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oral exam Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What documents must you have with you to fly the airplane?

A

Pilot certificate, medical certificate, and government issued photo ID
student: logbook

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2
Q

What are your limitations as a student pilot?

A
  1. No passengers
  2. Cannot carry property for compensation or hire
  3. Cannot fly in furtherance of a business
  4. Cannot fly with a flight or surface visibility of less than 3sm during the day and 5sm at night and flight
    must be made with visual references to the surface.
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3
Q

What privileges and limitations apply to private pilot?

A

Privileges – Act as PIC and carry passengers – conduct search and rescue operations; fly for
charitable, non-profit, or community event; act as an aircraft salesman if you have at least 200
hours.
Limitations – Cannot fly for hire; must pay no less than pro rata share

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4
Q

Do you need to take your logbook with you?

A

Only as a solo student pilot on a cross country flight

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5
Q

What type of pilot certificate do you have? Does it expire?

A

Under 40, a student pilot certificate expires after 60 calendar months
Over 40 it expires after 24 calendar months

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6
Q

How do we keep our pilot certificate current?

A

Student pilot: with valid medical certificate

PPL: Flight review every 24 calendar months

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7
Q

What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers? (

A 
3 take offs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class and
type if required. At night, these 3 landings must be made to a full stop
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8
Q

Night definition? When can you perform required night landings? (

A

Night = the time between evening civil twilight and morning civil twilight
Night landings can be logged 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

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9
Q

How long is a medical valid for?

A

1st: 12 months then to 2nd: 24 then 3rd to 60 months

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10
Q

When will an aircraft registration certificate expire?

A

3 years

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11
Q

Which weight and balance information must be in the aircraft, the one on the takeoff data
card or the one in the airplane flight manual?

A

Updated weight and balance equipment list in the AFM

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12
Q

With respect to the certification, privileges, and limitations of airmen, what do category,
class, and type mean?

A

Category: Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter-Than-Air etc.
Class: Single Engine Land/Sea, Multi Engine Land/Sea
Type: specific to aircraft – only required for aircraft with a max gross weight equal or greater than
12,500lbs, turbojet, or any aircraft specified by the FAA to require one

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13
Q

If a pilot changes his permanent mailing address, how long can the pilot continue to exercise
the privileges of their pilot certificate without notifying the FAA?

A

30 days

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14
Q

Does an Airworthiness Certificate ever expire?

A

Not as long as inspections are kept up to date and manufacturer’s original design is adhered to

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15
Q

Does the POH meet the requirement of having an AFM?

A

Yes. The POH for most light aircraft built after 1975 is also the FAA designated AFM.

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16
Q

Who says we have to follow the POH?

A

FAR 91.9 states, “…no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating
limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual…”

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17
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition

A

The owner/operator

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18
Q

Discuss AVIATES. Required Inspections

A

Annual – every 12 calendar months (91.409)
VOR – every 30 days for IFR (91.171)
100 hour if airplane is being operated for hire
Altimeter/Pitot Static – 24 calendar months; required for IFR flight (91.411)
Transponder – 24 calendar months (91.413)
ELT – 12 calendar months or after 1 hour cumulative use or half of battery life (91.207)
Service bulletins and ADs complied with

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19
Q

What is an Airworthiness Directive? Is it mandatory?

A

FAA issued order to fix a known issue. It is mandatory.

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20
Q

What different kinds of AD’s are there?

A

Emergency – These require immediate compliance before flight
One Time – After the AD is complied with once, there is no further need to address the specified
issue
Recurring – This AD must be complied with at the specified interval.

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21
Q

Can you over fly an annual? 100 hour?

A

The only way to overfly an annual is to obtain a special flight permit from the FSDO.
A 100 hour inspection may be overflown by no more than 10 hours and only if enroute to the
place where the inspection will be done. An annual inspection can be substituted for the 100 hour
however, a 100 hour cannot substitute an annual inspection

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22
Q

Do you need to have an ELT in the airplane today?

A

Not needed for training within 50 nm of home airport

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23
Q

What equipment and instruments do you need to have in the airplane for today’s flight?

