - 12 mins per pax

Legacy - Depends on number of pax

245
Q

What is portable O2 used for

A

First aid treatment

246
Q

What cabin altitude will cause the cabin O2 masks to deploy

A

14,500 ft

247
Q

How can you display radar and terrain at the same time

A

1) Box on both WX and MAP

2) PRESS: WX MAP WX MAP MAP

248
Q

What does CAS MSG on the PFD mean

A

there is a message miscomparison

249
Q

How can the MFD be changed to a PFD

A

use the reversionary panel

Flight Safety EMB-145/ Legacy Oral Questions (2 decks)

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