Oral board questions Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the meaning of “SHALL”

RAC 1-1 1.1

A

“SHALL” is used when application of the procedure is mandatory.

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2
Q

Explain the meaning of “SHOULD”

RAC 1-1 1.1

A

“SHOULD” is used when application of the procedure is recommended.

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3
Q

Explain the meaning of “MAY”

RAC 1-1 1.1

A

“MAY” or “NEED NOT” are used when the application of the procedure is optional.

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4
Q

Explain the meaning of “WILL”

RAC 1-1 1.1

A

“WILL” is used to indicate futurity, never to indicate any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

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5
Q

The objectives of Air Traffic Services are

RAC 2-1

A

The objectives of air traffic services are to:
1. Prevent collisions between aircraft;
2. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;
3. Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
4. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
5. Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.

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6
Q

The elimination or reduction of delays is an important objective. What takes precedence?

RAC 2-1

A

The elimination or reduction of delays is an important objective, but expedition must not be permitted to compromise safety. Pressure to expedite is common but it is vital that this factor remains subject to the dominant requirement for safety.

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7
Q

What particular information shall be passed to aircraft operator representatives?

RAC 2-5 6

A
  1. Any significant meteorological development or aerodrome unserviceability which may affect the company’s operation.
  2. Anticipated delays to arriving or departing aircraft that are likely to be significant to operations.
  3. Whenever a company’s aircraft enters the uncertainty, alert or distress phase.
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8
Q

CAA Rules define priority guidelines to be applied by ATC within the FIR. Describe the fundamnetal traffic priorities

RAC 2-6 7

A

Provided safety is not jeopardised, traffic priorities shall be applied as follows:

  • an aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency or impaired operation has priority over all other aircraft; and
  • an aircraft landing, or in the final stages of an approach to land, has priority over a departing aircraft; and
  • an aircraft landing or taking off has priority over taxiing aircraft.
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9
Q

Following Pilot Request what priorities shall be granted

RAC 2-6 7

A
  1. ambulance or mercy missions; and
  2. search and rescue; and
  3. civil defence or police emergencies; and
  4. carriage of heads-of-state, heads-of-government, or equivalent dignitaries.
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10
Q

Priority shall be given to the first able to use the airspace or manoeuvring area except?

RAC 2-7 7.2

A
  1. where a more orderly flow or a significant economic benefit for a number of other aircraft would result by deferring this priority;
  2. RVSM approved aircraft shall have priority for level allocation over non-RVSM approved aircraft within the RVSM stratum. A non-RVSM State aircraft (military, customs or police service) shall be afforded the same priority within the RVSM stratum as an RVSM approved aircraft.
  3. Where a significantly greater economic penalty to another aircraft would result, eg. by permitting a light aircraft to operate ahead of a jet aircraft;
  4. Aircraft operating in the normal pattern shall be given priority over aircraft desiring to operate in conflicting patterns;
  5. As a general principle, aircraft in the climb should be given preference for routing against arriving aircraft of similar type;
  6. Flights requiring to operate in other than the normal pattern for operational rather than training reasons should be given the same priority as other flights, unless this introduces a complex traffic situation;
  7. Where a training instrument approach has been approved, normal priority shall be given to the aircraft from the time it commences final approach;
  8. Where prior arrangement has been made for flight inspection checks and a priority has been predetermined;
  9. An aircraft may be given priority for a cruising level within the Auckland Oceanic FIR in accordance with procedures published in ICAO Doc 7030, or an ATS letter of agreement;
  10. Where other agreed priorities have been established within airspace designated as RNP airspace under Part 71;
  11. Where PBN has been implemented, priority may be given to PBN operations over non-PBN operations.
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11
Q

When are readbacks required for verbal coordination?

RAC 3-1 1.1

A
  • clearances/instructions, as appropriate;
  • estimate messages;
  • information estimate messages;
  • transfers of control;
  • revisions to the significant point or level contained in an estimate message;
  • approval requests;
  • advice or information to be issued to aircraft.
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12
Q

What are the contents of a non-radar estimate message from aerodrome/approach to area control?

RAC 3-4 1.4.1

A
  • “DEPARTURE (aircraft callsign)
  • (departure/set heading time . . . (minutes only))”

and, irrespective of whether the coordination (ESTIMATE) is electronic or verbal,
* advice of any other traffic which could cause a misidentification, and
* advice of any other traffic relevant to the departing flight at the time of release, and
* advice of any ATS special handling priority request.

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13
Q

Describe when an “approval request” is required and the phraseology to be used

RAC 3-7 1.4.3

A

When a controlled flight’s elapsed time to a sector/unit boundary will not allow the required coordination, electronically or manually, within the time criteria specified for a CPL or estimate message, an approval for the flight shall be obtained from the accepting sector/unit.

Coordination shall be effected using the following phraseologies:

Transferring controller
“APPROVAL REQUEST (aircraft callsign, level) VIA (significant point) (any other relevant details)”

Accepting controller
“(aircraft callsign) (level) APPROVED [conditions/restrictions]”,
or
“(aircraft callsign) UNABLE TO APPROVE (alternative instructions/reasons)”

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14
Q

Provide the elements of a verbal transfer of control message

RAC 3-8 1.5.2

A

“(aircraft callsign)
RELEASED [AT (transfer of control point)]
CONTACT AT (RTF contact point) - if different from the transfer of control point
[conditions/restrictions]”

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15
Q

What are the accepting controllers responsibility?

RAC 3-9 1.5.4

A
  • if no objection is raised, be understood to have accepted the transfer of control in accordance with LOA/LUO or the terms offered; or
  • indicate any required amendments, including a change of cruising level or route if the level offered is below the MSA for the route sector or the minimum level above SUA within the accepting controller’s area of responsibility; and
  • if necessary, specify any other information or clearance applicable at the transfer of control point.
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16
Q

When shall transfer of control be effected?

RAC 3-9 1.5.6

A
  1. is within 10 NM of the aerodrome, and
  2. it is considered that approach and landing will be completed in visual reference to the ground, or
  3. has reached uninterrupted visual meteorological conditions, or
  4. is at a prescribed point or level, or
  5. has landed, or
  6. as specified in LOA or LUO.
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17
Q

Describe the conditions and phraseology for obtaining an early release in a non-radar environment?

RAC 3-10 1.5.8

A

Verbal coordination is required prior to an accepting controller climbing an arriving aircraft, descending a departing aircraft or instructing an aircraft to hold while the aircraft is still in the transferring controller’s airspace.

