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Embraer 145 Oral Prep > Oral Prep > Flashcards

Oral Prep Flashcards

1
Q

When in essential power mode, would you have normal braking?

A

Yes.

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2
Q

What is maximum temperature for aircraft operation?

A

ISA + 35oC

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3
Q

What are the minimum and maximum fuel tank temperatures?

A

-40oC to 52oC.

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4
Q

On a cold morning day, the airplane power is established. If the APU is to be used, what is the minimum battery temperature for APU start?
.

A

The minimum battery temperature for APU start is -20oC

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5
Q
  1. What are the APU starter limits? At what percent rotor speed would the APU automatically shut down? How long can the APU operate in the amber range?
A

After 1st Attempt …. 1 MINUTE OFF After 2nd Attempt …..1 MINUTE OFF After 3rd Attempt …….30 MINUTES OFF. The APU will be automatically shut down at 104% rotor speed. The APU EGT may exceed 680oC up to 717oC (Amber) for a maximum of 5 minutes.

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6
Q

Assuming the oil temperature is -15°C, can engines be started?

A

Yes, the minimum oil temperature for starting is -40oC

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7
Q

If a crew has a ‘hung start’ during the 1st start attempt what is the minimum time a crew has to wait before another engine start can be attempted? What about engine start cycles 2 through 5?

A

1 MINUTE OFF minimum after the 1st start attempt. The 2rd through 4th start attempt is 1 MINUTE ON, 1 MINUTE OFF. The 5th start attempt is 1 MINUTE ON, 5 MINUTES OFF.

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8
Q

If a cold engine is started and the oil pressure spikes (increases) to 120 PSI? What should the crew do? What if it was 115 PSI?

A

Start timer. Monitor and comply with the oil pressure range limitation.110 PSI may be exceeded during starts if oil temperature is below 21oC. The engine must remain at IDLE until the oil pressure is less than 110 PSI.

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9
Q

While taxiing out to the runway (less than 88% N2) what is the acceptable oil pressure range?

A

34 PSI to 110 PSI (Green Range)

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10
Q

What is the definition of a cold engine?

A

An engine is considered to be cold if it has been shut down for more than 90 minutes

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11
Q

Assuming a cold engine, how long must the engine run to meet the engine warm- up limitations?

A

4 minutes.

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12
Q

Assuming a warm engine, how long must the engine run to meet the engine warm- up limitations?

A

2 minutes.

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13
Q

Assuming the engine was cold and the engine has run for 4 minutes, can the crew takeoff if the engine temperature is 38oC?

A

No, to increase N2 above 83%, the engine oil temperature must be at 40oC minimum. In lieu of this limit, it is acceptable to either to run the engine for at least 8 minutes or complete a static run-up to 88% N2, allow the engine to stabilize, check to ensure that the oil pressure is equal to or less than 83 PSI.

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14
Q

What is the min./max. SAT for takeoff?

A

-40/52 oC

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15
Q

On the takeoff roll the oil pressure drops to 42 PSI. Is this acceptable?

A

While this is an abnormal condition, operation between 34 and 48 PSI (A1E) or between 34 and 50 PSI (A1P & A1/3) is permitted during takeoff and go around phases of flight.

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16
Q

On the takeoff roll the oil pressure increases to 112 PSI. Is this acceptable? Would an increase to 118 PSI be allowed? For how long?

A

Yes, 112 PSI is permitted in all operational modes and is time limited to 5 minutes. Operation in the oil pressure amber range between 116 PSI and 155 PSI is permitted in all operational modes and is time limited to 2 minutes. However, total time above 110 PSI may not exceed 5 minutes.

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17
Q

How long can the aircraft remain in the takeoff thrust setting? What is the maximum N1 value?

A

Takeoff thrust is time limited to 5 minutes. 100% N1

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18
Q

How long can a vibration remain in the amber range but below 2.5 IPS during takeoff?

A

May be exceeded up to (but not including) 2.5 IPS for 5 minutes during the takeoff or go-around phases of flight.

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19
Q

On a non-XR aircraft, If an electrical abnormal caused the aircraft to rely solely on the main batteries for electrical power, how long would the ISIS remained powered?

A

Maximum duration of the ISIS when operating only on batteries is 40 minutes. Note: The maximum duration of battery power can be extended to 45 minutes if the pitot 3 sensor heating button is turned off when not operating in icing conditions.

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20
Q

Although the airplane is heavily automated with respect to pressurization, what are the values for maximum differential pressure/overpressure/negative pressure?

A

Maximum Differential Pressure Maximum Differential Overpressure Maximum Differential Negative Pressure Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations
7.8 PSI. 8.1 PSI. -0.3 PSI.

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21
Q

What is VA? What is the maximum airspeed for turbulent air penetration?

A

200 KIAS
At or below 10,000 ft. 200 KIAS.
Above 10,000 ft. 250 KIAS/0.63M, WHICHEVER IS LOWER.

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22
Q

What is the min./max. SAT at FL370?

A

-65oC/-21.5oC.

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23
Q

The TAT is limited to what when operating above FL250?

A

Total Air Temperature in cruise flight above 25,000 ft. is limited to -45oC. However, if momentary deviations occur down to -50°C, no maintenance action is required.

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24
Q

If holding in icing conditions enroute what configuration and minimum speed should be used?

