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Commercial Stage Check > Oral > Flashcards

Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of wings does the archer have?

A

Semi-tapered wings

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2
Q

LHAND

A

Lycoming IO-360-B4A, horizontally opposed, air cooled, naturally aspirated, direct drive.

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3
Q

What is the archers horsepower and rpm rating?

A

180 horsepower at 2700 rpm, lowest 500 rpm

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4
Q

How does the fuel injector work?

A

Based on the principle of differential pressure which balances air pressure against fuel pressure. The servo valve establishes the regulated fuel pressure and balances it with air pressure. Then the fuel flow divider distributes the fuel to each cylinder.

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5
Q

The PFD displays…

A

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and heading (ADAHRS) information.

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6
Q

The MFD displays…

A

Engine information, maps, and traffic.

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7
Q

How many gallons of fuel can the archer hold? How much is usable?

A

Two 25 gallon tanks, 24 gallons usable. 17 gallons at tabs.

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8
Q

What is the minimum fuel grade for the archer?

A

100 or 100 LL

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9
Q

What kind of fuel sensor does the archer have?

A

One float type fuel sensor in each wing.

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10
Q

When should the electric fuel pump be on?

A

Takeoffs, landings, and when switching tanks.

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11
Q

What kind of fuel pumps does the archer have?

A

Electric and engine driven.

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12
Q

How many volts is the archers electrical system?

A

28 volts, DC (direct current).

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13
Q

How many volts/amps is the primary battery?

A

24 volts, 13.6 amps

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14
Q

How many amps and volts is the alternator?

A

70 amp, 28 volts

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15
Q

How many volts/amps is the emergency battery?

A

24 volts, 13.6 amps

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16
Q

What does the primary battery do?

A

Provides electrical power to equipment for engine starting and when engine is not running. It must be removed when charging from an external source.

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17
Q

How does the alternator work?

A

It is belt driven directly from the engine. Once the engine is running and the alternator switch is turned on, it becomes the primary source of electricity. The batteries are charged by the alternator in order to back it up in case of an alternator failure.

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18
Q

What does a voltage regulator do?

A

Regulates the electrical system to 28 volts, if it exceeds 32 volts it removes the alternator.

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19
Q

What does the emergency battery do?

A

Provides electrical power to emergency bus (standbys, PFD, nav/com 1, audio panel) for 30 minutes.

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20
Q

What is included in the essential bus?

A

Pitot heat, fuel pump, standbys, audio panel, ADAHRS, com/nav 1, GEA, PFD, transponder, and lighting.

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21
Q

What is included in the non essential bus?

A

Pitch trim, air conditioning, and vent fan.

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22
Q

What is included in the hot battery bus?

A

Courtesy lights, hour meter, and ELT.

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23
Q

How does the alternate static source work?

A

Uses cabin air for static pressure. Since the cabin air pressure is lower, all the instruments will read high.

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24
Q

Blocked pitot tube?

A

Airspeed indicator reads like an altimeter.

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25
Q

Blocked static port?

A

Altimeter and vertical airspeed indicator don’t work.

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26
Q

How do the cabin and windshield defroster get heat?

A

Shroud around the exhaust. If there is a leak in the muffler you could potentially get carbon monoxide poisoning.

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27
Q

How many degrees Celsius do you lose for every 1000 ft gained?

A

-2 C per 1000 ft gained.

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28
Q

What is a sealed cabin?

A

Oxygen is circulated and filtered. Used for high altitude and space flight.

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29
Q

What is a pressurized cabin?

A

Ambient air is forced into the cabin.

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30
Q

What is cabin differential pressure?

A

The difference between the air pressure inside the cabin and the air pressure outside the cabin.

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31
Q

What are the requirements of a pressurized cabin?

A

Air tight seal, cabin structure, source of compressed air, temperature and pressure regulation.

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32
Q

What are 3 sources of pressurization?

A

Turbocharger, supercharger, and an engine driven compressor.

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33
Q

What does a turbine engine do?

A

Compresses large amounts of air to be mixed with fuel and burned (jet pump, turbo compressor, air cycle machine).