An early release may be requested using the following phraseology:
“MAY I ASSUME CONTROL OF (callsign)”; or
“REQUEST RELEASE OF (callsign)”

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18
Q

Your separations and the phraseologies

RAC 3-10 1.5.7

A

During coordination, when it is necessary to specify or confirm who is providing separation, or where one controller may be able to offer a more expeditious resolution of a confliction than the other, the following phraseology shall be used:

“YOUR SEPARATION (callsign of traffic from which separation is required)”

Details of any information pertinent to the provision of separation shall be passed to the controller effecting the separation.

The phraseology “MY SEPARATION (callsign of conflicting traffic)” may be used in response to “YOUR SEPARATION”, or to further identify who is providing the separation.

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19
Q

What is an ATC clearance

RAC 3-13 2.1.1

A

An ATC clearance is an authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by ATC.

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20
Q

When is an ATC clearance required?

RAC 3-14 2.1.1

A
  • all aircraft, pedestrians and vehicles wishing to enter and operate on the manoeuvring area at a controlled aerodrome;
  • all flights wishing to enter and operate within the traffic circuit or to take-off or land at a controlled aerodrome;
  • all IFR flights to operate in class A, C and D airspace;
  • all VFR flights to operate in class C and D airspace;
  • all parachute descents in controlled airspace.
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21
Q

When may an ATC clearance be withheld and what proviso’s apply?

RAC 3-14 2.1.1.1

A

An ATC clearance shall not be denied or withheld except:

  • for traffic reasons, when ATC cannot accommodate traffic additional to that already accepted due to traffic congestion, limitations of equipment, procedures, weather or environmental conditions, emergencies and other similar factors; or
  • when instructed by the General Manager Air Traffic Services provided that:
  1. A clearance shall not be withheld unless the aircraft is on the ground and the clearance is for entry onto the manoeuvring area.
  2. A normal ATC service shall be provided for any aircraft entering the manoeuvring area without an ATC clearance.
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22
Q

Describe the instructions and info that must be readback in full by a pilot and what are the two exceptions to a full readback in domestic airspace?

RAC 3-16 2.1.3

A

Where the following are transmitted by voice, pilots are required to make a full readback followed by their aircraft callsign:

  • ATC route clearances
  • clearances and instructions (including conditional clearances) to operate on the manoeuvring area at a controlled aerodrome including:
    1. clearances to land on or take off from any runway;
    2. clearances to enter, cross, taxi on, or backtrack on any runway;
    3. instructions to remain on or hold clear of any runway;
    4. taxi instructions including a taxi route and holding position where specified
    5. runway-in-use
    6. altimeter settings
    7. SSR codes
    8. level instructions
    9. heading and speed instructions
    10. frequency, after frequency change instructions

except that:
* pilots waiting to cross a runway may acknowledge a clearance to cross with the phrase “CROSSING (callsign)”
* pilots of VFR aircraft cleared to route via a published arrival or departure procedure requested by them may acknowledge the clearance with their callsign

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23
Q

What are the objectives of the instructions contained in an ATC clearance to an IFR Flight

RAC 3-17 2.1.4.2

A
  1. Provide separation:
    a.Where prescribed, between the aircraft concerned and other controlled flights; and
    b. From SUA and GAA as required by RAC 5; and
    A flight departing under radar control may be issued with initial track or level instructions which, while not providing separation for the entire route, will provide separation until it can be identified and instructed to climb under radar control.
  2. Enable the flight to comply with the promulgated procedures for IFR flights published in the AIPNZ; and
  3. Conform with the terms for acceptance of control by the next controlling authority; and
  4. Conform, where possible, with the details requested in the flight plan and the Air Traffic Management route requirements as specified in the AIPNZ; and
  5. Where the aircraft has flight planned for flight within controlled airspace, enable the aircraft to remain within controlled airspace, unless applying the criteria for direct routing on unevaluated routes.

If a clearance would involve a significant delay, a pilot may be offered an alternative which would take the aircraft out of controlled airspace, provided that:
1. The pilot is advised that the clearance will take the aircraft outside controlled airspace; and
2. The pilot confirms acceptance of the clearance.

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24
Q

List the authoriszation words used in a clearance

RAC 3-23 2.2.3

A

“CLEARED [TO]”,
“RECLEARED”,
“ENTER”,
“LEAVE”,
“JOIN”,
“MAKE”,
“REMAIN”
“OPERATE”

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25
Q

The term “Flight Planned Route” should be avoided. to which flights should it be limited to?

RAC 3-24 2.2.5.2

A

????

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26
Q

What is a non-standard level and what procedures are to be followed when using one?

RAC 3-28 2.2.7.3

A

A non-standard level is one that is not appropriate to track, in accordance with the applicable Table of Cruising Levels.

Prior to the aircraft reaching the boundary of an ATS sector, verbal approval shall be obtained from the subsequent sector/unit for the flight to continue at the non-standard level.

Aircraft at standard flight levels should be afforded priority over aircraft using non-standard flight levels.

When clearing a controlled flight at a non-standard level, the words “NON-STANDARD” shall prefix the level except for departing oceanic flights that are cleared at a correct level for oceanic flight in accordance with the Level Instructions above.

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27
Q

What is the correct phraseology for authorising a DISTANCE or VORSEC chart step descent?

RAC 3-29 22.7.6

A

When authorising an Enroute descent (Distance) step or VORSEC/VORTAC chart step climb or descent procedure:

“CLIMB ABOVE/DESCEND DISTANCE STEPS TO (level)”
“CLIMB ABOVE/DESCEND VORSEC/VORTAC CHART STEPS TO (level)”

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28
Q

Describe Departure and Diversionary climb instructions issued to IFR departures from controlled aerodromes

RAC 3-31.2.2.8

A

Departure instructions shall be issued to all IFR flights from controlled aerodromes and take the form of one or more of the following:

  • Published instrument departure procedure i.e. Standard Instrument Departure (SID), including the SID transition where applicable, or other AIPNZ departure procedure
  • Radar SID
  • Visual departure (by day only)
  • Specified track or heading within an evaluated climb sector of an omnidirectional departure procedure
  • Climb above Enroute descent (Distance) steps or VORSEC chart steps
  • Specified local procedure as provided by ATS Policy and Standards.
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29
Q

What is the correct phraseology for “specifying a rate of climb or descent” ?

RAC 3-35 2.2.10.2

A

“CLIMB AT 1000 FEET PER MINUTE MAXIMUM (or MINIMUM)”

“DESCEND AT 800 FEET PER MINUTE MINIMUM (or MAXIMUM)”

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30
Q

What is the correct phraseology for “Authorising DME or VORSEC chart step descent” ?

