Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What does illumination of a single GEN TIE OPEN annunciator indicate?

A

The respective generator bus has been isolated from the center bus.

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2
Q

Which bus feeds the cockpit emergency lights?

A

The battery or dual fed bus.

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3
Q

What is the normal generator voltage?

A

28.25 VDC

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4
Q

With the batter switch OFF and the battery bus switch EMER OFF, what should the battery bus voltage read?

A

0 Volts

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5
Q

What does a flashing EXT PWR annunciator indicate?

A

The GPU is electrically disconnected from the aircraft or the voltage is low.

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6
Q

What occurs when the BAT BUS switch is placed in the EMER OFF position?

A

The battery relay and BAT TIE will open.

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7
Q

What does illumination of the LDG/TAXI advisory light indicate?

A

At least on of the three landing and taxi light switches is on the with nose gear unlock switch closed.

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8
Q

What will the cabin lights do when oxygen is supplied to the passenger masks?

A

They will go to the full bright position.

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9
Q

What are the generator output limits in flight?

A

100% up to 34K, 95% above 34K

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10
Q

When does the compressor bleed valve close?

A

97% N1

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11
Q

When should engine oil be checked to insure an accurate reading?

A

Within 10 minutes after shutdown

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12
Q

What is the maximum permissible ITT during start?

A

1000 C for 5 seconds

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13
Q

What is the maximum cruise climb ITT?

A

785 C

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14
Q

What happens to the engine if the high pressure fuel pump fails?

A

The engine quits

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15
Q

What actions should be taken with oil pressure between 60 and 90 PSI?

A

Torque should be reduced to 62% or less for the duration of the flight.

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16
Q

How is fuel heated prior to reaching the FCU?

A

Fuel to oil heat exchanger

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17
Q

Can the generator be brought online with the start switch in the IGNITION and ENGINE START position?

A

NO

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18
Q

What occurs when the fire test switch is placed in the DET position?

A

The ENGINE FIRE switch lights illuminate.

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19
Q

How many portable fire extinguishers are onboard and where are they located?

A

Two, one under the copilot’s seat, the other by the main cabin door.

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20
Q

What happens when the F/W VALVE PUSH switch is depressed?

A

The fuel firewall valve closes and the engine fire bottle is armed.

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21
Q

From which bus is the engine fire detection system powered?

A

Triple fed

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22
Q

What occurs with a failure of the primary governor oil pump?

A

The prop feathers

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23
Q

The prop levers control propeller speed in what RPM range?

A

1450 to 1700 RPM

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24
Q

When will the auto feather system arm during takeoff?

A

When the power levers are advanced beyond 88%.

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25
What governor controls pro speed in the event the prop becomes fixed-pitch.
Fuel topping governor
26
What does the PROP PITCH annunciator indicate?
Propeller blade angle is less than the Flight Idle Stop (more than 8 deg)
27
What governor regulates propeller RPM in reverse?
Fuel-topping governor at 95% of selected.
28
What is the total fuel capacity?
539 Gal
29
The jet transfer pumps normally receive motive flow fuel from what source?
Engine-driven boost pumps
30
What occurs when the cross feed switch is place in the left or right position?
The standby boost pump on the supply side comes on, the motive flow valve on the receiving side closes, and the cross feed light illuminates when the valve opens.
31
What is the maximum fuel imbalance in flight?
300 lbs
32
What action would you take if the FUEL PRES LO annunciator illuminates in-flight?
Refer to checklist
33
What is indicated by the yellow arc on the fuel gauges?
0-265 lbs fuel, no takeoff range
34
What holds the landing gear up?
Hydraulic pressure
35
Describe the procedure to extend the landing gear manually.
Refer to checklist
36
How is electrical power removed from the power pack after normal gear retraction?
2775 psi pressure switch
37
Max landing gear extension speed.
184 KIAS
38
Max landing gear retraction speed.
166 KIAS
39
What is the proper procedure to set the parking brake?
Apply pressure to the pedals and pull the parking brake handle
40
Where is the brake fluid reservoir located?
Avionics bay, left side.
41
How are the primary flight controls actuated?
Cables, pulleys, and bellcranks
42
If the pilot and copilot engage the electric trim in opposite directions, what will happen?
The pilot's trim will override the copilot's.
43
Loss of electrical power to the flap indicator will cause what indication?
Indicator pointer fails to the 11:00 position
44
What is the maximum altitude without yaw damp?
5000 FT
45
How does the rudder boost system detect an engine power loss?
Engine torque-meter oil pressure is comported and rudder boost initiated after a 30% differential.
46
Does the KingAir 350 have split-flap protection between wings?
No, only between the inboard and outboard flap on each wing
47
Where is bleed air for pneumatics extracted from the engine?
After the centrifugal compressor
48
How can you determine if the pneumatic bleed valve has closed completely?
Place both switches in the PNEU & ENVIR OFF position and observe 0 pneumatic pressure.
49
What will the pneumatic shutoff do if we experience an electrical failure?
Remain open since it is a normally open valve.
50
What position should the environmental bleed switch be in when operating at temperatures of 10C or greater?
LOW
51
What N1 setting is required to engage the air conditioner compressor clutch?
62%
52
When will the vent blower operate in HI?
When the vent blower switch is selected to HI.
53
Altitude limiters begin closing the outflow and safety valves at what altitude?
13,000 PA
54
How should the pressurization controller be set prior to landing?
500 ft above field pressure altitude
55
Where is crew and passenger oxygen stored?
In an oxygen bottle in the tail.
56
What prevents the aircraft from pressurizing on the ground?
The safety valve
57
How is it possible to pressurize the aircraft on the ground?
Placing the pressurization stick to TEST
58
With the shutoff valve closed, where is oxygen available?
In the oxygen bottle
59
Where can oxygen pressure be monitored?
Gauges in the cockpit and at the filter door.
60
What modes of operation do the crew masks include?
Normal, 100%, and Emergency
61
How much ice is allowed before inflating the deice boots?
1/2 inch minimum
62
What happens when you select single cycle?
The wing boots inflate for 6 seconds, then the tail boots inflate for 4 seconds.
63
What is normal amperage for the prop deice?
26-32 amps
64
What will the ammeter show when using manual prop deice?
0 amps
65
How can you tell that the manual system is operating?
By the increased loads on the loadmeters
66
What anti-ice is on for all flights?
left and right pitot heat, left and right fuel vents, stall warning (hot 5)
67
What is the maximum temperature for takeoff with engine ant-ice on?
10 C
68
How long will it take the battery to discharge with a dual generator failure and a 40A electrical load?
40 minutes
69
What will happen if the primary governor fails?
Overspeed governor will control prop RPM at 1768.
70
Where is the aircraft datum located?
83.5" forward the forward jack point.
71
What is TOFL?
The greatest of: accelerate stop, accelerate go, all engines at takeoff + 15%.
72
What is the minimum second segment climb?
2%