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34
Q

What is isobaric control?

A

Maintains set cabin altitude.

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35
Q

What is differential control?

A

Constant differential pressure is kept by controlling cabin pressure to maintain a specific pressure difference between the cabin air and outside air.

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36
Q

What does the pressure controller do?

A

You can set it for cabin altitude, rate of cabin change, and barometric pressure settings. It sends a signal to the regulator outflow valves to control the pressure inside the cabin. It’s modes include automatic, manual, dump, and emergency smoke removal.

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37
Q

What is gradual decompression?

A

Loss of pressurization over a long period of time. Causes ears to pop and mild hypoxia. Masks drop at 14,000 ft. The most dangerous type of decompression.

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38
Q

What is rapid decompression?

A

Loss of pressurization suddenly and without warning.

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39
Q

What is explosive decompression?

A

Total loss of pressurization in less than 1 second.

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40
Q

How does pressurization work?

A

Ambient air goes through a compressor, as the air is compressed it heats up rapidly. The heated air is sent through a cooling unit, like a fuel-air heat exchanger then released into the cabin through ducts. A series of outflow valves regulate how quickly air is released into the cabin. Air comes into the cabin quicker than it is released, creating a high pressure environment.

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41
Q

At what altitude do you start to experience physiological effects?

A

Over 10,000 ft.

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42
Q

Define hypoxic

A

Inadequate supply of oxygen.

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43
Q

Define histotoxic

A

Blood is unable to take in oxygen due to alcohol or drugs.

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44
Q

Define hypemic

A

Blood is unable to carry oxygen due to smoking or carbon monoxide poisoning.

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45
Q

Define stagnant hypoxia

A

Oxygen deficiency in blood resulting from poor circulation (coronary artery disease).

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46
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for an unpressurised cabin?

A

12,500 MSL- crew must use oxygen after 30 min.
14,000 MSL- crew must use oxygen for flights duration.
15,000 MSL- crew must use oxygen and it must be provided to passengers.

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47
Q

What is a quick don mask?

A

Mask that can be placed on the face in less than 5 seconds with one hand.

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48
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for a pressurised cabin?

A

FL250- 10 min supply of oxygen for each occupant unless a quick don mask is available.
FL350- one pilot must be on oxygen at all times unless a quick don mask is available.
FL410- one pilot must be on oxygen at all times regardless of a quick don mask.

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49
Q

What is a continuous flow oxygen system?

A

Flow of oxygen is continuous. An oronasal mask is good up to 25,000’ and a nasal cannula is good up to 18,000’.

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50
Q

What is a diluted demand oxygen system?

A

It mixes cabin air with the proper percentage of oxygen and only flows during inhalation. Required 25,000’-40,000’.

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51
Q

What is a pressure demand oxygen system?

A

Forces oxygen into your lungs through positive pressure and is required above 40,000’ MSL.

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52
Q

What are convective SIGMETs and how long are the valid for?

A

Thunderstorms and are valid for 4 hours.

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53
Q

What are SIGMETs and how long are they valid for?

A

Intended for smaller aircraft such as turbulence, icing, and dust storms. Valid for 4 hours.

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54
Q

What are the different types of airmets and how long are they valid for?

A

Sierra- ceiling less than 1000 ft and visibility less than 3 sm.
Tango- turbulence light, moderate, severe, and extreme.
Zulu- ice trace, light, moderate, and severe.
Valid for 6 hours.

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55
Q

When are TAFs issued, how long are they valid for, and how far do they extend? FM? BECMG?

A

Issued every 6 hours, valid for 24 hours, extend 5 nm.
FM- marks the beginning of a new line in a TAF.
BECMG- used when a gradual change in conditions is expected over a long period of time.

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56
Q

How often are METARs issued? What are the winds? SPECI?

A

Issued every 55 min, winds are true.
SPECI- special report of meteorological conditions.

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57
Q

How often are winds/temps aloft issued? Are they current or forecasts? What are the winds?

A

Issued every 6 hours, forecasts, winds are true.

