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E-175 Study Guide > Oral And Basic Systems > Flashcards

Oral And Basic Systems Flashcards

0
Q

Can any part of the five point harness be MEL’d?

A

NO

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1
Q

Explain the Navigation Lights? Location?

A

There are two Nav lights on each wingtip. Only one operates at a time.
* The white Nav light is on the trailing edge of each wingtip. There is no light (other than Logo) on the tail.

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2
Q

Rudder pedals and seat are adjusted how? Special considerations?

A

Electrically.

IF MEL’d, seat can be adjusted up and down by crank under seat. But, rudders must be adjusted by a Mechanic.

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3
Q

What is the normal PSI and minimum of Oxygen bottles?

A

1800 PSI

Minimum is 1550 PSI

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4
Q

Emergency exits? Cabin and Cockpit? How do you and Pax get to the ground without jumping?

A

Cabin has four emergency exits, each has a slide.

Cockpit has two Direct Vision Window for emergency egress.
Each has an escape rope.

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5
Q

How do the Cabin doors move to open?

A

Outward and forward.

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6
Q

Cabin Door can withstand how much wind?

A

In motion - 40 Kts gust

Latched open - 65 Kts gust.

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7
Q

What are the two gauges on the cabin door?

A

One is for slide pressure

One is for Hydraulic Door Assist Pressure.

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8
Q

When should Thrust Reversers be Stowed?

A

There is a MAX and MIN REV detent.

Minimum Reverse by 60 KIAS

Closed/Stowed by 30 KIAS

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9
Q

When is standby magnetic compass not valid?

A

When transmitting on VHF #1

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10
Q

How many AC electrical networks on the airplane and why?

A

Two

Redundancy and fault isolation.

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11
Q

What happens if a power source fails?

A

The bus ties automatically connect (close) and provide power from the powered AC Bus to the Dead AC Bus… without any system degradation.

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12
Q

Name the components that power the AC System?

A 
2 IDGs (Integrated Drive Generators)
APU
Inverter
RAT (Ram Air Turbine)
AC GPU Receptacle
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13
Q

What components power the DC System?

A

2 NiCad Batteries
3 TRU’s (Transformer Rectifier Unit)
DC GPU Receptacle

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14
Q

How does the IDG maintain a stable Power output?

A

A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the Accessory Gear Box (AGB).

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15
Q

What monitors and controls the IDG?

A

Each IDG has A Generator Control Unit (GCU)

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16
Q

Can one IDG supply power to the entire system?

A

YES

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17
Q

What will cause the Amber IDG light on the overhead panel to Illuminate?

A

High Oil Temperature
OR
Low Oil Pressure

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18
Q

Electricity goes from the AC Generators to where?

A

To power the AC Busses and AC ESS bus, WHICH power the 3 TRUs (1,2, and ESS)

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units? (TRU)

A

To convert 115VAC to 28 VDC

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20
Q

Can the APU replace a failed IDG?

A

Yes,

Below 33,000’

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21
Q

What is the AC Electrical System Priority?

A

Onside (IDG)
Inside (APU)
Outside (GPU)
Cross Side (opposite IDG)

Note the airplane will use an onboard power source before using an external source.

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22
Q

How is it known an AC GPU is hooked up and ready to supply electricity?

A

GPU button displays green AVAIL and GPU icon is displayed on Electric Synoptic page.

If you push the GPU button in, it will say “IN USE”

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23
Q

If the airplane is using the AC GPU and then starts the APU, what MUST the pilot remember to do?

A

Deselect the GPU button

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24
Q

What will charge the batteries?

A

Any AC Power Source

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25
Q

How long will Aircraft batteries last without charging?

A

10 Minutes

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle ?
Below what Voltage?
What about Battery Temperature?

A

1) For starting the APU when batteries are less than 22.5 VDC
2) If Battery #2 temperature is less than -20*C

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27
Q

What is the Minimum battery temperature (Battery #2 starts APU) for an APU start?

A

-20*C

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28
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery bus ties?

A

18 Volts

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29
Q

Which battery is used for APU start? What about the other one in relation to the APU?

A

Battery #2 powers the APU Start Bus

Battery #1 powers FADEC and EICAS for start monitoring.

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30
Q

What is the purpose of the Inverter? What does it power?

A

Converts 28VDC from the batteries to 115VAC to power the AC Standby Bus when AC power source is not available.

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31
Q

What is powered by the AC Standby Bus in relation to the Engine?

A

Engine Exciters 1A and 2A

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32
Q

When will the RAT Deploy?

A

Automatically if the AC Busses are not powered.
OR
Manual deployment by Pilot

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33
Q

How long after deployment of RAT will it supply power?

A

8 Seconds

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34
Q

Do you loose power during the 8 seconds the RAT is deploying?

A

NO, the airplane Batteries supply power to the DC ESS Busses and AC Standby bus

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35
Q

What does the RAT Power?

A

All DC and AC ESS Busses (flows from the AC ESS to the DC ESS)

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36
Q

What is the Minimum Airspeed for RAT operation?