A

ATOMATOFLAMES (91.205b)
Altimeter
Tachometer
Oil temperature gauge
Magnetic compass
Airspeed Indicator
Temperature gauge (for liquid cooled engines)
Oil pressure
Fuel quantity gauge
Landing gear position indicator (for retractable landing gear)
Anti-collision lights – Aviation red or white (e.g. red rotating beacon or white strobes)
Manifold pressure gauge (for airplanes with a constant speed propeller)
ELT
12 1 .5
Seatbelts

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24
Q

How about if you were to fly tonight? FLAPS

A

Fuses 3 of each kind or 1 complete set
Landing light if airplane is being flown for hire (including flight training)
Anti-collision lights
Position lights – Also called navigation lights – red on the left side, green on the right and white
on the tail
Source of electricity – Battery or alternator

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25
Q

What would you do if you found that the landing light was inoperative?

A

Cannot fly at night per the FARs – During the day you would deactivate or remove the component
and placard it inoperative (deactivating could be as simple as pulling the circuit breaker out)

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26
Q

Can you fly an airplane with known inoperative equipment?

A

Yes, if it is not included in 91.205 and it has been deactivated/removed and placarded inoperative

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27
Q

What is a Minimum Equipment List?

A

An FAA approved list of equipment that can be inoperative

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28
Q

Can an aircraft owner change an MEL

A

If a change is sought, a letter and a proposed MEL that is based off of the Master MEL must be
sent to the FAA for approval

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29
Q

What are the four forces of flight?

A

Lift Weight Thrust Drag

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30
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers, and trim systems (anti-servo tab)

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31
Q

How is lift created?

A

Newton’s 3rd law - Airfoils accelerate airflow downward. The equal and opposite reaction as
described by Newton forces the airfoil upwards.
Bernoulli’s Principle – As the velocity of a fluid or gas increases the pressure decreases. High
speed air over the upper surface creates low pressure area while comparatively lower speed air
beneath the wing creates high pressure which produces an upwards force that contributes to the
total lift.

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32
Q

Explain the different types of drag

A

Parasite – increases with speed
Some types of parasite drag include form, skin friction, and interference drag.
Induced – byproduct of lift, decreases with speed
High pressure airflow from beneath the wing has the tendency to spill over the wingtips to
equalize the lower pressure above. When this happens, turbulent whirl pools called wingtip
vortices form and create drag

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33
Q

What is the airspeed where Induced and Parasite drag meet?

A

Vg – Best glide speed

This is also described as L/D Max or the maximum lift to drag ratio.

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34
Q

What is camber? Can we change it?

A

Curvature of the wing – it can be changed by extending/retracting flaps

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35
Q

What is angle of incidence? Can we change it?

A

The angle between the wing chord line and the fuselage – it cannot be changed

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36
Q

What is center of gravity? What happens when it moves forward/aft?

A

Forward CG – This is a nose heavy condition that results in the pilot having to use more back
pressure to maintain a level flight attitude. More tail down force means that the wings must
overcome this weight. The cruise speed is lower because of this. The imposed load increases the
stall speed.
Aft CG – Less tail down force (provided by our stabilator) is required when flying with an aft CG.
This means that the wings also have less of this load to overcome therefore there is less overall
drag allowing for a faster cruise speed. Because stall speeds increase with load, an aft CG also
means that the stall speed is lower. The distance between the CG and the stabilator is crucial in
maintaining authority over the control surface. An aft CG means a shorter arm and thus, less
authority. This translates into adverse stall recovery characteristics.

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37
Q

What causes a wing to stall?

A

The wing will stall anytime the critical angle of attack is exceeded.

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38
Q

How does temperature change the takeoff distance? Weight? Air density?

A

High temperatures = less dense air
Less dense air exerts less force on airfoils (wings and propeller) making them less efficient and
also deprives the engine of power. This leads to longer take off rolls and decreased climb
performance.
Higher weight also leads to longer take off rolls and increased landing distance because it takes
more engine power to accelerate a heavy aircraft to Vr and more braking power to slow the
aircraft down.

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39
Q

What are the different types of airspeeds? Altitudes?