RAC 3-34 2.2.8.6

A

“CLIMB ABOVE DISTANCE STEPS”
“CLIMB ABOVE VORSEC CHART STEPS”

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31
Q

What is the correct phraseology for “arresting a climb or descent” ?

RAC 3-35 2.2.10.2

A

????

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32
Q

What is the correct phraseology for “requiring level to be reached by a reporting point”?

RAC 3-35 2.2.10.2

A

“CROSS (reporting point) (level/altitude) OR ABOVE/BELOW”

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33
Q

Describe the three conditions which must be achieved before the aircraft leaves the VORSEC chart sector on departure

RAC 3-33 2.2.8.5

A
  1. Established on an evaluated route and at or above MSA or climbing above Enroute descent (Distance) steps for the route; or
  2. Established under radar control and at or above the radar terrain map; or
  3. Expected to be established under radar control en-route, and at or above 13,000ft or an approved area MSA.
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34
Q

Describe when an aircraft may be issued with a VISUAL DEPARTURE

RAC 3-32 2.2.8.4

A

By day only, having due regard to prevailing MET conditions, an aircraft may be issued with a visual departure. The direction of turn shall be specified unless the aircraft is climbing straight ahead.

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35
Q

What is the purpose of passing an expected approach time?

RAC 3-42 2.3.4

A
  1. Expected approach times enable the pilot to determine whether to divert or hold,
  2. Assist the pilot to position the aircraft to take advantage of an approach clearance,
  3. Form the basis on which action will be taken following communications failure.
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36
Q

An IFR aircraft may be cleared to join a DME ARC or the outbound track of the approach with a level restriction above conflicting traffic. What are the proviso’s

RAC 3-45 2.4.2

A
  • a reasonable assurance exists that the descent restriction can be cancelled and an approach clearance issued in sufficient time to allow the aircraft to fly an approach profile appropriate to the aircraft type; and
  • the approach clearance is issued before the aircraft intercepts the final approach track; and
  • the reason for the descent restriction is passed to the pilot.
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37
Q

An IFR aircraft may be cleared to join a DME ARC or the outbound track of the approach with a level restriction above conflicting traffic. Detail the proviso’s and give examples of the phraseologies to be used

RAC 3-45 2.4.2

A

??????

Phraseologies:

“JOIN 10 DME ARC FOR VOR/DME APPROACH RWY 16, MAINTAIN …. FEET, TRAFFIC … …”
or
“TRACK OUTBOUND ON 102 DEGREES FOR TWIN NDB APPROACH RWY 25, MAINTAIN …. FEET, TRAFFIC … …”

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38
Q

When an aircraft on an instrument approach is required to be integrated into the aerodrome circuit what are the proviso’s for issuing a descent restriction and what is the approved phraseology?

RAC 3-47 2.4.5

A
  • the reported or known cloud base is at least 1000 ft above the altitude specified in the descent restriction; and
  • visibility is equal to or greater than 8 km; and
  • the reason for the descent restriction is passed to the pilot.

“WHEN VISUAL, MAINTAIN (level). TRAFFIC IN THE CIRCUIT.
[REPORT SIGHTING (traffic to follow, etc)]”

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39
Q

When may an IFR flight be cleared for a VISUAL APPROACH?

RAC 3-48 2.4.7.1

A

An IFR flight may be cleared for a visual approach by day or night, or a visual arrival procedure by day only, provided that:

  • the pilot requests a visual approach; and
  • there is reasonable assurance that the existing MET conditions will allow a visual approach to be carried out; and
  • traffic permits a visual approach, separation can be maintained and appropriate coordination has been carried out.
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40
Q

Explain the Operation of Free Balloons near an Aerodrome

RAC 3-63 3.8

A

Authorisation is not required for the release of free (party) balloons under 1.5 m3 with a mass of 2 kg or less. CAA advise organisers that if such activity is planned near an aerodrome then they should advise the appropriate Tower. This information should be passed to aircraft where considered appropriate.

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41
Q

What is the purpose of clearances, instructions and information issued by an Aerodrome Controller?

RAC 4-1 1.1.1

A

To achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome with the object of preventing collision between:

  1. Aircraft flying within the designated area of responsibility of the tower, including the circuit;
  2. Aircraft landing and taking off;
  3. Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area;
  4. Aircraft, vehicles and personnel operating on the manoeuvring area;
  5. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.
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42
Q

What shall aerodrome controllers do in order to fulfill their responsibilities?

RAC 4-1 1.1

A

ATC shall issue clearances, instructions and information in a timely manner that can be acted upon by the pilot.

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43
Q

When separation is not required, what shall clearances and instructions achieve?

RAC 4-1 1.1

A

When separation is not required in accordance with airspace classification, clearances and instructions shall achieve a safe and orderly flow of air traffic and provide the foundation for effective traffic information.

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44
Q

Aerodrome controllers shall, as early as practicable, establish and maintain visual identify of aircraft entering the traffic circuit. how is this identification established?

RAC 4-1 1.1.2

A

Identification shall be established by correlation of observation with:
1. Aircraft type and distinctive markings
2. Position reports, direction of flight or reported manoeuvres
3. At night, requesting an aircraft to show a distinctive light, e.g. “SHOW A LANDING LIGHT”.

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45
Q

Define the Vicinity of an Aerodrome

RAC 4-1 1.3

A

Vicinity of an aerodrome is defined as an area around an aerodrome where aircraft carry out manoeuvres associated with entering, leaving or operating within a circuit.

The actual dimensions of the vicinity of an aerodrome and the circuit depend on the characteristics of aircraft types using the airspace

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46
Q

What are the provisos that apply in requiring or permitting aircraft to carry out non-standard circuits?

RAC 4-2 2

A
  1. Such non-standard manoeuvres are not specifically precluded; and
  2. Adequate control can be maintained.
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47
Q

What must a controller bear in mind when clearing an aircraft to land or take off from a runway or grass strip other than the one in use?

RAC 4-3 3.2

A

Aircraft may be cleared to take-off or land on a runway other than the one in use provided a safe and orderly flow is maintained. Consideration shall be given to potential go-arounds.

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48
Q

In choosing a runway in use, other than wind, what other factors should be taken into account?

RAC 4-2 3.1

A
  1. The aerodrome traffic circuits,
  2. Available runway length,
  3. The position of the sun,
  4. The approach and landing aids available,
  5. Potential noise nuisance and noise abatement procedures.
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49
Q

Describe how you would use the phrases Grass, Seal, Runway?