A

(Deployment must be above 150 KIAS)

130 KIAS. Below 130 KIAS and load shedding occurs.

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37
Q

What manages the electrical system?

A

4 Integrated Control Centers (ICC)

2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA)

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38
Q

What is an ICC?

A

Integrated Control Center.

An electrical control device, which provides POWER (distribution) and protection to the SPDAs and the Circuit Breakers.

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39
Q

What is an SPDA?

A

Secondary Power Distribution Assembly

An Electrical load management unit (powered by the ICCs) that distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic.

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40
Q

Can the flight crew reset the ICCs and SPDAs remote electronic Circuit Breakers?

A
  • ICC CB can only be reset by maintenance

- SPDA CB are reset my MCDU.

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41
Q

Explain the Collector tank?

A

In the inboard section of each wing. It Keeps fuel pumps submerged to ensure constant fuel flow to respective engine.

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42
Q

Explain the fuel vent system.

A

Vent system ensures:

1) positive pressure between tanks.
2) differential pressure between tanks remains within structural limits.
3) high pressure relief valve eliminates risk of over pressure.

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43
Q

What is the Surge Tank?

A

Surge tank collects any fuel that enters the vent system during maneuvers, and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level!

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44
Q

What is:
Total usable fuel?
Low level warning LBS?

A

20,786 LBS

660 LBS per tank.

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45
Q

List all the Fuel Pumps ?

A 
2 Engine Driven
2 Ejector (1 per side)
6 Scavenge (3 per side)
2 AC Electric (motor pump)
1 DC Electric (motor pump)
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46
Q

Purpose of Engine Driven Fuel Pump!

A
  • Primary fuel source to the engine
  • Provides motive flow to the primary ejector pump
  • Provides the pressure (for motive flow) to scavenge pumps
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47
Q

Explain Ejector Pump

A

Venturi type pump In Collector tank. It maintains head pressure going to respective engine.

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48
Q

Explain Scavenge pump

A

Maintains adequate fuel supply from sections of wing tank to the collector tank.

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49
Q

Explain AC fuel pump

A
  • Back-up for the ejector pumps
  • Used during crossfeed operations
  • AC Pump 2 provides fuel to APU when engine-driven pump (EDP) 2 is not running
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50
Q

Explain DC fuel pump

A

Installed only in the right wing

-Provides pressurized fuel for normal APU start when AC power or the AC fuel pump 2 is not available.

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51
Q

What pump is used once an engine is started?

A

Respective Primary Ejector Pump

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52
Q

All Fire DETECTION and PROTECTION is powered by what bus? Except what?

A

DC ESS Bus.

EXCEPT the Engine fire PROTECTION (Bottles),
which is powered by HOT BATT BUS

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53
Q

Explain ENGINE fire detection and protection? How do you isolate the engine?

A

Detection: Each engine has two engine fire loops. 8 detectors per engine. Both loops must over heat to get an engine fire indication; unless, one is broken (open).

Protection: 2 fire bottles (1 shot per bottle)
Both shots to one engine or one shot to each engine

-When the respective fire handle is pulled:
Fuel valve is closed
Hydraulic valve is closed
Bleed valve is closed

-Fire handle and ITT warnings will stay illuminated until no indication of a fire exists

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54
Q

Explain APU fire Detection System

A

2 fire loops (2 Detectors)

Both loops must detect an overheat to get a fire indication unless one loop is inop.

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55
Q

Explain what cockpit cues alert you of APU Fire

A

When an APU fire is detected you get:

-AURAL warning
AND
-3 LIGHTS!

the red stripped bar of the APU emergency stop button illuminates;

the master WARNING lights illuminate;

the EICAS WARNING message APU FIRE is displayed.

All alarms and indications cease when fire conditions are no longer present

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56
Q

Sequence of Events During an APU Fire?

A

APU EMER STOP button RED light illuminates along with other indications.

Memory item completed - APU EMER STOP BUTTON…PUSH IN (WHITE light illuminates and RED light extinguishes)

APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER button illuminates.

In the event the memory item is NOT completed, the
APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER button will illuminate after 60 seconds of having an APU fire indication

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57
Q

Explain components of the cargo fire Detection and Protection

A

Forward and Aft cargo Compartments have independent fire detectors.

Three smoke detectors in forward

Two smoke detectors in aft.

One High Rate bottle and one Low Rate bottle.

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58
Q

What Automatically Happens when Smoke is Detected in FWD Cargo compartment ?

A

Air circulation fan turns off
AND
the ventilation Outflow valve closes.

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59
Q

Explain sequence logic of the Cargo Smoke Pushbutton?

A

Broken into:
Indication and No Indication.
On the Ground and In Flight.

With Indication InFlight:
1st push fires high Rate bottle and arms low rate bottle. Low rate will fire after 60 seconds.
With Indication On Ground:
1st push fires high rate bottle, and the low rate arms. 2nd push fires low rate bottle.

NO Indication in Flight:
1st push arms high rate. 2nd push fires high rate. 3rd push fires low rate.

NO Indication on Ground:
1st push Arms high rate bottle. 2nd push fire high rate. 3rd push fires low rate.

