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B777 SOUTHERN AIR > ORAL PREP > Flashcards

ORAL PREP Flashcards

1
Q

The 2 APU MODES are ?

A

ATTENDED: One engine starting or operating UNATTENDED.: Engines shutdown on the ground.

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2
Q

PWR source priority when starting engines ?

A

1.Respective IDG 2. APU. 3.Opposite IDG

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3
Q

The ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Ref. Unit) provides what ?

A

1.Primary flight data ( AOA TAT,AOA), 2. IRU Data 3. Air Data ( Pitot, Static )

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4
Q

What are Air Data Modules and what do they do ?

A

ADMs are remote Pitot/Static sensors for the air data functions of the ADIRU / SAARU.

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5
Q

What are the AIR DATA inputs to the ADIRU and SAARU(Secondary Attitude Air Data Reference Unit) ?

A
  1. Air Data Modules 2.Two AOA Vanes 3.TAT Probe
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6
Q

The FMC NAV update priority is ?

A

1.GPS 2. Nav Radios 3. IRU

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7
Q

The APU is started on GRND/FLT by… ?

A
  1. APU pwrd Elect Start Motor (G/Inflt)

2. Air Turb Start (Eng.Bleed Air In-flight / Ground Air Cart.)

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8
Q

The MAIN BATTERY powers which 3 APU start and fire protection functions ?

A

1.APU INLET DOOR 2. FUEL VALVE 3.FIRE DETECTION SYSTEM

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9
Q

How is APU fuel supplied on AC and DC power.

A

(AC) LF PUMP

DC) FUEL PUMP ( AC UNPOWERED

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10
Q

The APU START SEQUENCE is ?

A

Inlet Door-OPEN > Stater Engaged > ON SPEED > Fuel/Ign > 50% RPM > Start Disngd/Ign OFF

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11
Q

Which starter has priority , Air Turbine Starter or APU Start Motor ?

A

Air Turbine Starter

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12
Q

Why are PMGs the primary power source for PSAs(Power Supply Assemblies) instead of IDGs?

A

2 PMGs attached to each engines’s N2 shaft driven Backup Gen. supplies uninterruptible power to PSAs.

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13
Q

Can SAARU be SELECTED ?

A

Pushing ATT/AIRDAT will display ALTN

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14
Q

If both FMCs fail the CDUs will do what with the flight plan?

A

CDUs will retain FLIGHT PLAN :

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15
Q

Do the CDUs have PERFORMANCE and NAVIGATION databases ?

A

NO. CDUs have no PERF or NAV database

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16
Q

With both FMCs lost how are WYPTS entered into the CDU?

A

(1)WYPTS entered by LAT/LONG ONLY. (2).Referncd by LAT /LONG and/or ID if copied before FMC failure.

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17
Q

How is fire on the MAIN DECK suppressed ?

A

The DEPR/DISCH SWITCH depressurizes AC to a 23K feet CABIN ALT at 25K feet

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18
Q

One and Two pushes of TOGA switch commands FMA annunciation of .. ?

A

Push 1 : THR TO/GA TO/GA 2000’/MIN

Push 2: THR TO/GA TO/GA Full Power

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19
Q

When is TO/GA ARMED IN FLIGHT ?

A

Flaps out of UP or G/S Captured

No annunciation for TOGA Armed.

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20
Q

How many generations are on the airplane?

A

10 :

1 APU + 1 RAT + 2 IDGs + 2 Backup Generators + 4 PMGs

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21
Q

What are the PACK MODES ?

A
  1. NORMAL

2. STANDBY COOLING

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22
Q

If the PACK MALFUNCTIONS how is pressurization maintained?

A

2 Packs STBY : 1 pack INOP / 1 pack STBY=Continuous to maint. cabin press. regardless of ALT/OAT
Cabins maybe warmer due to lower cool.capacity

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23
Q

When OVERHEAT or other significant pack faults are detected the pack(s) will do what?

A

Pack shuts down automatically

Pressing the AIR COND RESET switch may restore ops.

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24
Q

What is the function of the landing gear lever lock and how is it overridden?

A

On ground auto lever lock holds gr handle DN.Pushing LOCK OVERRIDE switch releases lock.Lever lock automatically released in flight.

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25
Q

GEAR EXTENSION SPEED

A

270KTS/0.82M

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26
Q

Is there a backup for the EFIS CONTROL/ DISPLAY SELECT PANEL ?

A

Yes. In the CDU.

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27
Q

Which flight controls are fly by wire ?

A

All

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28
Q

What flight control function in the DIRECT MODE?

A

ALL:Rud /Yaw deflection more sensitive at certain speeds.

