ORAL Flashcards

1
Q

What is an MEL

A

Minimum Equipment List
Prepared By Operator
Approved by Natl. Airworthiness Authorities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 Categories of the MEL

A

A,B,C,D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is MEL Cat A Time Line

A

Within Specified Timeline as Approved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is MEL Cat B Time Line

A

3 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is MEL Cat C Time Line

A

10 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is MEL Cat D Time Line

A

120 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Under Part 91.205 IF Part 91 Equipment Req is INOP; Can we FLY?

A

Refer to MEL - IF Listed and Conditions are Met Then YES we can FLY. NOTE: the MEL stakes precedence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long do you have to report a Motor Vehicle Penalty Action?

A

60 days. 61.15(e)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IF you refuse to Alcohol Test what are the consequences. 61.16

A

Suspension or Revocation of any certificate, rating or authorization for up to 1 Year after the date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is max Alcohol concentration in blood or breath test to act as a crew member? 91.17

A

0.04.
Note: 8 hours Bottle to Throttle. (EAS Rule - 12 Hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How often must VOR’s be checked? 91.171

A

30 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What must be included on a VOR check Sign OFF. 91.171

A

Date, Station ID, Bearing Error, Type of Test (Grnd or Air)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Max Error between Two Bearings in Dual VOR Check? 91.171

A

4 Degrees VOR +/- 4 Degrees Ground, +/- 6 Degrees Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Part 135 Aircraft Must Have “WHAT” visible on the outside of Each Conformed Acft?

A

Operators Name &
Certificate Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Certificate Number and It’s Name for EAS?

A

EVXA215K
Name: EAS
Executive Air Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Procedure When Pilot looses or inadvertently Destroys their Medical Certificate

A

Request replacement certificate through letter to Aerospace Medical Cert Branch.
Immediately Notify Chief Pilot, and/or Dir of Operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can you Fly If you Have Lost your Medical Certificate. Far 61.29

A

YES, Must receive temporary Authorization by FAA. Limits Flying for 60 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How Long is a Temporary Pilot Cert Valid For?Far 61.17

A

120 DAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Far 61.51 What Flight time is required to be logged?

A

The training time aero experience necessary to meet requirements for a Cert, Rating or Flight Review.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Far 135.63 (c)
What info Must be Included on. Load Manifest

A

*PAX Number
*Aircraft Loaded Weight
* MTOW
* CG Loaded Acft.
* Acft. Reg. Number
* Departure Apt.
* Arrival Apt.
* Crew Names (PIC/SIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Far 135.63(d)
What must be done with Load Manifest?

A

*Prepared in Duplicate.
*Carry Copy on Flight.
* Original Sent Electronically to EAS Dispatch.
OR
* Left at Departure Airport
* Operator must keep Original Manifest 30 Days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

far 135.117
Give a Standard Pax Brief

A

Good Morning/Afternoon.
I’m (PIC of Flight)
- No smoking or Vaping on the Flight.
- Use of Seatbelts
- Seatbacks & Tables stowing before Taxi/Takeoff & Landing.
- Location and Operation of Entry Door and Emergency Exits.
-Location and use of Survival Equipment.
- Ditching Procedures and use of LifeJackets and LifeRafts.
- For Flight over 12,000 MSL.
Normal and Emergency use of aircraft oxygen.
- Fire Extinguisher locations and usage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

far 135.117(e)
Are Passenger Briefing Cards Required after an oral briefing to Pax?

A

Yes!
One for each seat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does a Blind Passenger need to be briefed?

A

Yes, All Pax must be briefed and the PIC will assign someone to assist the blind person, IF the blind person does not have an aid or assistant accompanying them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can a Blind person Fly Alone?

A

No, they must have an assistant or Aid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

far 135.128
How do you determine if a child’s Car SeSt can be utilized on the aircraft?

A

It will be properly certified and marked on the restraint system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

At what Age does a Lap child have to occupy their own seat?

A

By their Second (2nd) Birthday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The Pax show up with their own liquor can they bring it on board the aircraft for consumption during flight?

A

NO, The Air Carrier must be the provider of the alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Can you board PAX who are intoxicated?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The Manifest shows the Weight of a Man or Women who weighs 160 pounds, They appear to weigh more than that weight listed?
What should you do?

A

Ask all passengers to carry their bag and step on the scale. This will avoid embarrassing the Passenger and provide known weights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

far 135.128(a)(2)(iii)
What seat position can a child restraint system be attached?