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60
Q

How many Lav Smoke Detectors?

A

Two total, one in each……

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61
Q

Explain lavatory fire protection?

A

1 fire bottle in each waste container (forward and aft lav.)

(Wax plug melts at a given temperature to discharge the bottle)

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62
Q

Explain what 627 means in relation to the Fire Detection Test.

A

6
2
7

6 lights illuminate on the overhead panel
2 lights illuminate on the glare shield
7 lights illuminate on the EICAS
AND 2 aural indications

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63
Q

What are you looking for on the Fire Detection Test? 6227

A 
2 Aural: Fire Bell and Triple Chime
    6 Over head panel:
Fire handle 1 
Fire handle 2  
Cargo smoke (FWD) extinguisher button 
Cargo smoke (AFT) extinguisher button  
APU extinguisher button 
APU EMER STOP (top half of button
       2 Glare Shield:
Left and Right master Warning Lights
       7 EICAS:
1)ENG 1 FIRE  2)ENG 2 FIRE 
3)CARGO FWD SMOKE 4)CARGO AFT SMOKE    
5)APU FIRE 6)FIRE Engine 1 ITT gauge 7)FIRE Engine 2 ITT gauge
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64
Q

Name the systems that have fire detection and protection on the E-175 ?

A

Engines
APU
Cargo Compartments
Lavatories

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65
Q

Are the cockpit and cabin fire protected? How?

A

Yes,
The cockpit has one hand held halon fire extinguisher.
The cabin has Four hand held halon fire extinguishers. (2aft, 2 fwd) and one water fire extinguisher in the aft.

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66
Q

What is an Indication of an APU Fire?

A

Fire bell

Red stripe in the EMER STOP button

APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS

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67
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?

A

Only on the ground

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68
Q

What happens when the APU EMER STOP button is pushed when an engine fire indication is present?

A

APU shuts off immediately without a 1-minute cool-down

APU fuel SOV closes

APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

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69
Q

How long does the cargo compartment low rate Halon bottle remain active?

A

60 Minutes

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70
Q

What is the Fuel Source for the APU?

A

Right fuel tank normally

Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve

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71
Q

What fuel pump(s) are used for APU Start? (3)

A

IF:
Batteries ‘ON’ only DC fuel pump in right tank

AC powered airplane ACMP 2

Right engine running right Ejector fuel pump

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72
Q

What does moving the APU Start Switch to OFF do?

A

Initiates normal APU shutdown

1-minute cool down

No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute

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73
Q

Can APU shutdown be cancelled?

A

Yes, by moving the START switch back to ‘ON’ before the 1-minute cool down is over

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74
Q

How is the APU shutdown Immediately?

A

APU emergency stop button
(No 1-minute cool down period)

OR
Turning the Batteries off with the APU switch off

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75
Q

What conditions will cause automatic shutdown of the APU occur?

A

Ground:

Overspeed

Under Speed

FADEC critical fault

Fire

Overheat

Low oil pressure

Flight:

Overspeed

Underspeed

FADEC critical fault

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76
Q

How many Hydraulic systems?

A

Three Independant Systems.

HYD1 HYD2 HYD3

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77
Q

What systems use Hydraulic Power?

A

Flight controls

Spoilers

Landing gear

Nose wheel steering

Wheel brakes

Thrust reversers

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78
Q

Can Hydraulic fluid be transferred between systems?

A

No

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79
Q

How many Hydraulic Pumps are on the Airplane total?

A

6 total: 2 EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps) 4 ACMPs (AC Motor Pumps)

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80
Q

What are the basic components of the Hydraulic system?

A

Reservoir

Pumps

Accumulator

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81
Q

Purpose of the Accumulator?

A

Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands

Helps to avoid pump cavitation

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82
Q

When will Hydraulic ACMP 1 and 2 automatically activate?

A

Basically during takeoff and landing

Ground:

Flaps > 0, and

TL set to T/O, or

Groundspeed > 50 kts

Flight:

Engine failure or EDP failure
OR
Flaps > 0

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83
Q

What is the IESS?

A

It’s just the stupid Standby Attitude Indicator.

Integrated Electronic Standby System

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84
Q

Explain the components of the Hydraulic System

A 
Hydraulic systems 1 & 2 have:
   1 EDP
   1 ACMP
   1 Reservoir
   2 Accumulators
(System 2 has a power Transfer Unit (PTU)

Hydraulic 3:
2 ACMP (3A&3B)
1 Reservoir
1 Accumulator

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85
Q

What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system?

A

Landing Gear
Nose Wheel Steering
Inboard Breaks

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86
Q

What is the PTU

A

Power Transfer Unit

The PTU consists of a hydraulic pump in Hydraulic System 2 driven by a hydraulic motor installed in Hydraulic System 1.

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87
Q

Why is there a PTU?

A

To allow landing gear retraction in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure

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88
Q

When will the PTU automatically turn on?

A

During takeoff and landing: ONLY if the EDP 2 fails, or the ACMP2 fails!

with flaps > 0 OR gear down, and the EDP 1 is working and hydraulic fluid level is greater than 12%

  • It never activates on the Ground
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89
Q

How do you activate nose wheel steering and which hydraulic system?