RAC 4-3.3.3

A

“GRASS (number)” is used to describe the unpaved or partially paved parallel runway; and either

“SEAL (number)” is used to describe the paved runway if the aircraft in question is capable of landing on either parallel runway; or

“RUNWAY (number)” is used to describe the paved runway if the aircraft in question is not capable of landing on the unpaved parallel runway.

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50
Q

What is local traffic?

RAC 4-4 4.1.2

A

Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring area, or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome that may constitute a hazard to the aircraft concerned.

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51
Q

In regard to Aircraft Status. Which words shall precede any observations that cannot be verified?

RAC 4-5 4.1.5

A

APPEARS

52
Q

What shall be included in information on Aerodrome Conditions?

RAC 4-6 4.2

A
  1. Construction or maintenance work on, or immediately adjacent to the movement area;
  2. Rough or broken surfaces on a runway, taxiway or apron, whether marked or not;
  3. Snow, slush or ice on a runway, taxiway or apron, including effect on braking action
  4. Water on a runway, taxiway or apron, including effect on braking action
  5. Snow banks or drifts adjacent to a runway, taxiway or apron;
  6. Other temporary hazards, including parked aircraft and birds on the ground or in the air;
  7. Failure or irregular operation of part or all of the aerodrome lighting system;
  8. Any other pertinent information.
53
Q

What are the four ways to describe Runway surface conditions?

RAC 4-6 4.2

A

DAMP - the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture; or
WET - the surface is soaked but there is no standing water; or
WATER PATCHES - significant patches of standing water are visible; or
FLOODED - extensive standing water is visible.

54
Q

What shall be included in a briefing to personnel wanting to operate on the manoeuvring area?

RAC 4-7 5.1.1

A
  1. Stop and wait for permission, either by radio or light signal, before moving onto the manoeuvring area and before crossing or moving on to any runway, grass landing area or taxiway; and
  2. Watch for and give way at all times to aircraft; and
  3. Look for signals from the tower, including activation of runway lighting, etc.
55
Q

What are the elements of a taxi instruction?

RAC 4-10 6.3

A
  1. Aircraft callsign
  2. Local traffic information or taxi sequence instructions
  3. Taxi clearance
  4. Runway to be used
  5. Aerodrome conditions information
  6. Meteorological information/ATIS - see MET section
  7. For IFR flights, “TIME (minutes only, to nearest half minute)”, unless a time check has been given with start up advice or arrangements have been made for it to be obtained from other sources.
56
Q

Conditional line up clearnaces. When can they be used and what are the elements of the clearance?

RAC 4-12 7.1.1

A
  1. Aerodrome controller and pilot have the conflicting traffic in sight; and
  2. Aerodrome controller can monitor the situation; and
  3. Conditional aircraft is identified by type and position and any other information necessary to ensure correct identification; and
  4. Only one aircraft is to be lined up (no multiple line ups permitted); and
  5. Aircraft or vehicle causing the condition in the clearance shall be the first aircraft/vehicle to pass in front of the aircraft receiving the conditional clearance; and
  6. Preceding departing aircraft has been cleared to take-off; or
  7. Conditional arriving aircraft is number one to land.

The clearance shall be given as follows:
* Callsign
* The condition
* The clearance
* A brief reiteration of the condition.

57
Q

When can an aircraft be cleared to line-up on a crossing runway?

RAC 4-13 7.1.3

A

An aircraft may be cleared to line up when another aircraft on a crossing runway is landing or taking-off, provided a specific instruction to wait, along with appropriate traffic information, is issued and acknowledged.

58
Q

What are the elements of a T/O Clearance?

RAC 4-14 7.2

A

Aircraft callsign
Any significant change in meteorological information already given to the aircraft
Runway surface conditions
Other temporary hazards such as the presence of birds
Special instructions, reporting instructions and/or other pertinent information
Direction of turn after take-off
Cautionary advice of wake turbulence
Any qualification applicable to the clearance
“(RUNWAY or GRASS or SEAL as appropriate) (number)”
“CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”.

59
Q

When may a departing aircraft be issued with a qualified takeoff clearance before a preceding landing or departing aircraft has cleared the runway?

RAC 4-15 7.2.1

A

During daylight hours; and

Visibility is 5 km or greater; and

There is a reasonable assurance that the appropriate runway separation will exist at the time the departing aircraft commences take-off; and

Pilot is advised of the preceding departing or landing aircraft (or personnel/vehicle crossing/vacating the runway), and will be able to keep it in sight until runway separation is in place.

60
Q

Explain what is meant by a patterned/sequenced traffic configuration?

RAC 4-17 9

A

Aircraft in an aerodrome circuit pattern shall be provided with clearances, instructions and information that create a patterned and sequenced flow.

?????????????????????

61
Q

How is sequencing of an aircraft in the Circuit achieved?

RAC 4-17 9.1

A
  1. Enter the circuit at a specified position and/or level
  2. Follow a specified circuit or part circuit
  3. Hold over a specified position
  4. Orbit (right or left) from a particular position
  5. Extend or shorten legs of the circuit
  6. Follow any other specified manoeuvre, or combinations of the above, compatible with safety
62
Q

When asking an aircraft to follow or sequence behind other traffic what might limit the pilots ability to comply?

RAC 4-19 9.4

A
  1. Field of vision from the cockpit;
  2. Contrast formed by an aircraft and its background;
  3. Glare from the sun;
  4. Restricted visibility caused by haze or other conditions;
  5. Possibility of misidentification of the subject aircraft. If there is any doubt, or if the pilot reports difficulty in sighting the aircraft, action shall be taken to ensure that adequate separation is maintained
63
Q

When may an arriving aircraft be issued with a qualified landing clearnace before a preceding landing or departing aircraft or vehicle has cleared the runway?

RAC 4-19 9.6.1

A
  1. During daylight hours; and
  2. Visibility is 5 km or greater; and
  3. Preceding landing aircraft has crossed the threshold; and
  4. Reasonable assurance that the appropriate runway separation will exist at the time the approaching aircraft crosses the threshold; and
  5. Pilot is advised of the preceding departing or landing vehicle crossing/vacating the runway), and will be able to keep it in sight until aircraft (or personnel/ runway separation is in place
64
Q

Quote the phraseology for the approving of, or denying of a simulated engine failure after take-off

RAC 4-24 13

A

Simulated engine failure after take-off:
“EXERCISE APPROVED REPORT COMPLETE [take-off clearance]”, or
“NOT AVAILABLE [reason] [take-off clearance]”.