A 
Landing Gear Flaps
UP.
0o.
200 KIAS.
Minimum Airspeed
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations
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25
Q

XRJ Flap speeds above 10,000 feet with YD off?

A

22o XR 180 KIAS.

45o XR 145 KIAS

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26
Q

While on an approach what are the minimum disengagement heights?

A 
Minimum During Visual Approach Minimum During CAT I ILS Approach
Minimum During CAT II ILS Approach
200 FT. AGL.
200 FT. AGL.
85 FT. AGL.
BEFORE LEAVING MDA.
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27
Q

When landing below what temperature would a maintenance inspection be required?

A

In the event of a landing below -40oC, the airplane may not takeoff without a maintenance inspection.

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28
Q

How many vortex generators are installed above each wing?

A

There are 12 vortex generators installed on the upper surface of each wing.

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29
Q

When must the full Receiving checklist be accomplished?

A

If a Terminating checklist was completed on the previous flight. If there was a change in crew.
If any maintenance action/inspection has taken place.
Anytime the configuration of the aircraft may have been changed during a ground layover.

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30
Q

May a CB be reset prior to power up?

A

If a circuit breaker is tripped on the ground, do not reset until contacting Maintenance Control to discover the cause.

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31
Q

What emergency equipment is located in the cockpit?

A

2 escape ropes, 3 smoke goggles, 3 life jackets, 1 PBE, 1 Halon extinguisher, 1 crash ax, 2 flash lights.

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32
Q

When must you start the APU as soon as possible after establishing power to the aircraft?

A

If the battery voltage is below 24V but more than 19V.

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33
Q

What EICAS messages are shown during a fire detection test?

A 
ENG 1(2) FIRE
APU FIRE
BAGG SMOKE
E1 (2) FIRE DET FAIL
APU FIREDET FAIL
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34
Q

What is the procedure to use if, after a fire test, if the BAGG EXT button remains illuminated?

A

Wait 6 seconds, then repeat the test by pressing and holding the fire detection test button for at least 2 seconds.

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35
Q

When does the APU Generator come online?

A

Once reaching 95% plus 7 seconds (unless GPU is being used).

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36
Q

What procedure is used if the APU generator exceeds 500 Amps?

A

Turn the #1 BATT knob to OFF. Once 3 minutes have passed or the load decreases below 400 A, whichever occurs later, turn the #1 BATT knob back to AUTO and place the shed bus selector to OVRD.

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37
Q

When do the engine driven generators come online?

A

56.4% N2.

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38
Q

Which doors, when open, will cause an “ACCESS DOOR OPN” EICAS message?

A

Under cockpit access hatch, forward electronic access hatch, rear electronic access hatch.

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39
Q

What doors, if open, give a MASTER CAUTION or MASTER WARNING?

A

Master Caution: access panels (forward avionics, rigging bay, rear avionics), emergency exit access panels, fuel access panel). Master Warning: main and service door (anytime in flight or on the ground with ENG 1 running).

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40
Q

Which doors on the MFD DOORS page are not pressurized?

A

Forward avionics compartment, fuel access panel.

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41
Q

How many Halon fire extinguishers and PBE’s does the EMB-145 contain?

A

3 of each

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42
Q

In an electrical emergency (essential power mode), will RMU 1 remained powered?

A

Yes.

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43
Q

What does pressing the takeoff configuration button check for?

A

Pitch trim between 4°-8° (green band), flaps between 9°-22°, parking break not set, and spoilers stowed

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44
Q

What happens if the DAU 1A channel fails? What pilot action should be taken to restore lost data?

A

Engine #1 indications are replaced with amber dashes. Per the QRH, select the appropriate EICAS reversionary button, however not all data will be restored.

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45
Q

During a failure of symbol generator 1, would RMU 1 automatically display engine backup page 1 indications?

A

Yes.

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46
Q

How do the 5 cockpit CRTs appear following the loss of DC Bus 2?

A

Red ‘X’ on MFD 2, MFD 1 and PFD 2 are blank.

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47
Q

A failure of an ADC would be indicated by___________. The proper corrective action is to______________.

A

A red X failure indication appearing on the airspeed tape, altitude tape, and the vertical speed pointer is removed and replaced by a red boxed VS. Reference the QRH Navigation/Flight Instruments Failures Index, press the associated/affected side ADC button on the reversionary panel per the QRH. This will allow cross-side ADC information to be used, operation in RVSM airspace not authorized; notify ATC.

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48
Q

What does an amber HDG comparator flag on the PFD/MFD indicate?

A

A difference of 6 degrees between the heading information compared by the two symbol generators.

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49
Q

When would an amber IAS comparator flag be presented?

A

When the CA and FO indicated airspeeds (calibrated) differ by 5 knots or more than for longer than 2 seconds.

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50
Q

What messages will be presented if the CA side AHRS fails:

A

The Captain’s PFD and MFD will display the following messages: ATT FAIL (EADI), HDG FAIL (Digital Compass), and HDG FAIL (MFD Digital Compass if map view is selected).

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51
Q

What does the message ‘CAS MSG’ indicate when presented on the PFD?

A

There is a disagreement between the IC-600’s on the EICAS message displayed.

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52
Q

If the EICAS screen fails, will the information be displayed anywhere else automatically?

A

No, the information doesn’t appear anywhere immediately. EICAS information is only automatically displayed on the RMU engine page automatically following an SG1 failure.