A

Releasing the parking break activates ACMP 2, activating the nose wheel steering.

Powered by ACMP 2

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90
Q

What is the primary purpose of the hydraulic three system?

A

A backup for the Flight Controls

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91
Q

Why are HYD ACMP 3A & B pump switch positions ON & AUTO respectively?

A

3A is primary with no automation

3B is back-up and automatically activates if 3A fails. Hence “AUTO”

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92
Q

What hydraulic ACMP will run if the RAT is supplying power only?

A

ACMP 3A

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93
Q

In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?

A

HYD 3 Accumulator

After 8 seconds, the RAT will power the ACMP 3A

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94
Q

In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?

A

No. Flow limiter reduces ACMP electrical load on RAT.

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95
Q

What does the AMS use bleed air for?

A

ECS (heating & cooling)

Engine start

Pressurization

Engine and wing anti-ice

Water pressure

Hot air leak detection

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96
Q

How many AMS controllers?

A

One controller with two separate channels. If one channel fails, the other can run system.

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97
Q

What provides air for the AMS?

A

Engine bleed
APU bleed
External pneumatic source.

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98
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A

ECS (heating & cooling)

Engine start

Engine and wing anti-icing

Water pressurization

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99
Q

What is external Pneumatic Air for? How is it connected?

A

Hi pressure connection is for Ground engine start.

Separate Low pressure connection for Environmental air on the ground.

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100
Q

Primary Uses for APU Bleed Air

A

ECS on the ground

Engine starting on the ground

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101
Q

Where is engine bleed air extracted from?

A

6th and 10th stage compressors (Low Pressure Valve and High Pressure Valve)

System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure

102
Q

What’s normal engine bleed air pressure in the AMS?

A

45 PSI

103
Q

What cools the Pre Cooler

A

Air from N1 fan (ducted to pre-cooler)

104
Q

What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?

A

Engine and APU bleed air

PACKs

Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-icing system

105
Q

Do both bleed air overheat detection loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition?

A

Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat

106
Q

How high can a single PACK provide Temperature control and pressurization?

A

FL 310

107
Q

Can a single bleed source power both PACKs?

A

Yes, through the cross bleed valve

108
Q

Ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?

A

Fresh = 52% Recirculated = 48%

109
Q

When are the recirculation fans commanded off?

A

Cockpit switch

Smoke detected in the recirc bay

DUMP button is pressed

PACKs are commanded off

110
Q

What keeps the 3 Electronic Bays cool? (E-Bay)

A

FWD = 3 fans pull air from cockpit to bay

CTR E-BAY = 3 fans pull air from cabin to bay

AFT E-BAY = Natural air-flow from cabin to bay

111
Q

When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated? What does it do?

A
  • it allows aircraft ventilation
  • Both packs commanded off.
  • Packs fail OFF below 25,000 ft (via left side and electronically controlled)
  • Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via right side)
112
Q

How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)

A

Two. One active and one standby.

113
Q

What happens when the dump button is pressed? (3)

A
  • Commands both ECS packs OFF
  • recirculation fans OFF
  • Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft at a rate of 2,000 fpm
114
Q

In manual mode will the cabin depressurize on landing?

A

No

115
Q

What is the bleed system priority in flight?

A

Onside engine

Opposite side engine

APU (if available)

116
Q

When does the APU have Priority to provide the aircraft systems with bleed air?

A

Aircraft is on the ground

Wheel speed

117
Q

When will the crossbleed valve automatically open?

A

Only one side bleed source is available for the PACKs or engine start opposite side. (Cross Bleed Engine start on the ground or in the air) or if the APU is on, but the APU bleed button is pushed in.

118
Q

What are some things that will close the ECS PACKs

A

Any engine start if APU is the bleed source

Engine start on the ground

Respective bleed system duct leak

Bleed air source not available for the pack

TL set to MAX on takeoff

REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff

REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)

119
Q

When are ECS Packs Recovered after being Auto Shut off on takeoff when Max thrust was needed?

A

TL not at MAX, and

Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating

Airplane is > 9,700 MSL with one engine operating

120
Q

What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay?

A

Both recirc fans deactivate

Cargo recirc fan deactivates

Cargo outflow valve closes

121
Q

What is ABORT mode (ECS)

A

Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if:

Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and

Airplane has not climbed > 5,000 AFE or > 10,000 MSL

122
Q

What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing?

A

Bleed Air Heat

Electric Heat

123
Q

What uses electric heat for ice protection?

A

Pitot-static system (smart probes and static ports)

Windshields

Water lines

Water/Waste service ports and drain masts

TAT probes

124
Q

If an Engine Fails, does the opposite wing and Engine receive ice protection?

A

Yes. The crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings

The failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip

125
Q

How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection?

A

One. Two for redundancy

126
Q

How long will the de-icing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?

A

5 minutes

127
Q

If ‘ICING’ on the MCDU is set to ‘OFF’ and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?

A

Not until 1700’ or two minutes after ice was detected:

WhichEver happens First!