PFCs DISCONNECTED FROM FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM.

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29
Q

How does the FLY BY WIRE system function with the AUTOPILOT DISENGAGED.

A

1.Col. inputs via (Analog) flt contl. pos. transducrs >4 ACE(Digital Format) >3 PFCS (Enhanced Digital) > 4ACE (Analog) > PCU

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30
Q

How does the FLY BY WIRE SYSTEM function with the AUTOPILOT ENGAGED?

A

AFDS Digital Cmds»3 PFCs Enhanced Digtal Data&raquo_space; 4 ACEs Analog Data»PCU

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31
Q

How do the ACES and PCUs interact?

A

Hyd actuated PCUs feedback sensors send pos data to ACE which stops PCU when flight controls reach commanded position.

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32
Q

FLIGHT CONTROL hyd. operational protection is achieved how?

A

No single ACE controls more than one actuator on a control surface.

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33
Q

What protections are lost in the SECONDARY FLAP MODE?

A

Flap Load Relief

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34
Q

What protections are lost in the ALTERNATE FLAP MODE?

A
  1. Flap/Slat Motion Uncmd.
    2 .Flap/Slat Asymmetry Detection
  2. Flap/Slat Load Relief
    4 .Auto Slats
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35
Q

AUTO SLATS OPERATE operate in which flap MODE?

A

PRIMARY AND SECONDARY

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36
Q

What DIGITAL DATA does the PFC retain ?

A

1.Inertial Data 2.Thrust setting 3.Air Data 4.Flap/Slat Position 5.RA

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37
Q

What powers the Ground Service Bus

A

R Right Main Bus
P Primary External Power
G Generator APU

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38
Q

What powers the Utility Buses

A

L/R Main Buses powers the L/R Utility Buses

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39
Q

What powers the Transfer Buses

A

L/R MAIN Buses power the L/R Transfer Buses

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40
Q

What powers the L/R TRANSFER buses if the L/ R MAIN buses fail.

A

L/R BACKUP GENERATOR

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41
Q

Which bus powers the STANDBY bus.

A

The L TRANSFER bus

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42
Q

How many back up generators can be online at once

A

One

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43
Q

Can one back up generator power both TRANSFER buses

A

Yes

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44
Q

With normal brakes lost are AUTO BRAKES available?

A

No

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45
Q

With NORMAL brakes is anti-skid available?

A

ALT brake sys. provides antiskid protect to tandem FWD/MID axle wheels prs. Aft axle wheels remain individually controlled.

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46
Q

What does the GROUND SERVICE bus power ?

A

MAIN and APU BATTERY chargers

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47
Q

What is the GROUND SERVICE bus’s normal and alt. power source ?

A

NORMAL: Right MAIN bus
ALTERNATE: APU GEN Primary External Power

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48
Q

FLASHING RED on PFD and AURAL warnings are ?

A

ENG FAIL( Inhibtd <65kts)-WINDSHEAR-PULL UP-TERR

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49
Q

What is the minimum clearance from an object before initiating taxi.

A

15 Feet

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50
Q

Why is the 15 feet required

A

Rear two wheels turn in opposite direction of turn so back of airplane and wing tip move opposite to turn briefly.

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51
Q

The EICAS advisory and BRAKE SOURCE light indicates what.?

A

Both R/C and RESERVE hydraulic systems are LOW

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52
Q

When does TAC activate ?

A

TAC activates when N1 varies by more than 10%

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53
Q

How many volt/ frequency converters are used by the BACKUP GENERATORS

A

One

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54
Q

Is Auto Apprch Freq. Radio tuning available when ALT NAV is selected?

A

NO.ONLY Man.tuning( L) CDU of VOR,DME,ADF,L/C ILS (R)VOR,DME,ADF,R ILS

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55
Q

Pushing the AIR DATA/ATT switch does what?

A
  • AIR DATA(C) SAARU Single Channel.
  • AIR DATA(FO)ADIRU Single Channel +(PFD/ND)
  • ATTITUDE(C/FO) SAARU
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56
Q

How do you reset comms after using the O2 Mask.

A

Reset switch on panel and ensure the white flag in the left door is not visible as you close the door.

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57
Q

Who is PF and PM on a CAT II/ CAT III

A

Capt. is always PF and FO is always PM

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58
Q

The max speed to exit the runway is ?

A

30 Kts

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59
Q

The GROUND HANDLING bus is powered by.?

A

On the ground only by the APU GEN or the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER

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60
Q

What does the GROUND HANDLING bus power ?