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58
Q

Are the winds in the ATIS true or magnetic?

A

Magnetic.

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59
Q

What is a MOA?

A

Military operating area, must exercise extreme caution.

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60
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

No flight due to national security and welfare, must obtain special permission to fly through.

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61
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

No flight due to unusual hazards to aircraft, must obtain special permission to fly through.

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62
Q

What are MTRs?

A

Military training routes, must exercise extreme caution and contact nearest FSS for activity.

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63
Q

Requirements for Class A airspace?

A

18,000’-60,000’ MSL, ATC clearance, only IFR, two way radio, ADS-B.

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64
Q

Requirements for Class B airspace?

A

0’-10,000’ MSL, extends 30 nm each way, ATC clearance, private/student license, two way radio, ADS-B, Mode C transponder, 3 sm visibility, clear of clouds. Blue solid line.

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65
Q

Requirements for Class C airspace?

A

0’-10,000’ MSL, prior two way communication, student license, two way radio, ADS-B, 3 sm visibility, 500’ below/1000’ above/2000’ horizontal away from clouds, IFR separation. Magenta solid line.

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66
Q

Requirements for Class D airspace?

A

0’-2500’ MSL, prior two way communication, student license, two way radio, ADS-B, 3 sm visibility, 500’ below/1000’ above/2000’ horizontal away from clouds. Blue dashed line.

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67
Q

Requirements for Class E airspace?

A

0’-18000’ MSL*, prior two way communication, student license, two way radio for IFR, ADS-B 12 nm away from coastline and above 10000’.
Above 10000’- 5 sm visibility, 1000’ below/1000’ above/1 sm horizontally away from clouds.
Below 10000’- 3 sm visibility, 500’ below/1000’ above/2000’ horizontal away from clouds.
1200’ (shaded blue)
700’ (shaded magenta)
Surface (dashed magenta)

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68
Q

Requirements for Class G airspace?

A

0’-14500’ MSL, student license.
Below 1200:
Day- 1 sm visibility, clear of clouds.
Night- 3 sm visibility, 500 below, 1000 above, and 2000 horizontally away from clouds.
Above 1200, below 10000:
Day- 1 sm visibility, 500 below, 1000 above, and 2000 horizontally away from clouds.
Night- 3 sm visibility, 500 below, 1000 above, and 2000 horizontally away from clouds.
Above 10000:
5 sm visibility, 1000 above, 1000 below, and 1 sm horizontally away from clouds.

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69
Q

What is a TRSA?

A

Terminal radar services area, ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation full time for IFR traffic and participating VFR traffic.

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70
Q

What are the requirements for a special VFR clearance?

A

1 sm visibility, clear of clouds, and at night have an IFR capable plane with instrument rating.

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71
Q

What are the minimum preflight actions?

A

(RAWFAT) runway lengths, alternates, weather, fuel, ATC delays, takeoff and landing distances.

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72
Q

What is the maximum airspeed allowed below 2500 AGL within 4 nm of Class C or D airspace?

A

200 kts

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73
Q

What is the maximum airspeed allowed below 10,000’ within Class B airspace?

A

250 kts

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74
Q

How many feet away from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure should a plane be?

A

500 ft

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75
Q

Above 3,000’ what altitudes can you fly for VFR?

A

0-179: odd plus 500
180-359: even plus 500

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76
Q

What are the fuel reserve requirements for day and night?

A

Day: 30 min
Night: 45 min

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77
Q

How can you get flight following?

A

Contact ATC.

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78
Q

What is stall speed affected by?

A

Weight, load factor, power, and CG.

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79
Q

How does humidity, pressure, and air density affect performance?

A

Humidity decreases performance.
Pressure increases performance.
Air density increases performance.

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80
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Ailerons, stabilator, and rudder.

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81
Q

What kind of ailerons does the archer have?

A

Differential ailerons: the upward deflecting aileron is displaced a greater distance than the downward deflecting aileron, creating more drag to counteract adverse yaw.

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82
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Flaps and trim

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83
Q

What are plain wing flaps?