128
Q

Can APU be used for bleed DE-icing?

A

NO

129
Q

What is protected from Ice?

A

Engine inlets

Wing leading edge

Smart probes

Windshields

Water & waste drain systems

130
Q

Is ice protection automatic?

A

Yes

131
Q

Can the pilot override the automatic ice system

A

Yes

132
Q

How is ice detected?

A

2 ice detectors

Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it

Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes

133
Q

Anti icing bleed air is taken from where?

A

10th High Stage Valve

134
Q

How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?

A

All

135
Q

What does selection all on MCDU Icing do?

A

Engine anti-ice ON when engines are running

Wing anti-ice ON at 40 kts wheel speed

136
Q

How does the failure of one of the two AC Electrical power sources affect the windshield heating system?

A

In flight: the left side will be automatically powered by the remaining AC power source… UNLESS the left windshield heating system is fried, then the right windshield will be heated.

137
Q

What does the ‘TIMER’ selection on the windshield wiper switch do?

A

8 Second Intervals

138
Q

What happens if Wiper is Operated on a dry Windshield?

A

The wiper will stop…

To reset wiper move switch to ‘OFF’

139
Q

When do the Smart Probes Heat?

A

When an engine is running

140
Q

Is there a test for the Anti-Icing?

A

Yes, but maintenance performs this test

Also a self-test which occurs at 10,000’ or 10 minutes after takeoff

141
Q

What types of Engines on the E 175?

A

Two General Electric CF-34-8E5

Hi-bypass, 2-spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan

142
Q

Engine thrust?

A

14,200 LBS

143
Q

Describe N1 Spool?

A

Single Stage Fan at very front (Low Pressure) connected to a

Four Stage (LP) Turbine in the back of the engine.

144
Q

Describe N2 Spool?

A

10 Stage Compressor (Gas Generator)

2-Stage HP Turbine

145
Q

How many Igniters per Engine?

A

Two

146
Q

How many Igniter activate for engine Start?

A

Ground- 1 igniter ( switch in AUTO )

Flight- 2 igniters ( switch in AUTO )

147
Q

What happens when the Ignition Switch is selected to OVRD?

A

Activates both Igniters on Ground or in Flight.

148
Q

Can the igniters be turned off during flight?

A

NO

The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command

  • The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only -
149
Q

What Controls the engine? How many/backups?

A

A two-channel FADEC

One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup

150
Q

Is one FADEC channel used every flight?

A

No. They automatically alternate with each engine start

151
Q

What does the Cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach?

A

The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions

Appears when Configured for landing

152
Q

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

A

Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start or no light-off

153
Q

What will FADEC do if engine is hot when first starting an engine?

A

FADEC will not allow FF if ITT >120°C

FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT

154
Q

Describe the engine start sequence

A

Start switch momentarily to START:

 7% N2 Ignition

 20% N2 Fuel flow

 20% N2+ 5 sec Light-off

 50% N2 Ignition off

Engine stabilizes:

 N1 27%

 ITT 460°C

 N2 62%

 FF 550 lbs/hr

 Oil Pressure >25 psi

155
Q

What does WML engine indication mean?

A

Windmilling engine

 The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or

 An assisted start has been commanded

156
Q

What provides under and over speed protection for the Engine? Max and Minimum N2 speeds? What happens if the engine hits the maximum N2?

A

The FADEC via the FMU

Approximately 52% N2 and 102% N2 respectively

If engine hits 102% N2, the FADEC will shut the engine down. The engine should auto re-light. (Up to three cycles then it says screw it something is really wrong with the engine) page 6.31 in systems manual.

157
Q

What happens if FADEC detects a serious engine over speed?After three overspeed detection events within 30 seconds?

A

FADEC shuts down the engine.

If three separate overspeed events occur, the engine will be shut down and FADEC will not relight the engine.

158
Q

What is ATTCS?

A

Automatic Take Off Thrust Control System. (Gives you takeoff thrust if you need it)

159
Q

What will trigger an ATTCS event?

A

N1 difference >15% between engines

Engine failure during TOGA

Windshear detected

160
Q

When is Thrust Reverse Available?

A

Weight on wheels

161
Q

What happens if thrust reverser inadvertently deploys???

A

FADEC automatically reduces respective engine thrust to idle

162
Q

What engine thrust rating may only be used for five minutes? What is the ten minute limitation for?

A

TO means full power as opposed to FLEX TO………
TO-1
TO-RSV (TL beyond TOGA)
GA (two-engine go-around)
GA-RSV (one-engine go-around or windshear)

Ten minutes is the limit for 990* TOGA ITT

163
Q

Can flex be reduced lower than climb thrust?

A

No

164
Q

What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly-By-Wire)?

A

Ailerons

165
Q

What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode in relation to flight controls?

A

There are no higher level functions available in direct mode

166
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?

A

Gain on airspeed

Elevator thrust compensation

AOA limiting

167
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?

A

Yaw damp

Turn coordination

Thrust asymmetry

Gain on airspeed – as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases

168
Q

What is the priority for trim system?