A

Forward Facing Seat Only!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can an underage person travel alone?

A

FAR 91.509
No. Must be accompanied by legal guardian.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What must be carried for an over-water flight? What’re the limitations for a single engine aircraft operating 135 over water?

A

No person may take off an airplane for a flight over water more than 50NM from nearest shore unless equipped with a life preserver, or approved floatation means for each occupant on airplane.
No person may take off for Flt over water more than 30 min flying time or 100 NM from nearest shore without the following onboard:
*Life preserver with approved locator light per occupant.
*Enough life rafts of rated capacity/buoyancy for all occupants.
*At least 1 pyrotechnic signaling device for each life raft.
*1 self-buoyant water-resistant potable emergency radio signaling device capable of transmission on the appropriate emergency frequency not dependent upon the airplane power supply.
* A lifeline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

FAR 135.183
Single Engine

A
  • No EAS pilot on a single engine land aircraft (SF50) may operate with passengers
    over water unless.
  • It is operated at an altitude that allows it to reach land in case of an engine failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You are VFR flying into a class C airport. Upon your initial contact with the tower, they respond “aircraft calling stand-by” can you enter the class C airspace?

A

No, they have not cleared you into their airspace. must hear your CALL SIGN CLEARED into the airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the VFR cloud clearance and visibility in a class B airspace?

A
  • 3 miles clear of clouds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between an incident and an accident?

A
  • Incident, occurrence other than an accident that would affect the safe operation of
    an aircraft.
  • An accident is when a person is fatally or seriously injured, (b) the aircraft sustains
    significant damage or structural failure, (c) the aircraft goes missing or becomes.
    completely inaccessible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the PIC requirements for our operations?
FAR 135.243 (c)

A

FAR 135.243 (c)
* Passenger carrying operations on turbine powered A/C: 1200 Hour Total FLT time
* 500 Hours X-C
* 100 Night
* 75 Hours instrument (ACTUAL or SIMULATED) which 50 Hours must be in Flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the required lights for night flights?

A

FAR 135.159(f)
* Anti-collision light system
*Instrument lights
* Flashlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is cargo stored on board? Where are the designated cargo holds on your airplane? Are there any limits?

A

FAR 135.87
* Cargo holds and cargo must be properly secured.
* If carrying on a seat, must be securely fastened using seatbelts or tie downs.
* The limits of designated cargo holds are placarded with max weight limits of each
hold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the max duty ay for our operations?

A

FAR 135.267(b)(2)
* 14 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the maximum flight time per day?

A

FAR 135.267(b)(2)
* 2 pilots 10 hours, 1 pilot 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Can the maximum flight time be exceeded? What are the provisions if maximum flight time were eceededd?

A

FAR 135.267(e)
* 11 hours rest for FLT time exceeding 10 hours no more than 30 minutes.
* 12 Hours rest for flight time exceeding 10 hours more than 30 minutes and less
than 60 min.
* 16 HOURS rest for FLT time exceeding 10 hours more than 60 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the Maximum FLT Times for pilots in our operations?

A

FAR 135.27(a)
* 500 Hours in any QUARTER
* 800 Hours in ant TWO consecutive QUARTERS
* 1400 Hours in any calendar year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Can we take off with any frost adhering to the surface of the aircraft?

A

No. EAS maintains a Clean Aircraft Concept which states no launch with any ice/frost
adhering to critical surfaces of the Aircraft

46
Q

How does ice affect the performance of the aircraft?

A
  • more weight
  • Wing will stall at a lower angle of attack and a higher airspeed
  • Disturbed airflow over the wing and control surfaces which can result in a stall.
47
Q

What conditions would favor in-flight icing?

A

+5 Celsius - Minus 20 Celsius and visible moisture (FAA Advisory Circular AC NO: 91-74B)

48
Q

Can we use holdover tables?

A

Yes, EAS has an approved deicing/Anti-Ice program

49
Q

How is remote flight locating accomplished?

A

FAR 135.23(1) GOM section L.1.2, L.1.3, L.1.14-
* File and leave information contained in a FAA Flight Plan with home base.
* For any deviation, pilots will make every effort to notify home base by telephone,
* Company radio or UNICOM
* Must file estimated time of return.
* Remote Flight Plan
* must be filed through the D.O. or Chief Pilot/posted on bulletin board in Flt office
* Must be kept until completion of FLT. D.O./Chief Pilot will monitor FLT.