A

IAS – indicated
CAS – calibrated (IAS corrected for instrument, position, and installation error) It is equal to TAS
in the standard atmosphere at sea level.
TAS – true (CAS corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure)
GS – ground (TAS corrected for wind)
Indicated – altitude as read off of the altimeter with appropriate setting
Pressure – vertical distance above the standard datum plane: a theoretical plane where sea level
pressure exists. It can be found by setting 29.92 in Kollsman window and reading the altitude.
Density - Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temp.
True – vertical distance above sea level (MSL)
Absolute - vertical distance above terrain (AGL)

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40
Q

True altitude

A

vertical distance above MSL

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41
Q

Absolute altitude

A

Vertical distance above terrain AGL

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42
Q

Calculate pressure/density altitude.

A 
PA = Altitude (field elevation) + (29.92 - current altimeter setting) x 1000
DA = PA + [120 x (outside air temp.in degrees Celsius – standard temp. for that altitude)]
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43
Q

What factors affect air density?

A

Heat – warm air expands is less dense
Height (altitude) – air at higher altitudes is less dense
Humidity – A parcel of humid air is less dense because water molecules take up more room and
spread out the air molecules

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44
Q

Why is the ramp weight different from takeoff weight?

A

Ramp weight = max weight approved for ground maneuvers (taxi)
Takeoff weight = max weight approved for takeoff run

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45
Q

How does wind affect takeoff and landing?

A

Headwinds decrease takeoff and landing roll – Tailwinds increase the takeoff and landing roll

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46
Q

Does Vg change? Why?

A

Vg is only 70 at max gross weight. Vg will be slower at a lower weight

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47
Q

When would you want to climb at Vx? How about a Vy climb?

A

Vx is used to clear an obstacle

Vy is used to get to altitude in the shortest amount of time

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48
Q

Explain left turning tendencies. TGAS

A

Torque – clockwise spinning prop causes airplane to roll left about the longitudinal axis. This is an
example of Newton’s 3rd law.
Gyroscopic Precession – During a descent the tail rises and causes a force to felt on the top of the
propeller. The resultant force is therefore 90 degrees ahead in the direction of the rotation
(RIGHT SIDE of propeller) causing a left yawing tendency
Asymmetrical Thrust – In a climb, the descending propeller blade (RIGHT SIDE) has a greater
angle of attack and therefore creates more lift. This causes a left yawing tendency.
Spiraling Slipstream – Propeller wash strikes the aircraft of the left side of the vertical stabilizer
causing a left yawing tendency.

49
Q

Explain Stability

A

Lateral Stability – Resistance to roll
Longitudinal Stability – Resistance to pitch
Vertical Stability – Resistance to yaw

50
Q

What does “normally aspirated” mean?

A

Ambient air enters the intake manifold – there is no turbo or supercharger

51
Q

What is used to cool the engine?

A

Air intakes at the front of the engine cowling allow outside air to cool the cylinders. Fins on the
filters allow a greater surface area to be exposed and thus cooled by the air. Engine oil is crucial
in internal engine cooling.

52
Q

Why do we need oil in the engine?

A

Lubricates - all of the engine’s moving parts
Cools – reduces friction and removes heat from the cylinders
Seals – it creates a seal between the cylinder walls and pistons
Cleans – carries away contaminants inside of the engine

53
Q

What is meant by four-stroke”?

A
  1. Intake valve opens as downward moving piston pulls fuel/air mixture into cylinder
  2. Intake valve closes as piston moves back up and compresses this mixture
  3. While this piston is in its upmost position the spark plugs ignite the mixture and force the
    piston back down
  4. As the piston rises, the exhaust valve opens and expels the exhaust gas from the cylinder
54
Q

What color is 100LL? How about other types of fuel? What happens when they are mixed
together?

A

Blue, 80 av us red, 100 is green, jet a is colorless. mixed fuel becomes clear.

55
Q

Why do you drain a sample of fuel before each flight?

A

Fuel weighs roughly 6lbs and water weighs about 8lbs. Because it is heavier it always sinks to the
bottom of the fuel tanks. This is why we drain from the lowest points in the fuel system. We also
want to visually inspect the fuel for the proper grade and to make sure that it is free of sediment.

56
Q

How does the vacuum system operate?

A

An engine driven vacuum pump creates suction. Air is pulled through a filter and then directed to
the instrument case. Rotor vanes on the gyros catch the air like a water wheel and cause it to rotate
at a high speed.

57
Q

Describe the electrical system.

A

12 volt bat, 14v system. The electrical system provides power to all of the radio equipment, the engine gauges, turn
coordinator, stall warning horn and all the lights
The magnetos are a self-sustaining source of electricity. As long as the propeller and crankshaft is
turning, they will continue to provide electricity to the spark plugs and the engine will run. This
means that in the event of an electrical failure, you will NOT lose your engine.