65
Q

Who gets separated from who?

RAC 5-2 201.1

A

Separation shall be provided:
1. Between all flights in class A airspace;
2. Between IFR flights in class C and D airspaces, except that separation is not provided during the hours of daylight in class D airspace when flights have been cleared to climb or descend subject to maintaining own separation and remaining in VMC;
3. Between IFR and VFR flights in class C airspace;
4. Between IFR flights and Special VFR flights;
5. Between Special VFR flights when the flight visibility is reported to be less than 5 km;
6. Between all flights taking-off and/or land
7. Between an aircraft without an operable transponder and all other flights (IFR or VFR) known or believed to be ACAS equipped, in addition to any separation required by airspace classification. Separation can be achieved by:
A. a minimum of 1000 ft vertical separation; or
B. keeping the aircraft without an operable transponder on routes or in portions of airspace that are separated from the ACAS aircraft (horizontal separation); or
C. visual separation provided that pilot of the ACAS equipped aircraft is advised that the other aircraft is without an operable transponder.

66
Q

When may separation be reduced?

RAC 5-3 201.3

A
  1. When visual (including composite visual) separation is applied; or
  2. When military separation is being applied, see “Reduction of separation to military aircraft”; or
  3. Between aircraft in formation, providing prior notice of the formation flight has been given to ATC, or the formation flight consists of an aircraft in distress and its escort.
67
Q

When shall separation be increased?

RAC 5-3 201.3

A
  1. Requested by a pilot or considered necessary by the controller; or
  2. Pilot reports severe turbulence or mountain wave activity or the aircraft is known to be entering an area of severe turbulence or mountain wave activity; or
  3. Navigational accuracy of an aircraft may be impaired; or
  4. Failure of a navigational aid reduces the capacity for frequent determination of position and speed; or
  5. Aircraft is experiencing communications failure; or
  6. Aircraft’s performance is abnormal; or
  7. Aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference
68
Q

What is essential traffic information; and how is it described?

RAC 5-4 201.6

A

Essential traffic information is any controlled flights that are separated by less than the specified horizontal or vertical separation minimum, and includes flights that are maintaining own separation in VMC.

69
Q

Define “adequate separation”

RAC 5-5 202.1

A

Spacing required to maintain the safe operation of aircraft, or to achieve runway and wake turbulence separation, without the need for sudden or violent manoeuvres

70
Q

Describe fully, visual separation in the vicinity of aerodromes

RAC 5-6 202.2/4

A

Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller. The range at which this separation can be applied will be determined by the ambient weather and aircraft size. It shall not be applied beyond 10 NM from the aerodrome; or

Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilot of the other aircraft concerned and both pilots report that they can maintain visual separation; or

In the case of one aircraft following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports having the preceding aircraft in sight, and can maintain visual separation.

Before horizontal or vertical separation is reduced, the succeeding aircraft shall be:
a. abeam of or behind the other aircraft; or
b. following a track or circuit pattern that will assure sequencing.

71
Q

Describe fully, visual separation beyond the vicinity of aerodromes

RAC 5-6 202.2/4

A

In class C and D airspaces, vertical or horizontal separation standards may be reduced by an approach or area controller applying visual separation during the hours of daylight provided that:

  1. Specific request is made by a pilot, and
  2. Each aircraft is under the control of the same operating position, or physically adjacent operating positions, provided both controllers agree, and
  3. There is no possibility of incorrect identification.

The pilots are required to ensure that:
A. Both flights remain in VMC, and
B. Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilot of the other aircraft concerned and both pilots concur with the application of visual separation; or
C. Pilot of a succeeding aircraft reports having the preceding aircraft in sight, and can maintain visual separation.

72
Q

What is composite visual separation and how may aerodrome control use it?

RAC 5-7 202.5

A

Composite visual separation is the application of a combination of visual and geographical separation, in circumstances where only one aircraft is visible to the aerodrome controller, but both the position and the track of a conflicting aircraft are known, and the standard application of either separation is not practicable.

73
Q

In order to assist pilots to sight other aircraft for visual separation, what info should an aerodrome controller pass?

RAC 5-8 202.7

A
  1. Aircraft type
  2. Position of the other aircraft relative to a navaid or prominent geographic feature, a procedure or traffic circuit being flown, or a relative bearing (clock reference) and distance
  3. Level information, relative height, or Mode C readout
  4. Any other pertinent information such as direction of flight, company name, colour, intentions,
74
Q

Explain Crossing/Same/Reciprocal Tracks

RAC 5-16 205.2

A

Same/Reciprocal - Any track which intersects another at less than 45° from a particular direction of flight and from its reciprocal or, parallel same direction or reciprocal tracks not otherwise separated.

Crossing - Any track which intersects another at 45° or more from a particular direction of flight and from its reciprocal.

75
Q

Describe tow basic types of lateral separation

RAC 5-17 206.1

A

Geographical separation or Specific Track separation

76
Q

When can GNSS be used in lieu of DME distance?

RAC 5-17 206.1.2

A
  1. Both aircraft are flying tracks based on the same navigation aid/waypoint,
  2. Navigation aid, waypoint and DME from which the distance criteria is measured are co-located,
  3. GNSS distance reported is from the same navigation aid on which the lateral separation is based,
  4. Aircraft to which a GNSS distance is being applied specifies “G” in item 10 of the flight plan.
77
Q

Detail the separations based on TIME; between departing aircraft from the SAME AERODROME

RAC 5-25 210.1

A
78
Q

What are co-located Nav aids?

RAC 5-17 206.1

A

Aids within 600 metres of each other.

79
Q

Geographical separation maybe applied in the CTR and terminal area between which aircraft?

RAC 5-21 207.1

A
  1. a VFR and IFR aircraft;
  2. IFR aircraft provided at least one of the aircraft is operating by visual reference;
  3. a SVFR aircraft operating in a CTR and IFR aircraft;
  4. SVFR aircraft within a CTR
80
Q

How is Geographical separation applied between an aircraft operating by visual reference; wishing to cross the final approach path of an arriving IFR aircraft?

RAC 5-21 207.1

A
  1. It has been confirmed by tower radar or a report from the IFR aircraft that the IFR aircraft in the instrument sector has passed abeam the position of the aircraft operating by visual reference or the position via which the aircraft will be routing;
  2. The aircraft proceeding by visual reference shall be instructed to pass behind the IFR aircraft.
81
Q

Detail the separations based on TIME between departing aircraft from the same aerodrome

A

T1 between take-offs if the leading aircraft is of the same or faster performance and they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least 45° immediately after take-off. Where the leading aircraft is to turn more than 90° action must be taken to ensure the departure track of the following aircraft does not cross the departure track of the leading aircraft.