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53
Q

What indications would be displayed on the MFD and PFD immediately following an AHRS 2 failure?

A

ATT FAIL, HDG FAIL, HDG FAIL (on MFD if in MAP mode)

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54
Q

When will the stick shaker activate?

A

When the aircraft symbol touches the PLI.

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55
Q

When your airspeed is in the amber band of the low speed awareness tape, what color is the PLI?

A

The PLI is red.

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56
Q

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A

 On the ground (except during the test)
 Below .5 G
 If the quick disconnect button is kept pressed
 Below 200 ft. AGL (reverts to 10 seconds after takeoff if the radio altimeters have failed)
 If either SPS cutout button has been pressed (released or, unlatched button position)
 Above 200 KIAS
 If at least one SPS channel is inoperative

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57
Q

What does the EICAS message SPS ADVANCED indicate?

A

SPS ADVANCED indicates that Stick shaker and pusher actuation is set to lower AOAs (higher speeds) due to a system component failure.

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58
Q

Under what conditions will the electrical system operate as two separate, independent systems?

A

When 4 or more generators are online.

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59
Q

When is the ground service bus powered?

A

The ground service bus will be powered when a GPU is powered and plugged into the aircraft but not selected and the batteries are off.

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60
Q

What buses are energized while in the essential power mode?

A

The essential buses, hot battery buses and the central dc bus.

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61
Q

Which of the following is still available in essential power mode? Flaps, pressurization, and/or normal gear extension.

A

Normal gear extension.

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62
Q

Describe the number of generators and respective voltage of the electrical system.

A

5 generator each capable of producing 28 VDC and 400 amps.

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63
Q

Can the GPU be used to recharge the main aircraft batteries?

A

No, BC1 and BC2 open automatically when the GPU is selected and supplying power.

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64
Q

What items are powered from the 115 VAC Bus?

A

TCAS, E-GPWS, Windshear.

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65
Q

Which electrical bus supplies power to the ISIS on the 145XR?

A

The backup battery hot bus.

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66
Q

Under what conditions are shed buses powered while on the ground?

A

With GPU powering the aircraft and the shed bus switch in the auto or override position.
With at least one generator online and the shed bus in the override position.
With 3 or more generators online.

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67
Q

How many minutes will the NICAD main batteries supply power in flight when in the essential power mode?

A

40 minutes or 45 minutes with pitot/static 3 heat deselected.

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68
Q

Will the electrical system still be configured as two separate systems after the loss of the APU generator and engine driven generator 1?

A

No. At least 4 generators must be online to have redundant electrical systems.

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69
Q

Of the cockpit screens, FMS, RMU’s, and flight instrumentation, which are available in the essential power mode following a loss of all generators?

A

The EICAS, RMU1/2, and the standby instruments/ISIS.

Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Electrical

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70
Q

What criteria must be established in order to have shed bus power in flight?

A

At least 3 generators must be online for shed bus power in flight.

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71
Q

With GPU power available and selected, where should the shed bus switch be positioned to energize the shed buses?

A

Auto or Override.

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72
Q

Is DME available when is essential power mode?

A

No, but VOR or LOC type approaches may be flown so long as DME is not required.

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73
Q

Define the EICAS master warning ELEC ESS XFR FAIL.

A

The electrical system has failed to properly transfer into the essential power mode following a loss of all generators.

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74
Q

What is the function of the backup battery button on the overhead panel?

A

The backup battery button connects or disconnects the backup battery from the electrical system (via hot bus1).

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75
Q

What items are powered from the backup battery/backup hot bus?

A

The Electrical Distribution Logic, the 5 Generator Control Units and the ISIS (XR only).

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76
Q

What is the power source for SG 2?

A

DC Bus 2.

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77
Q

How are the emergency light batteries charged?

A

The emergency light batteries are charged by Essential DC Bus 2.

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78
Q

How are the aisle pathways illuminated on the XR, and what charges it?

A

The aisle path lighting is provided from photoluminescent strips. The strips must be charged by allowing an un-obstructed exposure to the normal cabin lighting for 10 minutes on the first flight of the day.

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79
Q

What power source energizes the emergency lighting system on the 135 EP/LR, 145 EP/LR?

A

Four dedicated batteries provide power to the emergency lighting system. The batteries are charged via essential DC bus 2 when they are not in use.

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80
Q

How long will the emergency lighting last?

A

The batteries will provide power for approximately 15 minutes.

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81
Q

Is it possible for the flight attendant to activate emergency lighting if the cockpit emergency light switch is set to OFF?

A

Yes, the flight attendant may override the cockpit switch and turn on emergency lighting anytime.

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82
Q

Can the emergency light batteries be charged while they are in use?

A

No, the batteries are only charged when the emergency light switch is in the ARM position and the lights are not in use.

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83
Q

What is the power source of the nosewheel taxi and landing lights?

A

The nosewheel lights are shed bus powered.

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84
Q

How can the flight crew determine whether or not the lavatory fire extinguisher has been used?

A

No cockpit indication is available. The extinguisher is inspected by MX personnel.

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85
Q

What occurs when the fire handle is pulled?

A

When pulled, the fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and engine lip anti-icing shutoff valves of the associated engine are closed.

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86
Q

How many smoke goggles are in the cockpit?

A

3

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87
Q

What generates a FIRE DET FAIL message?

A

Low pressure in the fire loop of the engine(s) and/or APU.