A

Hinge design, stay parallel to the wing.

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84
Q

What are Fowler wing flaps?

A

Slotted to produce more lift.

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85
Q

What are split wing flaps?

A

Have a hinge at the bottom that allows them to pivot up and down.

86
Q

What are slotted wing flaps?

A

Have one slot at the hinge that opens when flaps are extended (archer has).

87
Q

What does the anti servo tab do?

A

Makes the controls feel heavier and increases the stability of the control surface.

88
Q

What are the 4 strokes of an engine?

A

Intake, compression, power, exhaust.

89
Q

Pros of a fuel injected system?

A

No carb ice, better fuel efficiency, optimized air/fuel ratio, more power.

90
Q

Cons of a fuel injected system?

A

Harder to hot start, blockages, vapor lock, more expensive.

91
Q

What is alternate air?

A

Unfiltered, heated air in case of blockage.

92
Q

How does the landing gear use hydraulics?

A

The main landing gear struts and nose wheel struts have hydraulic buffers (air/oil type) to help them compress and reduce stress on the aircraft.

93
Q

How do the brakes work?

A

The brakes are hydraulically operated, each with their own cylinder to allow for differential braking. When the brakes are pressed, the hydraulic pressure built up in the cylinder compresses the brake pads around the brake disc. The parking brake has its own cylinder.

94
Q

What kind of hydraulic fluid does the archer use?

A

Skydrol (red).

95
Q

What does oil do for the engine?

A

Provides a seal between the rings and cylinder walls, and provides lubrication.

96
Q

What is detonation?

A

When the fuel/air mixture explodes rather than burning smoothly causing a greater force on the piston and cylinder, leading to increased noise, vibration, and cylinder head temperatures.

97
Q

What is preignition?

A

When the fuel/air mixture is ignited before the spark plug fires.

98
Q

What does the overvoltage relay do?

A

Provides an alarm or triggers a breaker if set voltage is exceeded.

99
Q

What are signs of an alternator failure?

A

Notification, dim lights, slow instruments.

100
Q

How long should you wait to reset a circuit breaker?

A

2 minutes.

101
Q

What are battery vents for?

A

To remove gasses and acid fumes to reduce fire hazards and eliminate damage.

102
Q

What are the 6 battery busses?

A

(ENABLE)
Essential bus- pitot heat, fuel pump, standbys, audio panel, ADAHRS, com/nav 1, GEA, PFD, transponder, lighting.
Non essential bus- trim, air conditioning, vent fan.
Avionics bus
Hot battery bus- courtesy lights, hour meter, ELT.
Lighting bus
Emergency bus- standbys, PFD, nav/com 1, audio panel.

103
Q

What are the gyroscopic instruments?

A

Artificial horizon, heading indicator, and turn coordinator.

104
Q

What happens if you fly from a high pressure to a low pressure without changing your altimeter?

A

Your altimeter will read higher than it actually is.

105
Q

How is pressurization controlled?

A

By the amount of air released.

106
Q

What is the maximum pressure differential?

A

The maximum pressure difference allowed between inside and outside the cabin.

107
Q

What does the safety valve do?

A

Acts as a relief valve, vacuum relief valve, and emergency dump valve.

108
Q

What is the difference between medical oxygen and aviator’s breathing oxygen?

A

Aviator’s breathing oxygen must have less than 0.005 mg of water per liter because water will freeze.

109
Q

When must you have a high altitude endorsement?

A

To fly a pressurized plane or above FL250.

110
Q

Are both wings stalled in a spin?

A

Yes but one more than the other.

111
Q

Why do we not use ailerons when recovering from a spin?

A

You might just tighten the spin even more.

112
Q

Why do you reduce the throttle during a spin?

A

To avoid over speeding.

113
Q

What are some situations where you might accidentally enter a spin?

A

Base to final, go around, and upwind to crosswind.

114
Q

What are the four phases of a spin?

A

Entry, incipient, developed, recovery.

115
Q

What will your airspeed indicator read in a spin? Spiral dive?

A

It will stabilize when fully developed. In a spiral dive it will read high.