58
Q

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled airspace?

A

Class G is the only uncontrolled airspace. ATC has no jurisdiction

59
Q

What are the requirements for Class A? Weather minimums?

A

A – FL 180 to FL 600 – Instrument Rating and IFR flight plan needed – Mode C Transponder and
2-way radio communication – no weather minimums

60
Q

What are the requirements for Class B? Weather minimums?

A

B – Upside down wedding cake design up to 10,000 MSL – Endorsement needed if student pilot –
Clearance from ATC required to enter – Mode C Transponder required any time within 30 nm
(mode C veil) – 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

61
Q

What are the requirements for Class C? Weather minimums?

A

C – Inner core 5 nm radius and from surface to 4500 AGL – outer core 10 nm radius and from
1200’ AGL to 4000’ AGL – Mode C Transponder and 2 way radio communication – 3 miles
visibility and 1000’ above 500’ below and 2000’ horizontal from clouds

62
Q

What are the requirements for Class D? Weather minimums?

A

D – 4 nm radius and from surface to 2500’ AGL – 2 way radio communications – 3 miles visibility
and 1000’ above 500’ below and 2000’ horizontal from clouds

63
Q

What are the requirements for Class E? Weather minimums?

A

E – Can start at the surface, 700’ AGL, or 1200’ AGL and may extend up to but not including FL
180 – Class E also exists above FL 600 – No equipment requirements - Below 10,000’: 3 miles
visibility and 1000’ above 500’ below and 2000’ horizontal from clouds – Above 10,000’: 5 miles
visibility and 1000’ above 1000’ below and 1 mile horizontal from clouds

64
Q

What are the requirements for Class G? Weather minimums?

A

uncontrolled airspace – may start at the surface and can go as high as 14,500’ MSL or 1200’
AGL – no equipment requirements – Below 1200’ AGL : 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds –
Above 1200’ AGL but below 10,000’ MSL : 1 mile visibility and 1000’ above 500’ below and
2000’ horizontal from clouds – At night: 3 miles visibility and 1000’ above 500’ below and 2000’
horizontal from clouds – Above 10000’ : 5 miles visibility and 1000’ above 1000’ below and 1 mile
horizontal from clouds

65
Q

What are the different types of Special Use Airspace

A

Warning Areas – Extends from 3nm outward from the U.S. coast – invisible hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
Controlled Firing Areas (does not appear on charts) – Activities that could be hazardous are
suspended immediately when a spotter detects an aircraft.
Restricted – Unusual and oftentimes invisible hazards such as artillery or missile firing. When the
restricted areas is active pilots will need to get permission from the controlling authority to enter.
Alert – May contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. No clearance is
needed to enter but all pilots should be very alert.
Military Operation Area – Military training such as aerial intercepts, formation flying, and low
altitude tactics is conducted in these areas. Contact FSS to obtain hours of operation and it is
advised to contact controlling agency for traffic advisories. Permission is not needed to enter, but
pilots must exercise extreme caution.
Prohibited – Areas designated for national security or welfare. Flight in this area is prohibited

66
Q

What are the different types of “Other Airspace Areas”?

A

Local Airport Advisory – operated within 10sm or airport with FSS but no operating control
tower.
Military Training Routes – Military aircraft travelling in excess of 250kts
Routes designated by (IR) are IFR
Routes designated by (VR) are VFR when visibility is 5sm or greater and ceilings are at least
3000’
Routes with no segment above 1500’ AGL are identified by 4 numbers. For example (VR) 1205.
If there is a segment above 1500, the route will be identified by only 3 numbers.
Temporary Flight Restriction – Established to protect the President or other VIPs, provide a safe
environment for disaster relief, or to prevent aircraft from sight-seeing over public events.
Parachute Jump Zones – check A/FD for details
Published VFR Routes – Published on TACs to provide VFR aircraft with a means to transition
around, under, or through complex airspace. For example, Coastal Route, Mini Route, Special
Flight Rule, Hollywood Park Route or Coliseum Route
Terminal Radar Service Areas – Pilots can voluntarily receive radar services from TRACON so
that IFR and VFR traffic can have separation. Participation is encouraged. It can be identified on
the chart by a heavy grey line (see Palm Springs)
National Security Areas – They exist where there is a need for heightened security and safety of
ground facilities. Sometimes flight in this area is prohibited but otherwise pilots are encouraged to
stay away from these areas.