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88
Q

What happens when the APU EXT button is pressed?

A

When pressed, the APU fuel shutoff valve is closed, an APU shutdown is initiated (a stop request signal is sent to the FADEC) and the APU fire extinguisher bottle is discharged.

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89
Q

How many Halon fire extinguishers are available for the engines?

A

2 Halon fire extinguishers are installed and are useable by either engine.

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90
Q

Is APU fire detection and protection available when the aircraft is de-powered?

A

No

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91
Q

How does pulling a fire handle affect the hydraulic system?

A

Pulling the fire handle closes the hydraulic shutoff valve. Hydraulic pressure could still be supplied by the electric hydraulic pump on the associated side.

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92
Q

With a loss of all generators and the C fuel pumps selected, will the engines flame out?

A

No. The A and B pumps continue to cycle to provide fuel pressure to the engine. This is not seen anywhere since the MFD is lost.

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93
Q

Where is the cross feed valve placed when de-fueling?

A

Low 2.

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94
Q

Is a takeoff allowed with the Fuel Imbalance EICAS message displayed?

A

As long as the imbalance is not exceeded (800 lbs.). The EICAS message remains illuminated until the imbalance is within 100 lb.

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95
Q

How many fuel pumps are in each collector box?

A

3 electrical fuel booster pumps and 1 transfer ejector pump.

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96
Q

What does the EICAS warning FUEL LOW LEVEL mean?

A

Less than approximately 30 minutes (463 lbs.)of fuel remains in the respective tank.

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97
Q

What prevents pump cavitation during extended wing low maneuvers and un- coordinated flight?

A

A collector box keeps the fuel pumps submerged in fuel. Flapper valves prevent fuel from moving from the wing root to tip. An ejector pump also assists in supplying fuel to the collector box.

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98
Q

When does ventral tank transfer occur on the EMB-145XR?

A

Automatic fuel transfer from the ventral tank to the main wing tanks occur when both wing tanks individually have a quantity less than 4630 lbs. for at least 30 seconds.

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99
Q

Tank 1 has 3500 lbs. Tank 2 has 3700 lbs. How should the crossfeed switch be positioned to balance fuel?

A

The switch should be set to LOW 1.

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100
Q

What fuel pumps are available when DC power is lost?

A

The A and B pumps in each wing tank are available.

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101
Q

What happens if the selected fuel pump fails?

A

If fuel pressure drops below 6.5 psi, the remaining wing pumps are automatically switched on and start cycling, until the pilot selects one of them.

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102
Q

Where is the MFD fuel temperature value measured?

A

The temperature is measured in the left wing tank.

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103
Q

Is fuel crossfeed available without DC power?

A

Yes, the valve is essentially powered.

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104
Q

What happens when the APU fuel shutoff button is pressed?

A

The APU Fuel SOV closes and the APU fuel solenoid valves close (via a request signal).

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105
Q

What will the APU shut down for automatically on the ground? In flight?

A

On the ground, essentially any malfunction (Fire, after 10 seconds), in flight, anything not heat related.

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106
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for attempting an APU start?

A

19.0 V

107
Q

What power sources may be used to start the APU?

A

Three power sources may be used to start the APU: a GPU, battery 2 alone or battery 2 assisted by the main generators. Battery 1 cannot be used for APU starting; instead, it is isolated from the load buses to provide stable electrical power for voltage-sensitive equipment.

108
Q

What will occur if a fire is detected in the APU compartment?

A

An automatic shutdown will occur 10 seconds after a fire is detected or after holding the fire detection test button 10 seconds.

109
Q

What will not cause an APU automatic shutdown in flight?

A

Any heat-related malfunction.

110
Q

What actuates the stators equipped with compressor variable geometry?

A

The stators are positioned by means of fuel pressure from the FPMU.

111
Q

What is the power source for the engine ignition system (igniters)?

A

The PMA above 10% N2. Nothing below 10 N2%

112
Q

Of the following thrust ratings, which is not selectable via the T/O data setting function? ALT-TO, TO, E-TO, TO-RSV

A

TO-RSV

113
Q

What thrust ratings are available for the XR using the T/O data setting function?

A

ALT-TO, TO, E-TO.

114
Q

What is the power source of the engine FADECS?

A

The PMA at all engine speeds above 50% N2, otherwise, the FADECS are powered by the essential buses.

115
Q

When approximately is fuel introduced during the engine starting sequence?

A

Fuel should be introduced at approximately 28.5% N2.

116
Q

Where can engine oil quantity be monitored?

A

MFD TO page.

117
Q

What portion of the compressor section is equipped with compressor variable geometry?

A

The inlet guide vane and the first five stages of the compressor.

118
Q

Of the following, which component is not located in the engine’s accessory drive gear box? Engine driven generator, oil pump, ejector pump, hydraulic pump.

A

Ejector pump.

119
Q

What happens when a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

A

The FADEC reduces the engine thrust to idle.

120
Q

What happens to the engine when the FADEC in control fails?

A

The other FADEC takes over control of the engine.

121
Q

What will happen to the engine in the event of an N1 overspeed?

A

The FADEC will initiate an automatic engine shutdown

122
Q

What drives the items on the Accessory Drive Gearbox?

A

The items on the Accessory Gearbox are driven by the high-pressure spool via the tower shaft.

123
Q

What happens when both FADECs for an engine fails?