116
Q

What does airworthy mean?

A

Meets approved type design, condition for safe operation, maintenance and alterations are performed correctly.

117
Q

What are the required certificates and documents?

A

MMMARROW
Manuels
Markings
Minimum equipment list
Airworthiness certificate
Federal registration
State registration
Operating limitations
Current weight and balance

118
Q

What are the required maintenance inspections?

A

AVIATE
Annual- 12 months
VOR- 30 days
100 hour
Altimeter/pitot static- 24 months
Transponder- 24 months
ELT- 12 months (or 1/2 battery life or 1 hour of cumulative use)

119
Q

Fuel system picture

A

Left and right tanks are connected to the GEA and MFD. Then they go up to the fuel selector valve, fire wall, filter/drain, electric fuel pump, engine driven fuel pump, fuel injector, fuel flow transducer (connected to GEA and MFD), and then to the fuel distributor.

120
Q

Garmin system picture.

A

The PFD and MFD are connected through an Ethernet with the audio panel in the middle. They are both connected to the AHRS which is connected to the ADC, and then the magnetometer. AHRS and ADC are connected to integrated avionics processor 1 and 2 which are connected to the transponder and E/AU.

121
Q

Pitot static system picture

A

ASI- 1 diaphragm connected directed to the RAM air and static port connected to box.
ALT- 3 aneroid wafers with the static port connected to the box.
VSI- 2 diaphragms connected directly to the static port with a calibrated leak at the bottom.

122
Q

Pressurization picture

A

The air intake allows air to go through a compressor that takes the air either to the cabin or engine.

123
Q

When does a commercial license expire?

A

Does not expire unless suspended, surrendered, or revoked.

124
Q

What do you need to do to keep your commercial license current?

A

Must have a flight review every 2 years with at least 1 hour of ground and 1 hour of flight training with qualified pilot.

125
Q

What are your commercial license privileges?

A

May carry persons or property for compensation or hire (with many limitations FAR 61.133).

126
Q

When does a first class medical expire?

A

ATP- at the end of the month issued.
Under 40 ATP- 12 months
Over 40 ATP- 6 months
Any age commercial- 12 months
Under 40 other license- 60 months
Over 40 other license- 24 months

127
Q

When does a second class medical expire?

A

Commercial- at the end of month issued.
Any age commercial- 12 months
Under 40 other license- 60 months
Over 40 other license- 24 months

128
Q

When does a third class medical expire?

A

At the end of month issued.
Under 40- 60 months
Over 40- 24 months

129
Q

Basic Med privileges

A

Can conduct any operation that your license or third class medical would normally allow.

130
Q

Basic Med limitations

A

No more than 5 passengers, no more than 6 occupants, no more than 6,000 lbs aircraft, can only fly in the US under 250 kts and below 18,000’ MSL, may not fly for compensation or hire.

131
Q

What is Basic Med?

A

Alternative to FAA medical.

132
Q

What are the requirements for Basic Med?

A

Expires on date issued. Required medical education course every 2 years and medical exam every 4 years.

133
Q

Common carriage

A

Pilot or aircraft operator who is holding out to the public a willingness to transport persons or property from place to place for compensation or hire. (Airline)

134
Q

Private carriage

A

Pilot or aircraft operator who does not hold out and is selective about customers. (Nonstop sight seeing tours, instructing, crop dusting, banner towing, jump pilot)

135
Q

Holding out

A

A pilot who communicates to the public in any way a willingness to fly for compensation or hire to any person.

136
Q

Wet lease

A

Person provides aircraft and at least one crew member.

137
Q

Dry lease

A

Leasing of aircraft with no crew.

138
Q

Commercial limitations

A

Can not carry passengers for hire on cross country flights exceeding 50 nm or at night without an instrument license.

139
Q

Air carrier

A

Conducts common carriage and requires an air carrier certificate.
Exemptions include instructing, ferry, skydiving, and sight seeing flights within 25 nm.

140
Q

Commercial operator

A

Conducts private carriage and requires an operating certificate.
Exemptions include instructing, ferry, skydiving, and sight seeing flights within 25 nm.