A

Cargo Handling, Fueling/Defueling Ops,Ground operations equipment

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61
Q

What pages are available in ALT Navigation

A

ALT/NAV PAGES : LEGS, PROGRESS, RADIO

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62
Q

Can ALT NAVIGATION be manually selected?

A

Yes.(NAV switch CDU visible)CDU generates the ND MAP. Normally LEFT ND map- Left CDU, RIGHT ND map-right CDU

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63
Q

How many display generators are in the system ?

A

4

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64
Q

What action is taken if both PFD’s go blank?

A

DSPL CTRL to ALTN ( An alternate display processing channel is selected to replace the current display processing channel.

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65
Q

What would prompt you to engage the DSPL CTRL switch to ALTN?

A

Undetected display source failures, missing/faulty disply info or intermittent disp blanking, may not result in automatic switching

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66
Q

What happens if the left or right PFD screen fails ?

A

THe PFD is automatically shifted to the inboard screen.

67
Q

When pressurizing hydraulics which pump is turned on first and why?

A

The RIGHT ELEC. DEMAND PUMP is turned on first to prevent fluid transfer.

68
Q

What is the purpose of the DEMAND PUMP

A

DEMAND PUMPS provide supp. hydraulic power for periods of high system demand.They are a backup for the ENGINE driven PRIMARY PUMPS.

69
Q

When do DEMAND PUMPS operate.

A

AUTO:TO/LAND- Sys/Primary Pump Press Low
ON:Runs continuously
Note: On Grnd. RIGHT ELEC DEM PUMP runs cntnsly.

70
Q

What does the Demand pump FAULT light indicate.

A

LOW output pressure
HIGH Demand Pump fluid TEMP
Selected OFF

71
Q

When selected ATT/AIRDAT provides ADIRU/SAARU to which pilots ?

A

(CA) Air Data:S(Att)Airdata(IRU)
(FO) Air Data : (AIRDAT)IRU
(CA/FO) Attitude Data : SAARU

72
Q

What portions of the FMC Flight Plan are retained if both FMCs fail ?

A

(1)Non conditional WYPTS [ID/LAT/LON] (2)Offsets (3)Hold Patterns (4) Missed Aprchs

73
Q

What is the EICAS annunciation on GA with the second push of the TOGA Switch?

A

THR REF - Full Go Around Thrust

74
Q

On GA with LNAV PATH unavailable LNAV remains armed until what altitude?

A

LNAV is is armed until above min.A/P engagement altitude.

75
Q

With a LNAV PATH available when does LNAV automatically activate?

A

Above 50’ RA autopilot OFF

Above 200’ RA autopilot ON

76
Q

When does the EICAS Reference Thrust Limit change to GA?

A

Flaps out of UP, and locked in GA when extended for landing position or GS capture.

77
Q

What data is enhanced by the PFC to provide appropriate flight control function?

A

Enhanced data :a)Inertial data b)Air data c)Thrust setting d)Flaps/slat position

78
Q

Is the Left Fwd fuel pump PRESS light illuminated if the APU is ON with AC Power available.

A

No. PRESS light out regardless of switch pos when APU running. PRESS light ON if APU OFF pump switch OFF

79
Q

Which hydraulic reservoirs have standpipes?

A

Left,Center ,Right

80
Q

What are the standpipes for ?

A

Reserve fluid for the demand pumps.

81
Q

What is the purpose of the center standpipe and demand pump.

A

Preserves fluid to power the Reserve Brakes, Nose Gear and extension.Connected ONLY to C1 PUMP.

82
Q

What hyd system powers Normal Brakes?

83
Q

What will cause the EMERGENCY lights to illuminate automatically when ARMED.

A

Total Electrical Power Loss,or Switch turned off.

84
Q

What does the PRIMARY L ENG hydraulic pump FAULT light indicate?

A

Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature high.

85
Q

What does the DEMAND L ELEC hydraulic pump FAULT light indicate?

A

Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature high.

86
Q

How many hydraulic systems are needed to power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?

A

One system.

87
Q

If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost , can the center hydraulic system sufficiently power enough of the flight controls for safe flight?

88
Q

Where are the hydraulic system quantities displayed?

A

Status Display and Hydraulic Synoptic

89
Q

What causes the the RAT to deploy automatically in flight ?

A

Both AC transfer buses are unpowered.

90
Q

When the RAT deploys automatically due to system failures,what does it hydraulically power

A

A.Alt.gear exten. sys,
B.Norm brakes (after lndg/airspeed <60kts)
C.Primary Flt Contrl components normly pwrd by C hyd

91
Q

Auto land is INOP for which hydraulic system failure(s) ?

A

Any low pressure indications on L,C, R hydraulic sys.