67
Q

When do we need a Mode C transponder?

A

Class A, B, C airspace. Inside of the mode C veil, above class C airspace, and above 10000’

68
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A

15C or 59F – 29.92” Hg or 1013.2 mb

69
Q

Discuss isobars. What does it mean when the isobars are close together?

A

Isobars connect equal lines of pressure. Closely spaced isobars means that there is a strong
pressure gradient and winds will be strong.

70
Q

How do surface winds flow in relationship to isobars? Why? Winds aloft?

A

At the surface winds flow at an angle to the isobars because of surface friction.
Aloft, winds from more or less parallel because of the Coriolis force

71
Q

What type of clouds, visibility and precipitation would you expect from stable air? Unstable
air?

A

Stable air: stratiform clouds, poor visibility, smooth air, steady or continuous precipitation
Unstable: Cumuliform clouds or clouds with vertical development, good visibility, turbulence, and
showery precipitation

72
Q

What are the general characteristics of low/high pressure areas?

A

Low – Cyclone – counterclockwise and rising air

High – Anti Cyclone – clockwise and descending air

73
Q

What is a ridge? Trough?

A

Ridge – extended area of high pressure – descending air

Trough – extended area of low pressure – rising air

74
Q

What must be present in order for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Unstable atmosphere (pg.52) – an unstable atmosphere can be noted by the ambient lapse rate. We
know that the standard lapse rate is about 2 degrees Celsius per 1000’ of altitude. If the ambient
lapse rate is greater than the standard lapse rate (i.e. the temperature is decreasing rapidly as you
climb), this means the atmosphere is unstable.
Sufficient Moisture – the temperature/dew point spread can be used to determine how moist the air
is. The closer the temperature and dew point spread, the closer the air is to becoming saturated or
so full of moisture that it can hold no more. Warmer air can hold more moisture than cooler air.
Lifting Action – Some of these lifting actions may include heating from below (rising warm air
called thermals), orographic lifting (wind pushing a moist unstable air mass upslope), or frontal
lifting (a fast moving cold front displacing warm, moist, and unstable warmer air for example).

75
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus – the building stage of a thunderstorm characterized by updrafts only. All thunderstorms
begin as cumulus clouds but not all cumulus clouds become thunderstorms.
Mature – Updrafts and downdrafts both occur at this point. Violent turbulence can be experienced
if flight is attempted beneath a cumulonimbus cloud because of this shear zone. The mature stage
can be recognized by the beginning of rainfall.
Dissipating – At this point the cloud is only giving off downdrafts and the thunderstorm is
dissipating. During this stage, large cumulonimbus clouds may have a recognizable “anvil top”
that is a portion of the cloud that has been sheared off by the jet stream. The direction in which the
anvil top is facing also shows the direction in which the storm is moving.

76
Q

What is wind shear? Why is it an operational hazard?

A

Rapid change in wind direction or velocity – it can cause dramatic changes in indicated airspeed
and causes severe turbulence within the shear zone

77
Q

What does dew point mean?

A

The temperature at which the air becomes saturated

78
Q

Discuss the types of fog. Advection, Radiation, Upslope, Precipitation-Induced

A

Advection: moist warm air moves over colder land or water
Radiation: forms on clear nights with little or no wind and only over land
Upslope: moist unstable air is cooled as wind pushes it up a slope
Precipitation Induced: warm rain falls through cool air. Evaporation from the rain saturates the
cool air and fog forms.

79
Q

Discuss the types of icing.

A

Induction Icing – This includes any icing that impedes that process of air entering the intake
manifold to be mixed with fuel. Ice that builds up on the air intakes is an obvious form of this.
Carburetor ice is also a form of induction icing. This can be attributed to the incomplete
vaporization of fuel in combination with the pressure decrease inside of the venturi. Even on a day
as warm as 70°F, carburetor ice can began to form with adequate moisture in the air.
Instrument Icing – Icing of the pitot tube or static ports can cause the instruments to give
inaccurate readings or to fail completely.
Structural Icing – Ice that forms on the surface of the aircraft. Since airfoils create lift by
decreasing the pressure and thus the temperature of the air around them, icing on the propeller,
horizontal and vertical tail surfaces, and wings can form at ambient temperatures that are above
the freezing level. Structural icing includes:

80
Q

What types of weather briefings can you get from a Flight Service Station briefer?