141
Q

What is not considered carriage?

A

Flying the owners plane.

142
Q

What does wet leasing require?

A

A commercial operator certificate.
Exemptions include instructing, ferry, skydiving, and sight seeing flights within 25 nm.

143
Q

When should you abort a takeoff?

A

When you are at less than 70% of power by the half way point.

144
Q

What is the difference between the incipient and developed part of a spin?

A

During the incipient part the forces have not yet stabilized, when developed the forces will stabilize and instruments will neutralize and airspeed will read low.

145
Q

Why do we bank in an emergency descent?

A

30- to 45-degree bank is needed to maintain a positive load factor on the airplane, as well as to increase drag and descent rate without gaining too much speed.

146
Q

What is a PIREP?

A

A pilot report about actual hazardous weather conditions during flight.

147
Q

What are the two types of PIREPs?

A

UA- routine report.
UAA- urgent report.

148
Q

What is an AIREP?

A

A routine, often automated report of in-flight weather conditions such as wind and temperature.

149
Q

What are the requirements to stay current in an aircraft to carry passengers?

A

You need at least 3 takeoffs and landings in the same category, class, and type aircraft in the last 90 days.

150
Q

What are the requirements to stay current to carry passengers at night?

A

At least 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night in the same category, class, and type aircraft.

151
Q

What is vapor lock?

A

When the gas evaporates in the fuel line creating air bubbles, difficult to start the plane especially in hot weather.

152
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Confusion, shortness of breath, restlessness.

153
Q

How do you treat hypoxia?

A

Descend or administer supplemental oxygen.

154
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

A

Increased heart rate, blurred vision, pins and needles.

155
Q

How to treat hyperventilation?

A

Slow breathing rate by breathing into a bag or talking out loud.

156
Q

What are symptoms of middle ear and sinus problems?

A

Pain, loss of hearing, disorientation.

157
Q

What causes ear block?

A

The Eustachian tube regulates pressure in your ear, when you ascend and descend rapidly it cannot keep up.

158
Q

How can pressure in your ears be relieved?

A

Chewing, yawning, popping your ears.

159
Q

What hours must you log in your logbook?

A

Anytime required for currency or to meet the requirements of a certificate.

160
Q

What happens when your first or second class medical expire?

A

It becomes a third class medical and that year counts towards the expiration of your now third class medical.

161
Q

What is a warning area?

A

Usually extend 12 nm off of the coastline and are considered hazardous because they may not be controlled by US, can fly but use extreme caution.

162
Q

What are alert areas?

A

Depict high volumes of training flights or other unusual aerial activity, can fly but must use extreme caution.

163
Q

What are national security areas?

A

Make pilots aware of sensitive areas on the ground and is requested you don’t fly over them.

164
Q

What kind of weather would you expect in a high pressure system? How does it move?

A

Poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds.
Clockwise and down.

165
Q

What kind of weather would you expect in a low pressure system? How does it move?

A

Good visibility, cumulus type clouds, turbulence.
Counter clockwise and up.

166
Q

What weather is associated with a cold front and how does it move?

A

A cold front goes under a warm front because the air is more dense and pushes away the warm air.
Cumulus type clouds, thunderstorms, gusty winds, drop in temperature, and rain.

167
Q

What weather is associated with a warm front? How does it move?

A

Warm air goes over cold air because it is less dense and gets pushed away by the cold air, moves slower.
Cirriform clouds, stratiform clouds, poor visibility, rain, snow, and fog.

168
Q

What is a stationary front?

A

When there are two equal air masses both warm and cold, mixture of both weather.

169
Q

What is an occluded front?

A

When a fast moving cold front catches up to a slow moving warm front causes thunderstorms, rain, and fog.

170
Q

Different types of icing.

A

Clear: smooth, clear, 0 C to -50 C
Clear or mixed: -50 C to -100 C
Mixed or rime: -100 C to -150 C
Rime: milky, rough, -150 C to -200 C

171
Q

What are the 3 stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Developing- updrafts push unstable, moist air up into cumulus clouds.
Mature- rain starts to fall.
Dissipating- downdrafts.