A

Back-up

Captain

First Officer

Autopilot

169
Q

How is roll controlled?

A

Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)

170
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lever shows deployed?

A

Flaps 2 or greater

Airspeed less than 180 KTS

Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) is greater than 70*

171
Q

What is the Slat/Flap extension/retraction sequence?

A

Slats extend first

Flaps retract First

172
Q

Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into DIRECT Mode?

A

Yes

173
Q

Can a FCM (flight control module) override pilot input?

A

No, pilot always has supreme control.

174
Q

What is an Artificial Feel Unit?

A

Two independent feel units provide artificial feel and centering to the control columns.

175
Q

What happens to artificial feel if one of the flight control columns is jammed and then disconnected?

A

The feel is 1/2 force

176
Q

How are the flight controls trimed?

A

Ailerons and Rudder surface repositioned to a new ‘neutral position’

Pitch, the whole Horizontal Stabilizer moves.

177
Q

Will the multi-function spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’ mode?

A

Yes, for roll only. And at a default fixed gain.

178
Q

Will the speed brakes/ ground spoilers function in Direct mode?

A

No

Systems manual 8.49

179
Q

What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only power source?

A

Horizontal stab trim operates at ½ speed

Slat / flap system operates at ½ speed

Slat / flap position is limited to ‘3’ to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT

180
Q

How is the landing gear extended and retracted?

A

Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated

181
Q

When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound?

A

SLAT/FLAP lever in a landing position (5 or FULL) Regardless of thrust lever position and radio altitude.

B. SLAT/FLAP lever in the 0, 1, 2, 3 or 4 position
(1) Radio altitude below 700 ft AGL, and
(2) Either thrust lever is set below 45° for two operative engines, or
(3) Thrust lever is set below 59° for a one-engine inoperative condition

182
Q

Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushing the ‘LG WRN INHIB’ button?

A

Only if both radio altimeters have failed

183
Q

What are the three ways to extend the landing gear? (modes)

A

Normal - LG lever DOWN

Electric override - Bypasses PSEM (weight on wheels) logic to directly command selector valve to release uplock pressures.

Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens free-fall sequencing valve

184
Q

What is the purpose of DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?

A

Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock

Lock protects against inadvertent landing gear retraction when weight-on-wheels

185
Q

What keeps gear locked in extended/retracted position?

A

Extended: downlock springs

Retracted: uplock hooks

186
Q

Describe the landing gear indications on the EICAS?

A

Green Down & locked

White Up & locked

Amber In transit

Red gear position & lever disagreement (20 sec grace period)

187
Q

How do the landing gear doors actuate?

A

Mechanically

188
Q

How are brakes commanded?

A

Brake by Wire

Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated

Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module)

189
Q

What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?

A

HYD 1 Outboard brakes

HYD 2 Inboard brakes

HYD 1 & 2 Parking/emergency brake

190
Q

What is the logic for activating braking on landing?

A

Touchdown: No braking until 3 seconds or > 50 kts wheel speed after touchdown

Anti-skid: Compares wheel speeds and releases pressure (deactivated below 10 Knots so pilots can lock and pivot on a wheel)

191
Q

How many applications will the emergency brake provide?

A

6 Applications

192
Q

What Stops the main wheel from spinning during retraction?

A

Main gear BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels

Nose gear Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels

193
Q

What system controls the nose wheel steering?

A

HYD 2

194
Q

What limits are for nose wheel Steering?

A

Angle varies with ground speed

Up to 40 kts +76°

41 to 100 kts Decreases linearly from 76° to 7°

195
Q

Where can O2 pressure be read?

A

MFD ‘STATUS’ page (corrected for temperature)

At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)

196
Q

Do the crew and passengers share the same O2 ?

A

No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators

197
Q

Can O2 chemical generators be shut off once started?

A

No

198
Q

What is the minimum O2 for cockpit crew?

A

Two crew “blue for Two”

Three crew “green for three”

199
Q

What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?

A

Flow of O2

Mask microphone activated

Communications to Flight deck speakers

200
Q

What Happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed while flight O2 masks are not stowed?

A

Stops flow of O2

Deactivates mask microphone

Deactivates flight deck speakers

201
Q

What type of O2 will the quick donning crew masks provide?

A

Emergency Pure oxygen with positive pressure

100% Pure oxygen at all altitudes

Normal Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)

202
Q

During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 had been over pressurized ?

A

The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage

203
Q

What is the O2 duration for pax, FA cylinder, and PBE

A

Passenger O2 12 min

Flight Attendant cylinder 30 min

PBE 15 min

204
Q

When will passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?

A

Cabin altitude of 14,000’

205
Q

Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?

A

Yes, via a manual release tool located at each FA station

206
Q

What does the PBE provide?

A

Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes

Blue indication: Good

Pink indication: Bad

Vacuum loss: Bad (even with a blue indication

207
Q

How many portable O2 cylinders are installed in the cabin?

A

Two. One forward and one aft.

Two masks per cylinder.

208
Q

What is RNP ?