A

An engine shutdown would occur. The engine requires at least one FADEC to operate.

124
Q

Which hydraulic accumulator is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for emergency brake applications?

A

System #2 accumulator.

125
Q

The System 2 accumulator has enough stored hydraulic pressure to supply a total of ________ applications or ________ hours of continuous emergency brake pressure?

A

6 applications or 24 hours.

126
Q

During normal flight, the engine driven hydraulic pump supplies a total pressure
output of _______ PSI.

A

3,000 PSI.

127
Q

Which hydraulic system is responsible for flap operation?

A

Neither, the flap motors are DC powered and do not depend on hydraulic power for operation.

128
Q

Assuming both engines running with the electric hydraulic pump knob in the
AUTO position, what is the status of the electric hydraulic pumps?

A

The pump is kept in standby until the engine driven pump pressure drops below a set value of 1600 PSI or the associated engine N2 drops below a set value of 56.4%N2.

129
Q

Can the hydraulic system temperature be monitored on the EICAS or MFD’s?

A

No.

130
Q

The ailerons are normally powered by which hydraulic system(s)?

A

System 1 and System 2.

131
Q

Can the hydraulic quantity for system 1 and system 2 be monitored?

A

Yes, MFD (HYD) Hydraulics page.

132
Q

If describing the hydraulic systems what is the main difference between system 1 and system 2 from a mechanical/components standpoint?

A

System 1 utilizes a priority valve.

133
Q

What is the purpose of the priority valve in hydraulic system 1?

A

It restricts hydraulic pressure from the landing gear during retraction to ensure adequate hydraulic pressure for the flight controls during electric hydraulic pump operation. The system 1 accumulator pressure will provide the necessary pressure required for gear retraction during this particular instance.

134
Q

In essential power, are the electric hydraulic pumps powered?

A

No, they are DC powered.

135
Q

The hydraulic accumulator #1 provides pressure for what?

A

Landing gear retraction.

136
Q

The hydraulic accumulator #2 provides pressure for what?

A

Emergency Brakes.

137
Q

In normal cruise flight conditions, the electric hydraulic pumps are producing a psi output of___________.

A

O PSi.

138
Q

The nose wheel steering is hydraulically powered by which hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic System 1.

139
Q

During a hydraulic system test, what is the first step in performing the test?

A

Ensure that the nose wheel steering is disengaged and both engine hydraulic pump shutoff buttons are deselected (normal position).

140
Q

On the nose landing gear tires, the tire chines are mounted outboard or inboard?

A

Outboard.

141
Q

When using the emergency brakes, do you have the anti-skid, locked wheel and touchdown protections?

A

No.

142
Q

Describe the anti-skid braking function.

A

Anti-skid provides the maximum allowable braking effort for the runway surface in use. It minimizes tire wear, optimizes braking distance, and prevents skidding. The BCU computes the wheel speed signals from the four wheel speed transducers. If one signal/wheel falls below the wheel speed average, a skid is probably occurring, and braking pressure is relieved on that side. After that wheel speed has returned to the average wheel speed, normal braking operation is restored. The anti-skid protection is available above 10 knots wheel speed to allow the pilot to lock and pivot a wheel.

143
Q

Describe the locked wheel protection.

A

If one wheel speed is 30% lower than that of another as calculated by the wheel speed transducers and computed by the BCU, a full brake pressure relief is commanded to the associated wheel, allowing wheel speed recovery. The 30% tolerance between the wheel speeds is provided to permit an amount of differential braking, for steering purposes. The locked wheel protection is active above 30 knots wheel speed.

144
Q

In essential power mode, is nose wheel steering available?

A

No.

145
Q

When operating the emergency brakes, hydraulic pressure is applied to which brakes?

A

All main gear brakes.

146
Q

What does the Free-Fall actuator do?

A

It requires no electrical or hydraulic power to extend the landing gear. It extends the gear by mechanically actuating the Free-Fall Selector Valve, thus removing hydraulic pressure and unlocking the three landing gear leg uplocks via cable linkage. All three gear then gravity fall to their downlock devices.

147
Q

With a total loss of hydraulic system #1, will the landing gear deploy/operate normally?

A

No.

148
Q

When in essential power mode would you have normal braking?

A

Yes.

149
Q

The nose wheel air/ground (WOW) sensor provides a signal for?

A

Nose wheels steering activation and thrust reverser logic.

150
Q

Nose wheel tire rotation is stopped on retraction by a ________.

A

Mechanical snubber.

151
Q

The landing gear is normally help up ___ and extended ___

A

Mechanically/Hydraulically.

152
Q

What is the purpose of the landing gear over-center brace?

A

The over-center brace keeps the landing gear down and locked.

153
Q

In essential power, how is the landing gear extended?

A

Normally.

154
Q

Does the emergency brake provide anti-skid protection?

A

No, it has no anti-skid protection, touchdown protection, or wheel lock protection.

155
Q

The emergency brake lines supply how many brakes?

A

4 brakes.

156
Q

If emergency brakes are all that remain due to system malfunction the hydraulic accumulator 2 can provide how many applications of the emergency brakes?

A

6 applications of the emergency brakes or 24 hours.

157
Q

If engine 1 is shutdown in flight, how is the landing gear extended?

A

Normally with the gear handle.

158
Q

Will the landing gear deploy normally with a total loss of hydraulic system 1?