A

Standard – Should be requested when planning a flight and no previous weather information has
been gathered
Abbreviated – Used to supplement mass disseminated data or to update a previous briefing
Outlook – Request when proposed departure time is 6 or more hours away.

81
Q

What is EFAS (Flight Watch)?

A

Enroute Flight Advisory Service – provides up to date weather advisories for pilots while enroute

82
Q

On what frequency can you contact EFAS?

A

Contact FSS – 122.0 no longer in use as of October 2015

83
Q

What is a METAR? Types, issue, and valid times? (3-1)

A

Aviation Routine Weather Report
Routine or special
Issued hourly
Valid for the hour

84
Q

What is a TAF? Issue, valid times, area of coverage?

A 
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
3 types: Routine (TAF) Amended (TAF AMD) or Corrected (TAF COR)
Issued 4 times a day (every 6 hours)
Valid for 24-30 hours
Forecast for area within 5sm of airport
85
Q

What is the definition of a ceiling? (7-26

A

The height above the ground of a broken or overcast layer

86
Q

Does a TAF report cloud ceilings in MSL or AGL?

A

MSL

87
Q

Describe FROM, BECMG, TEMPO, PROB, on a TAF?

A

FROM – Rapid change occurring within 1 hour
BECMG – Gradual change to take place over the course of 1 hour
TEMPO – Between the predicted period, this weather will only occur for less than an hour
PROB – number placed afterwards is the probability of the weather forecasted to occur

88
Q

Does an Area Forecast report cloud ceilings in MSL or AGL?

A

MSL unless preceded by AGL or CIG (ceiling

89
Q

AIRMET? Issue, valid times, Sierra, Tango, Zulu?

A

Airmen’s Meteorological Information
Issued for: Mountain obscuration and widespread IFR conditions (Sierra)
Moderate turbulence and surface winds greater than 30kts (Tango)
Moderate Icing (Zulu)
Valid for 6 hours

90
Q

SIGMET? Issued? Valid? Why are they issued?

A 
Significant Weather Information
Issued for: Severe Turbulence not associated with T-storms
Widespread dust storms and volcanic ash
Severe Icing
Valid for 4 hours
91
Q

CONVECTIVE SIGMET? Issued? Valid? Why issued?

A

Issued for thunderstorm (convective) activity
Winds greater than 50 kts
Hail greater than ¾”

92
Q

Winds and Temperatures aloft Forecast?

A

Issued twice a day every 12 hours and provide wind and temperature information for specific areas
within the U.S.

93
Q

How are temperatures above 24,000 identified?

A

Temperature above 24000 feet are negative

94
Q

What does 710556 mean on a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast if the forecast level is
30,000 feet?

A

Winds are from 210 at 105 kts and temperature is –56 C

95
Q

Discuss the Surface Analysis Chart? Issued? Valid? Information?

A

Issued 8 times daily and valid for 3 hours
Shows position of pressure systems, fronts, local weather, wind speed and directions, and visual
obstructions.

96
Q

Discuss the Weather Depiction Chart? Issued? Valid? Information?

A

Graphical depiction of METAR information
Issued 8 times daily and valid for 8 hours
It is a flight planning tool to see overall surface conditions across the U.S

97
Q

Discuss the Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? Issued? Valid?

A

Forecast of aviation weather hazards such as icing, freezing levels, and turbulence
Issued 4 times a day there is a 12 hour forecast and a 24 hour forecast

98
Q

Discuss the Radar Summary Chart? Issued? Valid? Info?

A

Issued 35 minutes past every hour and valid for 1 hour.
Displays areas of precipitation and indicates the height of the radar echo tops in hundreds of feet
MSL. Movement of cells is indicated by an arrow that points in the direction of the movement
with the speed in knots beside it. This chart does not show clouds or fog, only precipitation.

99
Q

What preflight action is required by the FARs?

A 
NOTAMS
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway Lengths
Alternates
Fuel
Takeoff and Landing Distances
100
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A

Notice to Airmen – it is time critical information that is not known in advance enough to be
published on an aeronautical chart.