A

REQUIRED NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE

value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position at least 95 percent of the time. This can include any equipment the airplane has. Our FMS shows RNP but can be taken from GPS DME VOR IRS or whatever. It can be required for SIDS STARS Enroute and Approaches. On approaches it might say DME/DME RNP .3 NA…… This means you cannot be dependent on DME for RNP accuracy of .3 of a mile. DME is the lowest level of accuracy.

209
Q

Why is there an air circulation shut off valve for the forward cargo bay?

A

So that in the event of a fire, the halon will stay in that cargo bay. Also if a fire is detected , the fwd cargo fan will turn off and the air flow check valve will close preventing halon from entering the cabin.

210
Q

What is the most the the nose wheel can turn?

A

Nose wheel steering is limited to 76* at low speeds.

211
Q

When will the emergency lights come on when the EMER LT Selector knob is in Auto?

A

When the aircrafts DC Bus 1 loses power.

Or

If airplane electrical power is turned off..

212
Q

When do Passenger oxygen masks drop?

A

14,000 feet cabin altitude

213
Q

What are K Codes?

A

Certain EICAS messages are inhibited during takeoff and Landing to avoid stupid aborted takeoff’s. Example: on Takeoff, your a few knots below V1 and one Pack fails… The logic is grouped into K codes. Systems 15.25

214
Q

What can cause the IDG to disconnect other than pushing the button?

A

IDG shaft can fail due to shaft breaking (torque) or heat

215
Q

When you first turn the Battery 1 & 2 on and nothing else, (to start the APU of course) what busses are being powered?

A

On AC, only the AC standby bus is being powered.

On DC, the APU Start bus, Hot Batt bus 1 & 2 (Associated with battery one and two) and all three DC ESS Buses.

216
Q

What emergency items are on the DC Hot Batt Bus 1 and 2? Will they work with the battery knobs in off?

A 
Batt 1: 
Engine 1A Fire Extinguisher 
Engine 2A fire extinguisher 
Engine Fuel SOV 1
Hydraulic SOV 1

Yea they will work with everything turned off…

Batt 2:
Engine 1B Fire Extinguisher 
Engine 2B Fire Extinguisher 
Engine Fuel SOV 2
Hydraulic System SOV 2
217
Q

What will cause you to not get the “Takeoff Okay” message?

A
  • Flaps not 1,2 or 4
  • any spoiler panel deployed
  • Parking break
  • Pitch Trim not in green
  • Speed brake lever not stowed.
  • Flap handle is not in agreement with flaps
218
Q

If you have less than 22.5 V on batteries, can you plug in the AC GPU to start the APU?

A

No.
When you start the APU, the AC system is isolated to allow a strong DC electrical flow from the batteries or the DC GPU to the APU Start bus. So you gotta use an AC GPU to charge the Batteries OR just use the DC GPU.

219
Q

What will be on when you turn on the Batteries?

A

Items you should see on with battery power only:

  • DU 2 & DU 3 (2 is locked on status page)
  • MCDU 2
  • CCD 1
  • IESS
  • Clock
  • Flight Guidance Panel & Display Controls
  • Compass Light
  • Master Warning & Caution Lights
  • Both Audio Panels ONLY Com/nav 1 will work
220
Q

The panel where the AC GPU plugs in has a button. If the ground personnel pushes it what bus does it power?

A

AC Ground Service Bus. Much more limited than if you push the button in the cockpit.

221
Q

When might the IDG Amber light come on?

A

Either because of too high oil temperature or Low Oil Pressure

222
Q

When you start the APU, what does the Batt 2 power?

A

It only powered the APU start bus and the Hot Batt Bus 2. The contractor opens so that ONLY those two items are powered.

223
Q

What is the PMA on the Accessory gear box?

A

Permanent Magnet Alternator

Dedicated to powering the FADEC. Powers above 50% N2

224
Q

What is on the Accessory Gear Box?

A 
Fuel Pump
IDG
Starter (air)
Hydraulic Pump
Oil Pump
PMA
225
Q

What is the equivalent of the Continuous ignition?

A

The OVRD on the ignition knob. FADEC will continuously run both Exciters per engine. BUT no where does it say we must use ORVD for any normal situation…..

226
Q

Explain how the pilots inputs travel from the yoke to the control surface (FBW only)??? FCM?

A

Simply: yoke-ACE-PCU
Yoke inputs are sent to the respective Actuator control unit (ACE).
If higher level functions (Normal Mode) are active, the ACE is influenced by the Flight Control Module (responsible for higher level functions). If no higher level function, the FCM is bypassed.
The ACE sends inputs to the specific Power Control Unit PCU. PCU is the hydraulic actuator …

227
Q

Explain the two PBIT’s?

A

Power Up Built In Test:

Electric- Occurs when airplane is powered by any A/C power source. Tests electrics and flight controls and take about 3 minutes. Don’t touch anything.

Hydraulic: “Flight cntrl PBIT” happens when you start up the Hydraulics on the power up.. Don’t touch anything

228
Q

If you turn the start/Stop knob to the Off position in flight, with the thrust levers at climb, what happens?

A

Nothing. FADEC only allows engine stop with thrust levers in idle in flight.