A

No, the gear will not deploy/operate normally. It must be deployed by using the freefall actuator as directed by the QRH. Once the gear is deployed and extended it cannot be retracted.

159
Q

When in manual reversion, the elevators, ailerons and rudder can all be actuated mechanically.

A

Yes.

160
Q

True/False. The flaps are powered by DC power.

A

True, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

161
Q

What flap settings may be used for normal landing procedures in the EMB- 135/145?

A

Flaps 22°/Flaps 45°

162
Q

Which panels are used as speedbrakes?

A

The outboard panels powered by hydraulic system number 2.

163
Q

True/False: The ground spoilers open when the airplane is on the ground (WOW), wheel speed >25 knots and a low TLA.

A

True.

164
Q

During normal cruise flight (above 135 KIAS), the rudder Power Control Unit receives hydraulic pressure from which hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic system 2.

165
Q

The EICAS message “FLAP LOW SPEED” is a result of a loss of __________.

A

One of the flap motors.

166
Q

True/False: The gust lock prevents the movement of the ailerons.

A

False, the gust lock restricts the elevator from moving.

167
Q

Ailerons are normally positioned utilizing how many hydraulic systems in flight?

A

2, both hydraulic system 1 and 2 power the ailerons in flight.

168
Q

The caution “Rudder Overboost” means?

A

Rudder hydraulic system 1 is still on above 135 KIAS.

169
Q

True/False: The rudder PCU is normally powered by both hydraulic systems below 135 knots KIAS

A

True.

170
Q

True/False: The flaps are powered in essential power.

A

False, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

171
Q

True/False: The speedbrakes will not open if the flaps are extended to flaps 22°.

A

True.

172
Q

True/False: ExpressJet allows takeoffs to be made with flap 22 degrees selected.

A

False, Flaps 9 or Flaps 18 are the only approved takeoff flaps settings approved for ExpressJet aircraft.

173
Q

What are the requirements for the speedbrakes to be open?

A

The flap lever has to be at 0 or 9 degrees, the speedbrake lever has to be selected to OPEN, a low TLA (thrust lever angle).

174
Q

True/False: Pitch trim is accomplished by positioning the horizontal stabilizer.

A

True, by positioning the horizontal stabilizer.

175
Q

Where does engine bleed air come from?

A

The 9th and 14th stages of the compressor. Coordination

176
Q

How would the bleeds and packs be configured for a summer takeoff in IAH with an APU deferred by MEL?

A

Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, PACKS off.

177
Q

When does the aircraft use 14th stage bleed air?

A

Low thrust settings, cross-bleed engine starts, icing operations

178
Q

What is the normal, in-flight position of the crossbleed knob and the crossbleed valve?

A

The cross-bleed valve is in the AUTO position, and the cross-bleed valve is closed.

179
Q

When will the cross-bleed valve open automatically when the cross-bleed knob is in the AUTO position?

A

During a cross-bleed start or anytime that there is demand for bleed air from the other side of the system. Other examples include: engine 1 start from an external air source and an engine 2 start with the APU.

180
Q

Regarding the priority logic of the available bleed sources, if the APU bleed was selected open, what would occur after opening the engine 1 bleed valve?

A

The APU bleed valve would close.

181
Q

What are the indications of a bleed leak?

A

A red ‘LEAK’ inscription appears over the button of the affected bleed. Additionally, the EICAS BLD 1(2) LEAK master warning will be presented.

182
Q

What automatically happens after a bleed leak has been detected?

A

The affected bleed valve should automatically close.

183
Q

What indications would be visible on the APU bleed valve button if the APU is OFF and the APU bleed valve is selected open?

A

A white line only. The ‘OPEN’ inscription would not be visible.

184
Q

What does the message ‘BLD 1(2) OVTEMP’ mean?

A

A bleed over-temp message indicates that the air downstream of the pre- cooler is too hot. The bleed valve, however, will not automatically close.

185
Q

While taxiing in icing conditions, is it possible for the APU bleed to be used on the ground for the PACKS while simultaneously using engine lip anti-ice protection?

A

Yes, the bleed air used for engine lip anti-ice protection does not require the engine bleed valve to be open.

186
Q

When would the crossbleed valve open when in the auto position?

A

During a crossbleed engine start

187
Q

How would the PACKS operate in icing conditions at 2000’ AGL in CLB thrust?

A

PACK 1 is off and PACK 2 is on.

188
Q

What is a PACK overheat?

A

A PACK overheat is caused by the air leaving the pack being too hot.

189
Q

How would the PACKS operate during a go-around at 1100 AGL?

A

Both PACKS would turn off.

190
Q

What is a PACK overload?

A

This problem indicates that the air pressure entering the PACK is too high or that the air temperature downstream of the compressor is too hot.

191
Q

What altitude must be set in the pressurization controller?

A

The landing elevation

192
Q

What is the maximum operational altitude with one PACK inoperative?

A

FL250

193
Q

During a takeoff in icing conditions, when will pressurization begin?

A

The cabin will begin to pressurize when the PACKs are selected ON during the after takeoff flow/checklist.

194
Q

What is the static source of the Cabin Pressurization Acquisition Module (CPAM)?

A

Pitot/Static 3.

195
Q

What is the function of the DUMP button on the automatic pressurization controller?

A

The DUMP button will de-pressurize the cabin of the aircraft to an altitude of 14,500’ MSL or to the actual altitude of the aircraft, whichever is lower.

