Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What does illumination of a single GEN TIE OPEN annunciator indicate?

A

The respective generator bus has been isolated from the center bus.

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2
Q

Which bus feeds the cockpit emergency lights?

A

The battery or dual fed bus.

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3
Q

What is the normal generator voltage?

A

28.25 VDC

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4
Q

With the batter switch OFF and the battery bus switch EMER OFF, what should the battery bus voltage read?

A

0 Volts

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5
Q

What does a flashing EXT PWR annunciator indicate?

A

The GPU is electrically disconnected from the aircraft or the voltage is low.

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6
Q

What occurs when the BAT BUS switch is placed in the EMER OFF position?

A

The battery relay and BAT TIE will open.

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7
Q

What does illumination of the LDG/TAXI advisory light indicate?

A

At least on of the three landing and taxi light switches is on the with nose gear unlock switch closed.

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8
Q

What will the cabin lights do when oxygen is supplied to the passenger masks?

A

They will go to the full bright position.

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9
Q

What are the generator output limits in flight?

A

100% up to 34K, 95% above 34K

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10
Q

When does the compressor bleed valve close?

A

97% N1

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11
Q

When should engine oil be checked to insure an accurate reading?

A

Within 10 minutes after shutdown

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12
Q

What is the maximum permissible ITT during start?

A

1000 C for 5 seconds

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13
Q

What is the maximum cruise climb ITT?

A

785 C

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14
Q

What happens to the engine if the high pressure fuel pump fails?

A

The engine quits

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15
Q

What actions should be taken with oil pressure between 60 and 90 PSI?

A

Torque should be reduced to 62% or less for the duration of the flight.

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16
Q

How is fuel heated prior to reaching the FCU?

A

Fuel to oil heat exchanger

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17
Q

Can the generator be brought online with the start switch in the IGNITION and ENGINE START position?

A

NO

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18
Q

What occurs when the fire test switch is placed in the DET position?

A

The ENGINE FIRE switch lights illuminate.

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19
Q

How many portable fire extinguishers are onboard and where are they located?

A

Two, one under the copilot’s seat, the other by the main cabin door.

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20
Q

What happens when the F/W VALVE PUSH switch is depressed?

A

The fuel firewall valve closes and the engine fire bottle is armed.

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21
Q

From which bus is the engine fire detection system powered?

A

Triple fed

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22
Q

What occurs with a failure of the primary governor oil pump?

A

The prop feathers

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23
Q

The prop levers control propeller speed in what RPM range?

A

1450 to 1700 RPM

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24
Q

When will the auto feather system arm during takeoff?

A

When the power levers are advanced beyond 88%.

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25
Q

What governor controls pro speed in the event the prop becomes fixed-pitch.

A

Fuel topping governor

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26
Q

What does the PROP PITCH annunciator indicate?

A

Propeller blade angle is less than the Flight Idle Stop (more than 8 deg)

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27
Q

What governor regulates propeller RPM in reverse?

A

Fuel-topping governor at 95% of selected.

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28
Q

What is the total fuel capacity?

A

539 Gal

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29
Q

The jet transfer pumps normally receive motive flow fuel from what source?

A

Engine-driven boost pumps

30
Q

What occurs when the cross feed switch is place in the left or right position?

A

The standby boost pump on the supply side comes on, the motive flow valve on the receiving side closes, and the cross feed light illuminates when the valve opens.

31
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance in flight?

A

300 lbs

32
Q

What action would you take if the FUEL PRES LO annunciator illuminates in-flight?

A

Refer to checklist

33
Q

What is indicated by the yellow arc on the fuel gauges?

A

0-265 lbs fuel, no takeoff range

34
Q

What holds the landing gear up?

A

Hydraulic pressure

35
Q

Describe the procedure to extend the landing gear manually.

A

Refer to checklist

36
Q

How is electrical power removed from the power pack after normal gear retraction?

A

2775 psi pressure switch

37
Q

Max landing gear extension speed.

A

184 KIAS

38
Q

Max landing gear retraction speed.

A

166 KIAS

39
Q

What is the proper procedure to set the parking brake?

A

Apply pressure to the pedals and pull the parking brake handle

40
Q

Where is the brake fluid reservoir located?

A

Avionics bay, left side.

41
Q

How are the primary flight controls actuated?

A

Cables, pulleys, and bellcranks

42
Q

If the pilot and copilot engage the electric trim in opposite directions, what will happen?

A

The pilot’s trim will override the copilot’s.

43
Q

Loss of electrical power to the flap indicator will cause what indication?

A

Indicator pointer fails to the 11:00 position

44
Q

What is the maximum altitude without yaw damp?

A

5000 FT

45
Q

How does the rudder boost system detect an engine power loss?

A

Engine torque-meter oil pressure is comported and rudder boost initiated after a 30% differential.

46
Q

Does the KingAir 350 have split-flap protection between wings?

A

No, only between the inboard and outboard flap on each wing

47
Q

Where is bleed air for pneumatics extracted from the engine?

A

After the centrifugal compressor

48
Q

How can you determine if the pneumatic bleed valve has closed completely?

A

Place both switches in the PNEU & ENVIR OFF position and observe 0 pneumatic pressure.

49
Q

What will the pneumatic shutoff do if we experience an electrical failure?

A

Remain open since it is a normally open valve.

50
Q

What position should the environmental bleed switch be in when operating at temperatures of 10C or greater?

A

LOW

51
Q

What N1 setting is required to engage the air conditioner compressor clutch?

A

62%

52
Q

When will the vent blower operate in HI?

A

When the vent blower switch is selected to HI.

53
Q

Altitude limiters begin closing the outflow and safety valves at what altitude?

A

13,000 PA

54
Q

How should the pressurization controller be set prior to landing?

A

500 ft above field pressure altitude

55
Q

Where is crew and passenger oxygen stored?

A

In an oxygen bottle in the tail.

56
Q

What prevents the aircraft from pressurizing on the ground?

A

The safety valve

57
Q

How is it possible to pressurize the aircraft on the ground?

A

Placing the pressurization stick to TEST

58
Q

With the shutoff valve closed, where is oxygen available?

A

In the oxygen bottle

59
Q

Where can oxygen pressure be monitored?

A

Gauges in the cockpit and at the filter door.

60
Q

What modes of operation do the crew masks include?

A

Normal, 100%, and Emergency

61
Q

How much ice is allowed before inflating the deice boots?

A

1/2 inch minimum

62
Q

What happens when you select single cycle?

A

The wing boots inflate for 6 seconds, then the tail boots inflate for 4 seconds.

63
Q

What is normal amperage for the prop deice?

A

26-32 amps

64
Q

What will the ammeter show when using manual prop deice?

A

0 amps

65
Q

How can you tell that the manual system is operating?

A

By the increased loads on the loadmeters

66
Q

What anti-ice is on for all flights?

A

left and right pitot heat, left and right fuel vents, stall warning (hot 5)

67
Q

What is the maximum temperature for takeoff with engine ant-ice on?

A

10 C

68
Q

How long will it take the battery to discharge with a dual generator failure and a 40A electrical load?

A

40 minutes

69
Q

What will happen if the primary governor fails?

A

Overspeed governor will control prop RPM at 1768.

70
Q

Where is the aircraft datum located?

A

83.5” forward the forward jack point.

71
Q

What is TOFL?

A

The greatest of: accelerate stop, accelerate go, all engines at takeoff + 15%.

72
Q

What is the minimum second segment climb?

A

2%