50
Q

Can we carry HAZMAT?

A

NO-Executive Air Services is a WILL-NOT Carry operator!

51
Q

How is HAZMAT identified?

A

Clearly marked HAZMAT Label identifying class/name/UN Number.

52
Q

How long are pilot records kept for?

A

GOM section 1-12 months

53
Q

What is a stabilized approach?

A
  • One in which the pilot establishes and maintains a constant angle glide path
    towards a predetermined point on the landing runway.
  • Factors of a stabilized approach:
    1. Maintain a specified decent rate
    2. Maintain a specified airspeed
    3. Complete all briefings and checklists
    4. Configure aircraft landing
    5. Be stabilized by 1000 feet AGL for IMC operations and 500 feet AGL for VMC
      approach.
    6. Only small changes in heading and pitch required to maintain correct FLT path
54
Q

How do you identify the Outer Marker?

A

AIM 1-1-9 (f) 2.(b)- Glide Slope Intercept

55
Q

What are the required holding airspeeds?

A
  • Up to 6000’ -200 KTS
  • 6000’ - 14000- 230 KTS
  • 14,001+ - 265 KTS
56
Q

What is the holding speed for 12000 MSL?

A

230 KTS

57
Q

What info must be included in ATC holding instructions?

A
  1. Direction of hold from fix
  2. Holding Fix
  3. Radial, Course, bearing, Airway or Route on which aircraft is to hold.
  4. Leg Length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used or minutes.
  5. Direction of turn.
  6. Time to expect further clearance.
58
Q

If radar contact is lost, what is required of the pilots?

A

Position reporting.

59
Q

What is the ATC wake turbulence separation time for departing aircraft?

A

AIM 7-3-9 (3)- 3 minutes behind super heavy aircraft and 2 min behind HVY aircraft.
& scenario answer : slow down give more spacing between aircraft ahead and touch down past the 747-touchdown point.

60
Q

When is an Alternate Airport Required?

A

Far 135.223(b)
This is the Part 135 version of the 1-2-3 Rule.
For at least: 1 Hour Before and
1 Hour After the ETA, the appropriate weather forecasts indicate that:
Ceiling at Destination will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling approach MDA (min descent altitude) OR
IF a circling IS NOT Authorized the forecast ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum OR
2,000 feet above the Airport (AGL) whichever is HIGHER.
Visibility forecast at the destination is at least 3 miles or 2 miles more than the approach visibility, whichever is GREATER.

Example: IF we are launching for Eppley Field (KOMA) for Cat C aircraft, the lowest circling minimum is 735 feet AGL HAA (height above Airport).

If we add 1,500 feet to the HAA we will get 2,235 feet (735 + 1,500) Because TAG’s only break down

A- Ceilings into 100’s of feet, we must round this figure UP to to the nearest 100 feet. 2,235 feet now becomes 2,300 feet. 2,300 feet is HIGHER than 2,000 feet. If the forecast ceiling at KOMA is less than 2,300 feet for 1 hour before and 1 hour after our ETA, we MUST file an alternate.
B- Using the same approach above (KOMA ILS 14L), We also need a visibility that is forecast (at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA) to be at least 2 SM greater than the required approach visibility OR 3 SM, whichever is GREATER. The required visibility for this circling approach is 2 SM, therefore, we must have a forecast visibility of at least 4 SM. 4 SM is greater than 3 SM so we must use 4 SM as our minimum visibility.
C- In the above example, if we want to launch for Eppley Field, we must have a forecast ceiling that is GREATER than 2,300 feet AGL and visibility at least 4 SM or we MUST file an alternate.

61
Q

If forecast weather at our destination is below landing minimums, can we launch?

A

NO. Legally we cannot launch for a destination if the forecast weather is below landing minimums.

62
Q

What is the standard takeoff minimum?

A

1 SM

63
Q

If the reported visibility one morning at KOPF is 1/2 SM, can we depart? What provisions are needed for us to do so?

A

135.217
Yes we can depart. Because the weather is lower than the authorized landing minimum at KOPF (we can depart, but if anything happened after v1, we could not legally return), we must have a TAKEOFF ALTERNATE, which must be within 1 hours flying time (at normal cruise speed, in still air) of KOPF.
*OP SPEC C079- Lower than standard takeoff minima. In this example, because KOPF does not have RVR (RVR is ALWAYS controlling), as per our OP SPECS, we can take off with as little as * 1/4 SM visibility at KOPF. For airports with RVR Reports, we can takeoff with as little as RVR.
* 600-TDZ/ 600-MID/ 600-RO if the condition listed in * C079-2 Table 1 are met. In addition to this, the pilots must receive special training to conduct departures with visibility lower than standard.