196
Q

What is the purpose of the pressurization/ static ports located on the lower / rear portion of the fuselage?

A

The purpose of the pressurization/static ports is to provide over- pressure/under-pressure relief should the cabin differential exceed 8.1 PSI or -0.3 PSI.

197
Q

Would engine lip anti-ice protection be available on the aircraft after a loss of all DC power?

A

Yes. Although the engine lip anti-ice valve is DC powered, it fails in the open position.

198
Q

When is the wing and horizontal stabilizer anti-ice protection inhibited?

A

On the ground with a wheel speed < 25 knots.

199
Q

What differences are found in the XR anti-ice systems compared to the other EMB- 135/145 variants?

A

The 145XR upper wing surface contains DC-powered clear ice detectors that function on the ground only.

200
Q

What differences are found in the XR anti-ice systems compared to the other EMB- 135/145 variants?

A

The 145XR upper wing surface contains DC-powered clear ice detectors that function on the ground only.

201
Q

What power sources allows for electrical heating of Pitot/Satic 3?

A

An essential bus.

202
Q

When will the clear ice detectors on the 145XR trigger a CLR ICE EICAS message?

A

On the ground only, when clear ice is detected on the upper surface of the wing.

203
Q

What is the functionality of engine lip anti-ice protection in the essential power configuration with a loss of all generators?

A

The engine lip anti-ice system operates continuously and cannot be turned off. The engine-lip anti-ice valve is DC powered and fails open.

204
Q

During essential power with a loss of all generators, is wing and stabilizer anti-ice protection available?

A

No, wing & stabilizer anti-ice is DC powered.

205
Q

During ice test A, where should the override knob be positioned and how long should the test switch be held?

A

The override knob should be placed in the ALL position and the test switch must be held in each position for at least 10, no longer than 15 seconds.

206
Q

How are the bleeds configured for a takeoff in icing conditions?

A

The engine bleeds should be open and the APU bleed should be closed.

207
Q

Is it possible to use the APU bleed for air conditioning while taxiing in icing conditions?

A

Yes. The APU bleed may be used to provide air conditioning. The engine lip anti-icing bleed air is tapped off prior to the engine bleed valve. For this reason, the engine bleed may be closed during a taxi in icing conditions.

208
Q

When is engine lip anti-ice required?

A

Whenever the temperature is less than or equal to 10° C and at least one form of visible moisture is present.

209
Q

When is an ice protection penalty required when evaluating the runway analysis charts?

A

Whenever Ref A/ICE ON is selected in the takeoff data during a takeoff in icing conditions.

210
Q

What ice protection is available for the static ports, pitot tubes, and TAT probes?

A

They are heated electrically

211
Q

When will the ice protection system be automatically activated?

A

Anytime one or both ice detectors detect ice.

212
Q

What should be checked when conducting Ice Test A?

A

For each side, separately, check that the OPEN inscriptions in the deice valve buttons are illuminated and that ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL and BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP caution messages and the ICE CONDITION advisory message are displayed on the EICAS.

213
Q

What should be checked when conducting the on ground portion of Ice Test B (non-XR)?

A

For each side, separately, check that the ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL and BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP caution messages and the ICE CONDITION advisory message are displayed on the EICAS.

214
Q

What should be checked when conducting the in flight portion of Ice Test B?

A

Select the Override knob to ALL for 20 seconds and check that the OPEN inscriptions in the buttons are illuminated and the NO ICE-A/ICE ON caution message is displayed on the EICAS. The CROSS BLD OPEN advisory message may also be displayed.

215
Q

At what altitude and temperature range should the in fight portion of Ice Test B be accomplished?

A

From 2,000’ AGL to 23,000’ MSL and a SAT less than 10°C

216
Q

What supplies oxygen to the flight crew while wearing the oxygen mask?

A

The fixed oxygen cylinder.

217
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks drop when the passenger oxygen switch is in the AUTO position?

A

At cabin altitudes of 14,000 ft, or 14,500 +/- 500 ft (XR).

Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-16, Passenger Oxygen

218
Q

What is the minimum pressure of the portable oxygen bottle allowed for dispatch?

A

1200 PSI.

219
Q

What will occur if the passenger oxygen selector knob is set to MANUAL?

A

The oxygen masks will deploy immediately, regardless of cabin altitude.

220
Q

What associated actions occur following the deployment of the passenger oxygen masks?

A

The NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign will automatically be illuminated.

221
Q

What provides oxygen supply for the passenger oxygen masks?

A

Oxygen is supplied via chemical oxygen generators.

222
Q

What is the purpose of the green discharge indicator on the fuselage, adjacent to the oxygen service panel?

A

The green discharge indicator provides evidence of over-servicing of the oxygen cylinder if it is missing/blown out.

223
Q

What must occur for the passenger to receive oxygen from the mask?

A

They must pull downward on the mask to commence the oxygen generation and the flow of oxygen.

224
Q

What does the OXYGEN LOW PRESS EICAS message indicate?

A

The message indicates that the crew oxygen system (fixed cylinder) pressure is at or below 400 PSI.

225
Q

The standby instruments receive information from which aircraft pitot/static source?

A

Pitot/Static tube 3.

226
Q

When does the DFDR begin and end recording and how long will it record for?

