Oral Cavity and Oesophagus Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 main functions of the GI tract

A

motility
secretion
digestion
absorption

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2
Q

what allows the slow wave activity to be passed through the entire GI tract

A

gap junctions

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3
Q

each slow wave triggers a contraction true/false

A

false - slow wave must reach a certain threshold to initiate a contraction and this is dependent on neuronal and hormonal stimuli

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4
Q

what are the two types of muscle throughout the GI tract

A

circular and longitudinal

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5
Q

during smooth muscle contraction, circular muscle becomes

A

longer and narrower

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6
Q

during smooth muscle contraction, longitudinal muscle becomes

A

shorter and fatter

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7
Q

what drives the slow wave contraction and where are they located

A

interstitial cells of Cajal - pacemaker cells

located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers

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8
Q

what is the effect of the parasympathetic NS on GI tract

A

increases gastric secretions, motility and blood flow

relaxes stomach and sphincters

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9
Q

what nerves supply the parasympathetic NS in GI tract

A

vagus nerve supplies until the descending colon then spinal nerves 2, 3, 4 supply distal part of the tract

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10
Q

what is the effect of the sympathetic NS on GI tract

A

decreases motility, secretions and blood flow

increases sphincter tone

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11
Q

what is the function of the enteric nervous system

A

governs the function of the GI tract
myenteric plexus - sphincters and motility
submucous plexus - epithelia and blood vessels

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12
Q

define peristalsis

A

wave of relaxation followed by contraction to move a food bolus along the tract. triggered by gut distension

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13
Q

describe segmentation

A

rhythmic contraction of circular muscle layers which work to mix and churn the chyme dividing luminal contents

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14
Q

what are the spincters of the GI tract and their function

A

upper oesophageal sphincter - swallowing
lower oesophageal sphincter - travels food to stomach
pyloric sphincter - for gastric emptying regulation
ileo-caecal - regulates flow
internal and external anal sphincter for defaecation

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15
Q

how many teeth does an adult have

A

32

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16
Q

where is saliva first formed and then where is it modified

A

formed in the acinar cells

modified by duct cells

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17
Q

name the 3 salivary glands

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

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18
Q

where does the parotid gland secrete saliva into and which nerve innervates it

A

secretes saliva into the mouth via upper second molar

innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve

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19
Q

where does the submandibular gland secrete saliva into and how much

A

secreted into the floor of the mouth - 70% of total saliva

20
Q

what nerve supplies the submandibular and sublingual glands

A

facial nerve

21
Q

at what point does the laryngopharynx become the oesophagus

A

C6

22
Q

where does the oesophagus terminate at the cardia of the stomach

A

T10

23
Q

the upper oesophageal sphincter is physiological only true/false

A

false UOS is anatomical

lower is physiological

24
Q

what are the 4 physiological restrictions at the oesophagus

A

A - arch of the aorta
B - bronchus (left main stem)
C- cricoid cartilage
D - diaphragmatic hiatus

25
Q

what are papillae and what is within them

A

bumps on the tongue - taste buds are located within them.

26
Q

name the 3 types of papillae that contain taste buds

A

vallate, fungiform, fusiform

filiform doesnt contain taste buds

27
Q

what are the main causes of acute oesophagitis

A

ingestion of chemicals

infection in immunocompromised patients (candidiasis, herpes, CMV)

28
Q

what are the symptoms associated with oesophagitis

A

dysphagia
odynophagia
chest pain

29
Q

what treatment is used for acute oesophagitis

A

antibiotics/antivirals if required

corticosteroid to reduce inflammation

30
Q

what is the main causes of chronic oesophagitis

A

reflux disease (GORD)

31
Q

what are the causes of GORD

A

increased intra-abdominal pressure eg obesity, pregnancy
gastric acid hypersection
LOS dysfunction

32
Q

what are the symptoms of GORD

A
dysphagia 
odynophagia 
heart burn 
water brash 
chest pain - after eating/at night
33
Q

what is the treatment for GORD

A

PPIs eg omeprazole
antacid tablets
lifestyle advice to reduce incidence

34
Q

what are 3 complications of chronic oesophagitis

A

ulceration/bleeding
stricture
Barretts Oesophagus

35
Q

define Barretts Oesophagus

A

replacement of stratified squamous epithelium with simple columnar epithelium reduce to persistent abuse from acid and bile

36
Q

why can Barretts Oesophagus be described as pre-malignant tissue

A

form of metaplasia because mature cells are differentiating and growing abnormally

37
Q

what is allergic oesophagitis

A

chronic type of oesophagitis

38
Q

who typically develops allergic oesophagitis

A

those with personal/family history of asthma and other allergies
males > females

39
Q

what investigations are done for those with allergic oesophagitis

A

blood tests for eosinophilia

pH probs to exclude acid reflux

40
Q

what is the treatment for allergic oesophagitis

A

corticosteroids such as prednisolone - can be used alongside monkelukast

41
Q

benign oesophageal tumours are more common than malignant tumours true/false

A

false - malignant more common

42
Q

what is the most common type of benign oesophageal tumour and what is it associated with

A

squamous cell papilloma

associated with HPV 16 and 18 - usually asymptomatic

43
Q

what are the two types of malignant tumours that can develop in the oesophagus

A

adenocarcinoma

squamous cell carcinoma

44
Q

what is the aetiology of oesophageal malignancies

A
caucasian 
smoking 
males 
obesity 
genetics
45
Q

Barretts Oesophagus increases likelihood of which cancer? where in the oesophagus is it most likely to develop

A

adenocarcinoma

lower 1/3 of oesophagus because thats where is most likely to develop Barretts from GORD

46
Q

what are the symptoms of oesophageal cancer

A
progressively worsening dysphagia 
odynophagia 
haematemesis 
weight loss 
anaemia 
stricture 
lymphadenopathy
47
Q

what is the best treatment for oesophageal cancer

A

surgical resection - dependent on co-morbidities with neo-adjuvant chemotherapy
if localised treat with radical chemo