64
Q

What must be taken into consideration when choosing a suitable runway at a destination?

A

135.385-Airplane must be able to come to a complete stop within 60% of the runway distance. If the runway is wet/slippery, landing distance must be increased by 115% and that 115% landing distance must fall within 60% of the available runway.
note ( wet 115% (60%)

65
Q

Are there any considerations for a Captain with less than 100 hours in type?

A

In our Ops Specs, a Captain with less than 100 hours in type CANNOT perform lower than standard takeoffs.

66
Q

Who maintains operational control of EAS aircraft?

A

The operator of (EAS) must maintain ops control over all activity of any aircraft listed on its Ops Specs (D85). Currently, the personnel authorized to have operational control (A006) are:
The Chief Pilot
The Director of Operations
The Director of maintenance.

67
Q

How many RVR reporting stations must a runway have in order for us to take off below 1600 RVR take-off minimums?

A

2-OP SPEC C079

68
Q

Can we depart at night from a runway with no lighting part 135?

A

NO, refer to 135.229 Airport requirements

69
Q

By how far should we avoid a thunderstorm? How can we determine which direction it’s traveling?

A

20 miles, traveling in the direction of the anvil.

70
Q

OP SPEC C055
How Do We Determine the Weather Minimums Needed for Our Alternate Airport?

A

First We Need to Make sure we can use the Airport As An Alternate
A. Done by checking the 10-9 Jep Airport Page.
B. If the Page States “NA” on the “For Filing As An Alternate” section, IT CANNOT BE USED.
C. IF Numbers are printed in this section WE MUST USE C055 to Derive Weather Minimum.
D. IT Must have Weather Reporting and A Ground Based Nav Aid.

71
Q

How Many Options do we have to Derive Weather MINIMUMS at an Alternate Airport?

A

A. The 400 & 1 Rule AND
B. The 200 & 1/2 Rule.

72
Q

What is the 400 & 1 Rule?

A

A. If the Alternate is forecast to have ceilings 400 feet above the lowest straight in minimum (or circling if a straight in is NOT authorized) AND
B. 1 SM more than the lowest straight in (or circling if a straight in is not authorized) visibility then IT CAN BE USED for an alternate.

73
Q

What is an Example of the 400 & 1 Rule?

A

A. EXAMPLE; Our Flight to KOMA we listed Lincoln (KLNK) as our alternate. The ILS 18 has a DA of 200 Feet AGL AND A Required VISIBILITY OF 1/2 SM.
B. Using the 400 & 1 Rule, to FILE KLNK as an alternate we would NEED forecast weather of 600 Feet and 1 1/2 SM (200+400=600 and 1/2 + 1 = 1 1/2.

74
Q

What is the 200 & 1/2 RULE?

A

A. If the Alternate Airport has TWO (2) straight in approaches to 2 Suitable separate runways and TWO (2) suitable ground based NAV AIDS, then we can apply 200 feet to the second best approach and 1/2 SM to the second BEST Visability.

75
Q

What is an example of the 200 & 1/2 RULE?

A

A. Our Example of KLNK used for the 400 rule has the following,
B. We have ILS 18 and VOR 17 as our TWO (2) Separate suitable straight in approaches to difference runways, Using TWO (2) separate NAV AIDS.
C. We Add 200 feet to the SECOND BEST APPROACH for our category (200+500= 700) AND then ADD 1/2 SM to the Second Best Visibility, of AT LEAST 1 7/8 SM to be an suitable alternate.

76
Q

What is OPS SPEC A015?

A

Use an Autopilot in Lieu of a second in command.

77
Q

What is OPS SPEC A023?

A

Ground Icing Conditions for the purpose of Flight.

78
Q

What is OPS SPEC A031?

A

Training Center for Certificate Holder Training.

79
Q

What is OPS SPEC A041?

A

PreTakeoff Contamination Checks.

80
Q

What is OPS SPEC A046

A

Single Engine IFR Carry Operations Under Part 135.

81
Q

What is OPS SPEC A061?

A

Electronic Flight Bag Authorization.