A

When the red beacon is switched ON or when the airplane becomes airborne. Recording time is last 25 hours.

227
Q

Can COM 3 be used for voice communication when the emergency button (EMER) is pushed in (selected) on the digital audio panel?

A

No.

228
Q

What does the emergency button (EMER) on the digital audio panel do?

A

The Captain is connected directly to COM 1 and NAV 1 and the First Officer is connected directly to COM 2 and NAV 2. Observer radio communication capability is lost. Interphone is disabled.

229
Q

Will the tuning backup control head (TBCH) remain powered in essential power?

A

No, it is powered by DC Bus 2.

230
Q

How can the radar be brought out of FSBY on the ground?

A

The forced standby mode may be overridden on the ground by pushing the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.

231
Q

What is the function of the GAIN knob?

A

The GAIN knob can be used to vary the sensitivity of the receiver. This will also result in a variance of color intensity displayed for a radar return.

232
Q

What mode can be used to display areas where all radar energy has been attenuated?

A

The REACT, or rain echo attenuation compensation technique mode.

233
Q

Where does the standby airspeed indicator receive its pitot/static information from?

A

Pitot/Static 3 provides dynamic pressure to the standby airspeed indicator.

234
Q

What vertical speed does FLC give you in a descent above 12,000 feet?

A

2,000 FPM.

235
Q

In Heading mode, Low Bank will give lateral guidance restricted to a maximum bank angle of ____.

A

14°.

236
Q

When pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground while taxiing:

A

TO mode is activated on the flight director.

237
Q

What is the minimum engagement height for the autopilot (feet)?

A

500’ AGL.

238
Q

On non-XR aircraft above 12,000 in FLC, the aircraft climbs at what speed?

A

270 KIAS until MACH 0.56.

239
Q

Which button should be pressed to display FMS course data on the PFD?

A

FMS.

240
Q

Full bank is equal to _______ degrees?

A

27°.

241
Q

At what altitude must the autopilot be disengaged on a CAT I ILS approach?

A

200’ AGL.

242
Q

The aircraft heading must be within ___ degrees of the final approach course (front course) prior to selecting the APR or NAV mode.

A

90°.

243
Q

What actions will disconnect the autopilot?

A

Pilot actuation of either of the pitch trim switches, the ‘AP’ or ‘YD’ button on the Flight Guidance Control Panel’, pressing the quick disconnect button.

244
Q

During climb, FLC works just like.

A

IAS/Mach but with preset speeds.

245
Q

True/False: The yaw damper is automatically turned on when the autopilot is engaged.

A

True.

246
Q

What pitch attitude does the GA flight guidance mode present immediately after being armed (airspeed above the white band of the low speed awareness tape)?

A

10°.

247
Q

Crews must always verify that the autopilot is coupled to the PF by looking at the ___________.

A

Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).

248
Q

If FMS is the selected NAV source on the display control panel, which button on the flight control panel would push to arm LNAV?

A

NAV.

249
Q

Arming the TO vertical flight guidance mode will position the command bars to:.

A

14° pitch up attitude - flaps 9°/13° pitch up attitude - flaps 18°.

250
Q

What is the default vertical flight guidance mode?

A

PIT (pitch).

251
Q

Pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground causes the following lateral/vertical guidance to be displayed on the FMA.

A

ROL/TO (roll/takeoff).

252
Q

A test setup

A

ParkingBrake ………………………… SET
ThrustLevers ………………………………. 83%N2 IceDetectionOverrideKnob……………………….. ALL IceDetectionTestKnob ………………………1,THEN 2
The test knob must be held at least 10 seconds in each test position but no more than 15 seconds. Holding the test knob in the 1 or 2 position for more than 15 seconds may cause structural damage due to excessive heating.

253
Q

What indications for A test?

A 
OPEN inscriptions in the deice valve buttons are illuminated
ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL 
ICE CONDITION
BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP 
CROSS BLD OPEN
254
Q

Coupled go-around height loss may be _______

A

50 feet

255
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT II approach?

A

1200

256
Q

Minimum equipment for RVSM?

A

2 Primary Altimeters
1 Autopilot with Altitude Hold Operative
1 Altitude Alerter
1 Transponder

257
Q

Besides Fire, Smoke, and other catastrophes, what are the 5 named items for which to abort?

A 
(RRAIL)
REV DISAGREE
REV FAIL
ATTCS NO MARGIN
ICE COND/A/I INOP
LOW N1
258
Q

A1E Engines ITT limitations

A

Up to 970, 5 minutes max

971 - 992, 90 Seconds Max

259
Q

******DAILY DOUBLE*******

Min/Max Fuel Temperature, Min/Max Fuel Tank Temperature?

A

Fuel Temp: -54 to 52

Fuel Tank: -40 to 52

260
Q

Fire Test Indications (All)

A 
Fire Handles Illuminated
Master Warning/Master Caution Buttons Illuminated
Aural Fire Bell
EICAS:
Engine Fire
APU Fire
Bag Smoke
Engine Fire Detection Fail
APU Fire Detection Fail
BAG EXTG Button Illuminate
261
Q

How many fuel nozzles?

A

16

262
Q

What are the minimum recommended oil quantities for leaving a hub and an outstation respectively?

A

8 and 7 quarts

263
Q

What will happen when the left ic600 fails?

A

Lose pfd1, mfd1, eicas

Embraer 145 Oral Prep (1 decks)

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