229
Q

What happens if you leave the Nose lights on?

A

They turn off automatically when the gear retracts.

230
Q

What is the difference between a spoiler FCM failing into direct mode, and pushing the flight control mode spoiler button into Direct mode?

A

If a FCM fails, just the associated panel will fail. The rest of the MFS will work in normal mode.

If you push the spoiler button, all MFS still work but at a fixed gain.

231
Q

Why do we have an Emergency Ram Air option?

A

Emergency ram air ventilation is provided in case of pack shutdown or for smoke removal

232
Q

How many portable fire extinguishers are in the Cabin?

A

4:

1 halon forward, 2 halon aft and 1 water extinguisher aft

233
Q

In relation to the pneumatic cross bleed valve, which side of the AMS is the APU connected to?

A

Left side. So basically, if the #2 engine needs to be started, the cross bleed valve must open because you have two bleed sources (APU, #1 Engine) on the leg side. If you were starting Engine #1 with the APU running the crossbleed valve could remain closed…

234
Q

In relation to the pneumatic cross bleed valve, which side of the AMS is the APU connected to?

A

Left side. So basically, if the #2 engine needs to be started, the cross bleed valve must open because you have two bleed sources (APU, #1 Engine) on the leg side. If you were starting Engine #1 with the APU running the crossbleed valve could remain closed…

235
Q

How many ADS do we have? What is the first reversionary logic for FO and Captain?

A

Five separate independent Air Data Systems. Three send info to the flight instruments. (ADS 4 sends info to IESS)
If either the CA or FO ADS fails, it will revert to the System 3 first.

236
Q

How long will the DVDR record voice and data?

A

120 minutes of audio

25 hours of flight data

237
Q

What happens if you hold the fire test button for more than 10 seconds

A

The APU will shut off

238
Q

When will the ADS smart probes get heated?

A

Engine on, icing conditions, and when the FO turns on the heat button on the right side of the cockpit.

239
Q

What two hydraulic valves modulate when you loose all electrical power?

A

Pump unloader valve immediately reduces hydraulic pressure to not overload the RAT. The hydraulic flow bypasses the ACMP 3A… The Flow limiter valve continues to keep the hydraulic load from hindering the RAT

240
Q

After parking break has been released and you’ve been taxiing, you set the parking break. How long will hydraulic 2B stay active?

A

6 minutes. When you release the break again, the ACMP 2 will turn on again.

241
Q

On the nose wheel towing light, how do you get a green light?

A

1) Steering disengaged by external switch on lower forward left fuselage.
2) NO parking break
3) NO main (rudder pedal) brakes

242
Q

During an evacuation due to a landing gear stuck up, what is an important factor to consider?

A

One side of the aircraft will be higher than the slides are designed for. Must evacuate on the low side of the airplane.

(IE- the nose wheel collapses. The tail of the aircraft will be much to high to safely evacuate passengers out the aft emergency exits. Or if the right main gear collapsed, the left side of the airplane will be too high to safely use the left exit slides.)

243
Q

Which slats are heated?

A

Outboard only.

244
Q

Where can you find approach and takeoff speeds?

A

QRH (Back of the Book “Performance”)

245
Q

What are the BIG NACA scoops on the belly of the plane?

A

Ram air inlet scoops. Normally, They help to cool the PACKs….

If PACKS fail,
Left scoop will help pressurize cabin if in an emergency, and AC power is available (RAT) and below 25,000’. Above 25,000 you’re too high for the valve to open to help pressurize.

Right scoop will work without power and helps to ventilate the cabin.

246
Q

What will the big NACA scoops do under airplane? What about the little ones? Emergency operation?

A

Big NACA = Ram air inlet scoops. Normally, They help to cool the PACKs. The air exits the grates behind the big NACA scoops. Valves Modulate open to closed, depending on altitude.

Little NACA = cools the compartment (Hydraulic)

-Emergency-
Left scoop has valve that opens and will help pressurize cabin if AC power is available (RAT) and below 25,000’

Right scoop will work without power and helps to pressurize cabin.

247
Q

What are MLIs?

A

Magnetic Level Indicators

Maintainence function only.

248
Q

What is the strake for on the sides of the engine cowl?

A

Helps direct airflow.

249
Q

What are the big and little NACA scoops outboard underwing for?

A
  • Big ones are fuel tank scoop, Pressurizing the fuel tanks

- Little ones are for cooling the nav lights

250
Q

If you can’t see how much brake ware indicators are left, what do you do?

A

Turn on the hydraulics and have someone hold the breaks. Then run down and check…

251
Q

Explain the static wicks

A 
Total of 32
Wing tip = 6
Aileron = 3
Rudder = 4
Elevator = 4
Vertical stabilizer top = 1
Nose gear = 1
252
Q

How many static wicks can be missing?

A

You can have one missing per group (aileron, wingtip, left side elevator…)

253
Q

What’s Free Wheel Steering and How is it engaged?

A

The Nose Wheel Steering is Disengaged, used mostly for Towing.

Steering disengage button on back of Yoke.
Or
Guarded switch in External GPU Access

E-175 Study Guide (7 decks)

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