T1 may be used where the leading aircraft is slower provided the leading aircraft reports established on a track that diverges by at least 45° from the track of the following, prior to the following aircraft being cleared for take-off.

T1 shall not be used where both aircraft are to turn in the same direction and the angle of turn of the following aircraft is greater than the angle of turn of the leading aircraft.

T2 between take-offs when the leading aircraft will maintain a speed of 40 knots or more faster than the following aircraft, and both aircraft propose to follow the same exact track or tracks that diverge by less than 45º.

T5 while vertical separation does not exist if a departing aircraft is to be flown through the level of a preceding departing aircraft and both propose to follow the same exact track or tracks that diverge by less than 45 degrees. Action must be taken to ensure T5 is maintained or increased while vertical separation does not exist.

82
Q

Describe Time Seps, between aircraft climbing and descending on Reciprocal Tracks

RAC 5-29 210.3.3

A
  • ETP +/- 10 mins
  • D10 Passed
  • Both aircraft having reported crossing a common ground based navigation aid; or
  • T1 after the second aircraft has reported crossing a common significant point; or
  • Mutual sighting, provided that there is no possibility of incorrect identification; or
  • Another separation standard e.g. radar observation
83
Q

Describe the limitations due to slant range for using D20 and D10

RAC 5-30 211.1

A
  • D20 separations are valid for any altitude/flight level;
  • D10 separations are valid up to and including FL290, provided that both aircraft are on the same side of a DME station;
  • D10 separations are valid up to and including FL150 when aircraft are on opposite sides of a DME station.
84
Q

Longitudinal separation based on distance is subject to 4 provisos, what are they?

RAC 5-30 211.1

A
  • direct controller/pilot VHF voice communication being maintained; and
  • the aircraft are flying either directly inbound to or directly outbound from the same DME station and/or collocated waypoint, or the same waypoint; and
  • when applying these separation minima between any aircraft with area navigation capability, controllers shall specifically request GNSS derived distance; and
  • the aircraft to which a GNSS distance is being applied specifies “G” in item 10 of the flight plan.
85
Q

Think Distance seps. Detail same level - same track

RAC 5-31 211.2.1

A

D20

D10 + 20 kts

Each aircraft utilises:
- The same “on-track” DME station when both are utilising DME, or
- an “on-track” DME station and a co-located waypoint when one aircraft is utilising DME and the other is utilising GNSS, or
- The same waypoint when both aircraft are utilising GNSS, and
- Separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME and/or GNSS readings from the aircraft at frequent intervals to ensure that the minimum is established and will not be infringed.

86
Q

Detail the separations based on DISTANCE; between aircrafting climbing or descending on the same track?

RAC 5-33 211.3.1

A

D20

D10 + 20 knots

D10 one maintains level flight while vertical separation does not exist

D10 prior to the last DME or GNSS distance report of the preceding aircraft

Each aircraft utilises:

  • The same “on-track” DME station when both are utilising DME, or
  • an “on-track” DME station and a collocated waypoint when one aircraft is utilising DME and the other is utilising GNSS, or
  • The same waypoint when both aircraft are utilising GNSS, and
  • Separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME and/or GNSS readings from the aircraft at frequent intervals to ensure that the minimum is established and will not be infringed
87
Q

State all parts of the separation standard used to separate successive IFR departures when the leading aircraft is slower than the following aircraft

RAC 5-38 302.2

A
  • Initial departure tracks diverge by 30° or more, and
  • Visual or radar observation confirms that:
  • The leading aircraft has turned and is clear of and moving away from the proposed departure track of the following aircraft and adequate separation will exist; or
  • The leading aircraft is climbing straight ahead and has reached a point where adequate separation will exist with the following aircraft, and assurance exists that the controller will be able to visually observe the following aircraft turning away from this track. Confirmation shall be obtained that adequate separation will exist (DME reports, tower radar observation, reports from the leading aircraft); and
  • The aircraft tracks will continue to diverge by 30° or more until some other form of separation exists, and
  • Aircraft performance, including the radius of turn of the following aircraft, is taken into account; and
  • Met conditions, including wind direction and strength, are taken into account; and
  • Where necessary, traffic information is passed to the following aircraft.
88
Q

When may a succeeding aircraft be cleared for instrument approach; with a preceding aircraft on initial, intermediate or final approach?
What precaution must be considered?

RAC 5-42 304.2

A

The leading aircraft:

  • Is in communication with and sighted by the aerodrome controller; and
  • reasonable assurance exists that a normal landing can be accomplished; and
  • the vertical spacing between aircraft shall never be less than the applicable vertical separation minima until visual separation can be applied; and
  • separation can be maintained in the event of a missed approach; or
  • Is on a visual approach and reasonable assurance exists that a normal landing can be accomplished, provided the vertical spacing between aircraft shall never be less than the applicable vertical separation minima or radar separation is maintained until visual separation can be applied;
89
Q

When is wake turbulance separation not required between arriving aircraft?

RAC 5-47 307.3

A
  • An arriving VFR flight landing on the same or parallel runway as a preceding landing MEDIUM/HEAVY/SUPER aircraft; or
  • IFR flight on a visual approach where the pilot has reported sighting the preceding aircraft and has been instructed to follow or maintain visual separation from that aircraft.
  • Irrespective of a requirement, if the controller believes a possible W/T hazard exists, the pilots shall be advised using the phraseology “CAUTION - WAKE TURBULENCE (aircraft type and W/T category as appropriate.)
90
Q

Consider timed approaches between arriving flights (non-radar), Which flights must be provided with Wake Turbulence separation?

(Plus examiner’s choice from the table in MATS)

RAC 5-48 307.5

A

The following minima shall be applied to arriving aircraft:

  • For the same runway; or
  • For parallel runways separated by less than 760 m; or
  • If the projected flight paths are expected to cross at the same altitude or less than 1000 ft below.

Medium vs Light = 3 mins
Heavy vs Heavy or Medium = 2 mins
Heavy vs Light = 3 mins

91
Q

Wake Turbulence Separation minima (Non-radar) which departing flights shall be provided with Wake Turbulence Separation?

(Plus examiner’s choice from the table in MATS)
RAC 5-49 307.6

A
  1. From the same runway; or
  2. From parallel runways separated by less than 760 m where there is the possibility of the leading aircraft wake turbulence affecting the following aircraft; or
  3. If the projected flight paths are expected to cross at the same altitude or less than 1000 ft below.