92
Q

What happens if both C1 and C2 DEMAND pump selectors are positioned to ON?

A

Only the C1 DEMAND pump will operate.

93
Q

With BATTERY switch ON only what is powered?

A

APU Controller and DC fuel pump

94
Q

What items are powered if the BATTERY is the ONLY power source ?

A

Standby Bus
Captain’s Displays
Left AIMS

95
Q

What powers the left main bus if the left engine is shut down,right engine running and APU OFF?

A

The right engine generator powers the left main bus

96
Q

How are buses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus and external powering the right bus?

A

The right engine generator automatically powers both

main buses

97
Q

What auto switching will occur if the APU is started with external power on the BUS TIE system.

A

The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.

98
Q

How can the ground handling bus be powered before shutdown with no external power available.

A

Start the APU

99
Q

Which bus operates ONLY on the ground.

A

Ground handling bus.

100
Q

What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight.

101
Q

What provides DC power on this airplane.

A

Transformer Rectifier Units

102
Q

When does the right transfer bus isolate from the right main bus?

A

When system configures for auto land.

103
Q

What is the electrical configuration during auto land

A

The right transfer bus isolates from the right main bus.

104
Q

What is the primary source for fly-by-wire

105
Q

What is the secondary power source for fly-by-wire if one or more PMGs are unpowered.

106
Q

What is the primary power source of standby power should all normal AC and DC power sources fail.

A

RAT generator

107
Q

What is the standby electrical power source if the RAT sheds electrical power because of low hydraulic pressure.

A

Main Battery

108
Q

What is the primary source of power for the transfer buses.

A

Engine generators

109
Q

What does the green EXTERNAL POWER AVAIL light indicate.

A

External power connected,correct and ready to power the aircraft.

110
Q

During preflight you notice the ADIRU ON BAT light is illuminated. If the BATTERY is switched OFF and electrical power is removed from the A/C what occurs.

A

Hot battery bus continues to power the ADIRU.ON BAT light illuminates.Horn in NG wheel well sounds to alert MX.

111
Q

What happens if the ADIRU is switched off in flight.

A

System logic prevents the ADIRU from being un-powered inflight.

112
Q

If the ADIRU fails inflight what will occur.

A

SAARU automatically supplies:ATT,HDG,AIR DATA(Set HDG periodically in CDU POS INIT page.

113
Q

When does TAC disengage automatically?

A

1.Airspeed below 70 kts on ground 2.Reverse Thrust applied, 3.System malfunction or loss of engine thrust data 4.Flight Controls not in Normal Mode

114
Q

With PFC switch in AUTO and no other malfunctions what mode are the flight controls in

115
Q

Flight controls revert to SECONDARY mode when…?

A

FCs revert due to lack of req. info from other A/C systems and internal faults and PFCs cannot support NORMAL.

116
Q

What causes flight control system to go from NORMAL to SECONDARY mode.

A

Loss of airspeed and or IR data to the PFCs

117
Q

What is the net result of the system going into SECONDARY mode

A

All FCs operable.ELEV/RUDD more sensitive at som airspeeds.
GAATTEY not available: Gust suppression,AP,Auto SPD BRKS,Tail Strike protect,TAC, Envel.Protect, YD maybe lost or degraded.

118
Q

What is the EICAS message for reversion to FC SECONDARY mode.

A

FLIGHT CONTROL MODE.

119
Q

How is Primary Pitch Trim controlled in NORMAL mode.

A

On ground yoke dual pitch trim switches position STAB directly. In flight switches send inputs to PFCs to change the Trim Ref Speed by moving ELEVs to acheive trim change and fair the STAB to the ELEV.

120
Q

Do the pitch trim switches move the control column?

121
Q

Do the pitch trim switches affect autopilot engagement.

A

Primary Pitch Trim switches are inhibited when AP engaged.

122
Q

What is Trim Reference Speed

A

Speed at which A/C would eventually stabilize given no column inputs.Once column forces trimmed to zero A/C maintains constant speed.

123
Q

What is the effect of the Alternate Pitch Trim Levers .

A

In NORMAL mode changes Trim Reference Speed , moves STAB in ALL MODES.

124
Q

With a complete loss of Hyd and Elec power how do ALT TRIM LEVERS operate.

A

Cables linked to the STCM(Stab Trim Control Mod) Cmd mechanical movement of the STAB.

125
Q

Will Alternate Pitch Trim levers disconnect the autopilot.

A

Levers will not disconnect the autopilot but will move the STAB.

126
Q

What is the wheel to rudder cross tie.

A

Wheel to rudder cross tie functions to control initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel inputs only by deflecting the rudder up to 8 degrees.