82
Q

What is OPS SPEC A096?

A

USE ONLY ACTUAL Passenger and Baggage Weights.

83
Q

What is OPS SPEC A999?

A

ICAO Operator Certificate Issuance.

84
Q

What is OPS SPEC B032?

A

Conduct IFR Enroute Operations.

85
Q

What is OPS SPEC B034?

A

Conduct Class 1 Navigation using area navigation system.

86
Q

What is OPS SPEC B035?

A

Conduct Class 1 navigation in the US Class A Airspace using long range Nav.

87
Q

What is OPS SPEC B046?

A

Conduct operations in RVSM Airspace.

88
Q

What is OPS SPEC B450?

A

Operate in and out of sensitive international areas as identified in B450 in accordance with the conditions of B050.

89
Q

What is OPS SPEC C051?

A

Conduct Terminal Instrument Ops using Procedures and Landing Minima for Acft.

90
Q

What is OPS SPEC C052?

A

Conduct operations using basic instrument approach procedures.

91
Q

What is OPS SPEC C054?

A

Conduct IFR approach procedures using special IFR Landing minimums for airplanes.

92
Q

What is OPS SPEC C055?

A

Derive Alternate Airport Weather minimums from the Standard Table for airplanes.

93
Q

What is OPS SPEC C057?

A

Use IFR Takeoff Minimums 14 CFR Part 135 airplane operations.
Conduct IFR Area Navigation RNAV 1 and or RNP 1 Instrument departure procedure (DP’s) RNAV 1 and/or RNP 1 Standard Terminal Arrivals Routes.

94
Q

What is OPS SPEC C063?

A

STAR’s published IAW 14 CFR Part 97, and or tailored arrivals (TA).

95
Q

What is OPS SPEC C064?

A

Conduct Non Scheduled Pax and/or all cargo special terminal area IFR ops, in Class G airspace at airports without an operating control tower.

96
Q

What is OPS SPEC C075?

A

Conduct airplane IFR Circle to Lan Approach maneuvers.

97
Q

What is OPS SPEC C077?

A

Conduct t certain Part 135 Ops in the Terminal area using Visual Flight Rules.

98
Q

What is OPS SPEC C079?

A

Conduct Part 135 using Lower than Standard TO Minimums.

99
Q

What is OPS SPEC D092?

A

Use Approved Aircraft in operations in RVSM Airspace IAW B046 and D092.

100
Q

What is OPS SPEC D095?

A

Use FAA Approved MEL.

101
Q

What is OPS SPEC D101?

A

Use Aircraft 9 Pax or Less.

102
Q

What is OPS SPEC D103?

A

Use a single engine aircraft for Pax Carrying.

103
Q

What is OPS SPEC D104?

A

Use aircraft with nine or less Pax Seats with the additional maintenance requirements.

104
Q

What Weather Sources can we utilize for flight planning?

A

1-800-WX -BRIEF or any Natl Weather Service approved source. EAS is approved to use Flight Plan.com

105
Q

What Class Navigation is EAS approved for?

A

Class I and II
Any en route flight operations or portion of an operation that is conducted entirely within the designated operational service volumes of ICAO airway navigation facilities (VOR, VOR/DME, NDB)

106
Q

Where are we allowed to fly to?

A

OP Spec B-050
*Atlantic Ocean
* Canadian MNPS Airspace
* Caribbean Sea. Including Havana FIR.
* Central America
* South America
* USA - 48 contiguous
* USA - Alaska

107
Q

What is the procedure for a scheduled or non-scheduled fuel stop along your route?

A

Advise ops and perform a NEW weight and balance.
A NEW flight release must be issued.

108
Q

While on approach tower advises that a 737 ahead of you reported at 15Kt wind sheer at 200’ AGL. What can you expect to do?

A

Perform a go around.

109
Q

What is a microburst? How can you visually identify a microburst?

A

Rapidly descending mass of cool air, Vutha, dust loom on the ground, rapid increase or loss of airspeed.

110
Q

You are VFR flying into a class C airport. Upon your initial contact with the tower, they respond “aircraft calling stand-by” can you enter the class C airspace?

A

No, they have not cleared you into their airspace. Must hear your call sign cleared into the airspace.

111
Q

Scenario
Given METAR and TAF for a given airport, determine if you shoot an approach?

A

During your preflight you notice ______ is inop. Can you depart? Consult MEL, reference 91.205.