101
Q

What are the Fuel requirements for this flight? (

A

Day VFR – to the destination + at least 30 minutes of reserve fuel

102
Q

What the right-of-way rules are as applied to the different categories of aircraft? EBGAAR

A 
Emergency - Aircraft in distress have priority
Balloon
Glider
Aircraft refueling
Airship
Rotorcraft or airplane
103
Q

Required action for all aircraft confrontations (same category): converging, approaching
head-on, overtaking

A

Converging: Aircraft on the right has the right of way
Head on: Both divert to the right
Overtaking: Overtake on the right side

104
Q

Minimum safe altitude over congested area?

A

1000’ above highest obstacle within 2000’

105
Q

In areas other than congested areas?

A

500’ above the surface or in sparsely populated areas such as open water: 500’ away from any
vessel, person, or structure

106
Q

steady green

A

taxi: cleared for takeoff
air: clear to land

107
Q

flashing green

A

Taxi: Clear to taxi
Air: Return for landing

108
Q

Steady red

A

Taxi: Stop
Air: Give way - keep circling

109
Q

Flashing Red

A

Taxi: Taxi clear runway in use
Air: Airport unsafe dont land

110
Q

White light gun

A

Taxi: return to starting point
Air: N/A

111
Q

What is pilotage? Dead reckoning?

A

Pilotage: Using visual landmarks and references

Dead Reckoning: Using predetermined headings and performance calculations

112
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

Difference between magnetic north and true north

113
Q

What limitations apply to VOR?

A 
VORs are limited by their power output. Service volumes range from 25nm to 130nm depending
on class of VOR and altitude of aircraft. VORs also operate off of the line of sight principle. This
means that if there is terrain between the aircraft and the station, the signal may not be received.
114
Q

What do you do if you become lost in-flight? 5 Cs

A

Climb – obtain a better view of your surroundings
Circle – don’t become more lost; stay in one spot
Conserve – lean your mixture and save fuel
Communicate – make contact with an FSS or an air traffic controller
Confess – don’t be afraid to admit that you are lost. They are there to help you!

115
Q

What are the body systems that are used to ascertain our orientation and movement in
space?

A

Vestibular –The inner ear system composed of 3 semicircular hollow but fluid filled canals
arranged in the pitch, roll, and yaw axes
Somatosensory – The nerves in our skin cells.
Visual – Our Eyes

116
Q

What is hypoxia and what are the different types?

A

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body. It is occurs at 4 different levels
Lung: Hypoxic Hypoxia. Blood: Hypemic
Cell: Histotoxic
Transport: Stagnant

117
Q

What are the in-flight illusions? ICEFLAGS

A

Inversion – Abrupt change in altitude creates the illusion of tumbling backwards
Coriolis – Rapid head movement causes the illusion of accelerating or turning
Elevator – An updraft causes the pilot to think that aircraft is in a climb. Pilot reacts by forcing the
nose down inducing a dive.
False Horizon – Sloping cloud formations or obscured horizons confuse the pilot into misaligning
with the horizon.
Leans – Abrupt recovery from a roll can mislead pilot into thinking aircraft is in a turn in the
opposite direction.
Autokinesis – At night, stationary lights may appear to be in motion. Pilot may lose control of
aircraft trying to align it with “moving” light.
Graveyard Spiral – In a prolonged constant rate turn, sensation of the turn is not felt. In recovery
to straight and level, the pilot may sense a turn in the opposite direction and pull back on the yoke,
only tightening the spiral.
Somatogravic – Rapid acceleration causes the illusion of the being in a nose up attitude. Rapid
deceleration will have the opposite effect.

118
Q

What is the definition of ADM?

A

A systematic approach to risk assessment and stress management. The two defining elements of ADM are
hazard and risk.

119
Q

What are some of the ways we can mitigate risk? I

A

Illness – Am I sick?
Medication – Am I taking any medication? If so, have I discussed with my AME if it is safe for flight?
Stress – Am I under psychological stress? School/Work? Money? Health? Family/Social life?
Alcohol – Have I been drinking within the previous 8 hours? Am I still experiencing the effect of alcohol?
Fatigue – Have I gotten adequate rest?
Eating – Am I hungry?

Private Pilot (7 decks)

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