Heavy/Medium vs Light:
2 mins - same position
3 mins - intermediate position

92
Q

What are the Wake Turbulence Separation minima (Non-radar) Arriving and departing flights (examiner’s choice from the table in MATS)
RAC 5-50 307.8

A

Super v Heavy/Medium/Light = 3 minutes
Heavy v Medium/Light = 2 minutes
Medium v Light = 2 minutes

93
Q

What are the Wake Turbulence Separation minima (Non-radar), for opposite direction runway operations and when shall it be applied

RAC 5-51 307.9

A
  • The separations shall be applied if the projected flight paths are expected to cross or if there is a possibility of wake turbulence affecting the second aircraft and the aircraft are operating:
  • From an opposite direction on the same runway; or
  • From opposite direction parallel runways separated by less than 760 m.

Time -
S v H/M/L = 3mins
S v S = 2mins
H v M/L = 2mins
M v L = 2mins

94
Q

What is the minimum Wake Turbulence Separation for Crossing Runway Operations and when shall it be applied?

RAC 5-52 307.10

A
  1. An arriving aircraft shall not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on a low approach or to land until the applicable minimum spacing listed in the table below is achieved.
  2. If an arriving aircraft lands prior to the intersection, no allowance for wake turbulence need be made.
  3. If a departing aircraft commences its take-off run from past the intersection, no allowance for wake turbulence need be made provided that, in the case of two departing aircraft, their flight paths do not cross at the same altitude or less than 1000 ft below.

Super 1st = 3mins after the leading aircraft is clear of the intersection
Everything else 2mins after the leading aircraft is clear of the intersection

95
Q

List the general conditions that apply when using the conditional criteria for runway separations

RAC 5-53 401.2

A
  • daylight operations only; and
  • visibility is 5 km or greater, and conditions do not prevent the pilot from making an early assessment of conditions on the runway; and
  • braking action is unlikely to be adversely affected by runway contaminants; and
  • specified longitudinal distances are able to be readily determined by the aerodrome controller by reference to prominent markers or features; and
  • pertinent traffic information that will enable the following aircraft to sight the preceding aircraft is issued; and
  • it is considered by the aerodrome controller that there is no risk of collision.
96
Q

Using aircraft A and aircraft B; describe the single runway separation standards for aircraft on TAKE-OFF?

RAC 5-54 401.3.1

A

A preceding departing aircraft A has started a turn or crossed the end of the runway-in-use.

Day or night and the runway is longer than 1800 m, lead aircraft A is airborne and 1800 m ahead of Aircraft B.

Both aircraft have MCTOW of 7000 kg or less: Airborne and at least 1000 m ahead.

Both aircraft have MCTOW of 2300 kg or less: airborne and at least 600 m ahead.

97
Q

Using aircraft A and aircraft B; describe the single runway separation standards for aircraft for LANDING ?

RAC 5-56 401.3.3

A

Standard Runway Separation

An aircraft B may be permitted to cross the runway threshold to land when the following conditions exist:

  • A preceding landing aircraft A is clear of the runway.
98
Q

To use reduced runway seps what are the criteria?

RAC 5-53 401.2

A
  • daylight operations only; and
  • visibility is 5 km or greater, and conditions do not prevent the pilot from making an early assessment of conditions on the runway; and
  • braking action is unlikely to be adversely affected by runway contaminants; and
  • specified longitudinal distances are able to be readily determined by the aerodrome controller by reference to prominent markers or features; and
  • pertinent traffic information that will enable the following aircraft to sight the preceding aircraft is issued; and
  • it is considered by the aerodrome controller that there is no risk of collision.
99
Q

Using aircraft A and aircraft B; describe the single runway separation standards between aircraft LANDING and TAKING-OFF?

RAC 5-57 401.3.4

A

Standard Runway Separation

An aircraft B may be permitted to cross the runway threshold to land when the following conditions exist:

  • A departing aircraft A has started a turn or crossed the other end of the runway-in-use.
100
Q

With aircraft in the circuit; when may an aircraft be cleared for TAKE OFF on a CROSSING RUNWAY?

RAC 5-59 401.5.1

A

An aircraft A may cleared for take-off when:

  • A preceding aircraft B taking off on a crossing runway has crossed and is clear of the intersection; or
  • A preceding aircraft C landing on a crossing runway has crossed and is clear of the intersection; or
  • A preceding aircraft D that has landed on a crossing runway has stopped short of and is clear of the intersection.
101
Q

With aircraft in the circuit; when may an aircraft be cleared to LAND on a CROSSING RUNWAY?

RAC 5-59 401.5.2

A

A landing aircraft A shall not be permitted to cross the threshold of a runway until:

  • A preceding aircraft B taking off on a crossing runway has crossed and is clear of the intersection; or
  • A preceding aircraft C landing on a crossing runway has crossed and is clear of the intersection; or
  • A preceding aircraft D that has landed on a crossing runway has stopped short of and is clear of the intersection.
102
Q

What aircraft are being provided with an alerting service?

RAC 7-1 1

A
  • for all aerodrome traffic when ATS is in attendance; and
  • for all aircraft:
  • operating under a VFR (CAR 91.307)/IFR (CAR 91.407) flight plan; or
  • otherwise known by ATS to be in need of assistance; or
  • known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
103
Q

What shall an ATS unit do when it is known that an aircraft is in a state of emergency or is in need of assistance?

RAC 7-1 1

A
  • give priority to and render all possible assistance to the aircraft;
  • declare the appropriate emergency phase; and
  • take actions in accordance with guidance and instructions in:
  • RAC 7;
  • the IFERC - for airborne emergencies beyond the area of jurisdiction of;
  • the AEP - for aircraft emergencies at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome as described in the plan.
104
Q

In response to an in-flight emergency ATS personnel shall do what?

RAC 7-1 1.1

A
  • provide reasonable assistance and/or advice to the pilot of an aircraft operating under abnormal circumstances or declaring an emergency, in an endeavour to have the pilot:
  • maintain or regain control of the aircraft; and/or
  • resume normal operation in appropriate airspace; and/or
  • land the aircraft safely; and
  • provide reasonable advice to any other pilot assisting such a pilot.
105
Q

Describe the three Local standby phase?

RAC 7-2 3

A

When an aircraft is known or is suspected to have developed some defect but the trouble is not such as would normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing.

Declaration of the local standby phase will bring all aerodrome-based emergency services to a state of readiness but, in general, although off-aerodrome components may be notified, they will remain at their posts.