127
Q

When is wheel to rudder cross tie available

A

Available below 210 KTS in the NORMAL mode.

128
Q

Can SECONDARY mode be manually selected.

A

No.Automatic only.

129
Q

Can flight control DIRECT mode be selected.

A

Selecting the PFC DISCONNECT switch to OFF will revert FCs to DIRECT mode

130
Q

How does the airplane fly in SECONDARY and DIRECT MODE

A

ALL FCs operable. ELEV and RUDD more sensitive at some airspeeds.Full control for safe flight and landing.Handling about same as SECONDARY.

131
Q

Does the autopilot work in SECONDARY mode

132
Q

What doesn’t work in SECONDARY mode

A

Everything from NORMAL mode lost except :Rudder Trim Cance,Degraded Y/D(w/inertial) or lost

133
Q

What works in DIRECT mode.

A

Nothing from NORMAL/SECONDARY works.

134
Q

What defines SECONDARY mode

A

Loss of Inertial or Speed Reference

135
Q

What defines DIRECT mode

A

Loss of Inertial,Speed and Other Aircraft System References

136
Q

What Envelope protections are in NORMAL mode.

A

S tall Protect
O verspeed Protect
B ank Angle Protect

137
Q

What additional protections exist in NORMAL mode.

A

T AC Computer A uto Pilot G ust Supression R udder Cancel
A utospd Brks T ailstrike Y/D Wheel X Tie

138
Q

What is Bank Angle Protection

A

When CW inputs exceed 35 degrees BAP CW forces CW back within 30 degrees bank.

139
Q

What is the wingspan of the 777F

A

212’ 7”

140
Q

What is the length of the 777F

A

209’ 1”

141
Q

What is the height of the tail of the 777F

A

62’ 4”

142
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn.

A

157’ 4”

143
Q

What is the fuel capacity of the main tanks.

A

69,000 Pounds

144
Q

What is the fuel tank capacity of the center tank

A

182,800 Pounds

145
Q

What is the total fuel capacity

A

320,800 Pounds

146
Q

What is Stall Protection

A

Stall protection limits the speed to which the airplane can be trimmed Nose Up when the airplane slows near Min Maneuvering Speed .

147
Q

What is Auto Throttle Wake Up ?

A

As speed decrs near Stick Shaker Auto Throttle automatically advances in SPEED mode to maint Min Maneuvering or MCP window speed whichever is greater.

148
Q

If armed but not active( A/T window blank) Auto Throttle auto activates to provide Stall Protection?

149
Q

Is Auto Throttle Wake Up/Stall Protection supported when A/T in HOLD

A

No.thrust lever servos inhibited and A/T does not control thrust or speed

150
Q

Define OVERSPEED Protection.

A

Over speed protection limits the trim ref speed NOSE DN approching Vmo/Mmo

151
Q

What flight controls are are operative with loss of all 4 ACES

A

Mechanical control of spoilers 4 + 11

Mechanical control of SCTM/STAB by ALTN PITCH TRIM

152
Q

What does the EICAS message FLAP/SLAT CONTROL mean,

A

Flap and Slat sequencing lost

153
Q

What does the ALTERNATE flap mode allow.

A

Direct manual operation of the slats and flaps through the SECONDARY electric drive motors.

154
Q

How do the Flaps/Slats operate in the ALTERNATE Mode

A

Flaps and Slats(MR) EXTEND simultaneously . Slat(MR) RETRACTION inhibited until Flaps are up

155
Q

What is the max flap setting in the ALTERNATE mode

A

20 Degrees

156
Q

How do the Flaps/Slats operate in SECONDARY mode.

A

< 256KTS SLATS FLAPS
FE 1- 30
> 265 KTS MR 1-20

157
Q

When do the Slats normally extend from Mid to Full Extension

A

Flaps 25 selection commands sequences FE of slats first then 25 Flap..

158
Q

What is the basic Slat /Flap sequencing.

A

Slats Extend first and Retract last.

159
Q

Can the BATTERY switch be turned off in flight

A

No.System logic prevents it.

160
Q

To what bus will the APU automaticaly connect when started on the ground.

A

Left Main Bus

161
Q

What 4 items MUST be exist to initiate an ILS approach.?

.

A
  1. ILS Tuned
  2. Inbound Course Set
  3. Proper Sensing
  4. Cleared for the approach
162
Q

Which has priority over the other,TLR or FDP ?

163
Q

Should you firewall the single engine on an engine out derated takeoff?

A

No.Doing so would likely exceed VMCa

B777 SOUTHERN AIR (1 decks)

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