106
Q

Describe the Full emergency phase?
RAC 7-2 3

A

When an aircraft is, or is suspected to be, in such trouble that there is a possibility of an accident.

Declaration of the full emergency phase will bring all facilities, both on the aerodrome and in the community - such as medical and ambulance services, police and fire services - to a rendezvous point on the aerodrome.

It will also alert the hospital to prepare for possible reception of injured, and for road traffic control between the town and the aerodrome to clear the way for emergency
vehicles

107
Q

Describe the Crash phase?

RAC 7-2 3

A

When an aircraft accident has occurred, or is considered imminent, on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

Declaration of the crash phase will bring all facilities to immediate action

108
Q

Who is responsible for the decision to activate the AD emergency services?

RAC 7-2 3

A

When requested by a pilot, or when other factors make emergency action necessary or desirable, and the flight is, or is likely to be, within the area of jurisdiction of an aerodrome emergency plan, the ATS unit on the aerodrome shall alert the aerodrome emergency services.

109
Q

Quote some aircraft emergencies - Local Standby

RAC 7-3

A
  • If a fire warning is/has been indicated, but there is no apparent sign of fire
  • Loss of less than 50% power
  • Radio Communication Failure
  • Electric/hydraulic failure - brakes, flaps, control surfaces
  • Cracked/broken windscreen
  • Significant hail/ice/precipitation damage
  • “Emergency” fuel state
  • Bird strike
  • Door panel open/ajar
110
Q

Quote some aircraft emergencies - Full Emergency Phase

RAC 7-3

A
  • Fire in flight, extinguished or otherwise
  • Aircraft unable to maintain altitude
  • (Single-) Pilot incapacitation
  • Damaged or asymmetric control surface/flap conditions
  • If the aircraft concerned is landing with a punctured tyre, actual or suspected
  • It is suspected that the undercarriage is not fully down and locked
  • Loss of 50% or more power
  • It is considered that structural damage may occur on landing
111
Q

Describe the differences between INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA

RAC 7-4 4

A
  • Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA): When uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
  • Alert Phase (ALERFA): When apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
  • Distress Phase (DETRESFA): When there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance.
112
Q

When shall a DETRESFA be declared?

RAC 7-4 4.1

A
  • following the alert phase further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress; or
  • the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety; or
  • information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely; or
  • information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a forced landing; or
  • the duration of ALERFA has exceeded one hour.
113
Q

When shall an INCERFA be declared because uncertainty exists as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants?
(list of bullet points)

RAC 7-5 4.1

A

Because the aircraft is:

  • not on its proper track or at the correct level; or
  • not in normal communications; or
  • experiencing navigation difficulties; or
  • experiencing hazardous meteorological conditions; or
  • operating at night when the pilot or aircraft is limited to daylight operations; or
  • a declared emergency flight; or
  • an aircraft for which no flight plan has been lodged and notification is received that it is missing.
114
Q

Define SARTIME

RAC 7-6 5

A

SARTIME is the time at which Search And Rescue action is initiated if a SARTIME is not amended or cancelled, or a VFR flight plan for which a SARTIME has been nominated is not terminated.

115
Q

When ‘closing watch’ and you are providing an alerting service to aircraft what must you consider?

RAC 7-10 10

A

The ATS unit shall ascertain from all aerodrome traffic still operating whether or not they require an alerting service to continue to be provided. If the response is affirmative, the pilot shall be requested to file a flight plan.

116
Q

If receiving advice from an external source of an aircraft force-landing or crash, what information shall be obtained if possible?

RAC 7-10 11.2

A
  • Name, address and telephone number of the person reporting
  • Location of the aircraft
  • Condition of aircraft, occupants and other persons involved
  • Type, registration and description of the aircraft
  • Best access to the aircraft
  • Weather conditions, if not obvious
  • Any action taken locally.
117
Q

Which aircraft are provided with a flight information service?

RAC 10-1 1.1

A

Any new or amended flight information affecting attended aerodromes of departure, destination or known alternate or en-route flight shall be offered by ATS as soon as practicable after receipt to each aircraft:

  • being provided with an ATC service; or
  • being provided with an AFIS; or
  • being operated as an IFR flight; or
  • being operated VFR on an ICAO VFR flight plan.
118
Q

List examples of Met info that constitutes part of a flight info service

RAC 10-1 1.1.1

A
  • SIGMET (including amended period of validity)
  • SPECI
  • TAF amendments
  • significant information received from other flights
  • appropriate altimeter setting (aerodrome QNH or zone area QNH)
  • take-off and landing reports when not on ATIS.
119
Q

When is traffic info passed to an aircraft and what is its purpose?

RAC 10-4 1.6

A

To alert a pilot, IFR or VFR, to other known or observed air traffic which may be in such proximity to the position or intended route of flight as to be significant to one another, and to help the pilot avoid a collision.

120
Q

What are the elements of Traffic info?

RAC 10-4 1.6

A
  • the word “TRAFFIC”
  • direction of flight, or nature of operation
  • aircraft type
  • level (if known)
  • position information, including as appropriate:
  • present position and/or track; or
  • relative bearing and distance; or
  • ETO at an appropriate reporting point; or
  • ETP.
121
Q

What is Traffic Avoidance Advice and how shall it be used?

RAC 10-7 1.8

A

Traffic avoidance may specify manoeuvres to assist a pilot in avoiding a collision such as:

  • Vectoring by a radar controller
  • Re-routing
  • Holding
  • Altitude change
122
Q

When shall an ATIS be updated?

RAC 10-14 7.3

A
  • the instrument approach is changed;
  • the take-off or landing runway is changed;
  • changes occur in the operational status of the aerodrome and its facilities;
  • the meteorological conditions change through or by the criteria detailed in the MET section “Take-off and Landing Report Revision Criteria”.
123
Q

Describe the use of Aeronautical Ground lights in areas subject to hard frosts

EQP 7 8

A

In frost conditions down to -5°c or in other conditions when there may be condensation or water on the lens, PAPI brilliance shall be set at 100% for 5 minutes prior to use by an aircraft, in order to burn off moisture. For each degree more of frost, an extra two minutes of warm up time shall be added.

124
Q

What is the VFR met minima within a CTR?

A
  • Day or night,
  • Ceiling of 1500 ft,
  • Visibility 5 km.
125
Q

What is the SVFR Met minimum in a CTR?

A
  • Day,
  • Ceiling of 600 ft,
  • Visibility 1500 m.