172
Q

What do you need to form a thunderstorm?

A

Updrafts, unstable air, and moisture.

173
Q

How far away should you stay from a thunderstorm?

A

25 nm

174
Q

When do you get a standard weather briefing?

A

Within 6 hours of departure.

175
Q

When do you get an outlook weather briefing?

A

Over 6 hours from departure.

176
Q

When do you get an abbreviated weather briefing?

A

Within 6 hours of departure, like an update for a standard weather briefing.

177
Q

How does the heading indicator work and what are some errors?

A

Rigidity in space.
Precession- caused by friction.
Tumbling- caused by excessive pitch and bank.

178
Q

How does the attitude indicator work and what are some of the errors?

A

Rigidity in space, 2 gimbal system.
Precession- caused by friction.
Tumbling- caused by excessive pitch and bank.
Pendulous vanes- self erecting mechanism.

179
Q

Turn coordinator vs turn and slip indicator

A

Uses precession (force felt at 90 degrees).
Turn and slip- rate of turn.
Turn coordinator- rate of turn and roll, because gyro is mounted 30 degrees to the horizon.
Usually electric.

180
Q

What are the different types of airspeed?

A

Indicated airspeed- airspeed indicated on instrument.
Calibrated airspeed- indicated airspeed calculate for instrument error.
True airspeed- calibrated airspeed adjusted for nonstandard temperature.
Ground speed- airspeed over the ground.

181
Q

What are some airspeed errors?

A

Position error- caused by where pitot is located.
Instrument error- caused by instrument.
Density error- when instrument doesn’t take into consideration changes in altitude and temperature.
Compressibility error- caused by high speed packing of air into pitot tube.

182
Q

What are the different types of altitude?

A

Indicated altitude- indicated on the altimeter.
Pressure altitude- altitude on a standard day.
True altitude- MSL, altitude above sea level.
Absolute altitude- AGL, height above ground.

183
Q

What are the altimeter errors?

A

Pressure error- caused by not setting the correct altimeter setting. High to low look out below, low to high you’re doing fine.
Density error- caused by altimeter not taking into consideration a change in temperature. Hot to cold= low, cold to hot= high.

184
Q

What are the different types of deicing systems?

A

Thermal- heaters
Chemical- red spray for removing ice, green spray for preventing ice.
Mechanical- pneumonic boots.

185
Q

What is FADEC?

A

Full authority digital engine control.
Controls and monitors all aspects of the engine.

186
Q

How many cylinders, spark plugs, and magnetos does the archer have?

A

4 cylinders, 8 spark plugs, and 2 magnetos.

187
Q

What is the difference between a wet and dry sump oil system?

A

Wet- oil is kept in the engine.
Dry- oil is kept in a separate compartment.

188
Q

What are the different types of propellors?

A

Fixed pitch- can’t adjust.
Constant speed- can adjust during flight.
Cruise prop- can adjust before you fly.

189
Q

What are circuit breakers for?

A

To protect the aircraft’s electrical system from overloading.

190
Q

What does the ammeter do?

A

Indicates if the alternator is producing enough electricity by measuring the amps.

191
Q

Why do we check for 23.3 amps before starting the aircraft?

A

To make sure we have at least 30 min on the emergency battery.

192
Q

How does the alternator that produces AC electricity get converted to DC?

A

Using a rectifier.

193
Q

Why use DC instead of AC?

A

No need for an additional conversion step making it more efficient and convenient, also less prone to electromagnetic interference.

194
Q

What is DC?

A

Electrons flow steadily in a single direction
● Advantage
○ Easy to make
○ Good for short distance
● Disadvantage
○ Big
○ Doesn’t make a lot of power for low RPM

195
Q

What is AC?

A

● Alternating current
● Electrons keep switching directions, going forward and then backwards
● Advantage
○ Can get the power in both directions.
○ Produce enough power during low RPM
○ Small size
○ Good for long distance
● Disadvantage
○ Harder to make
○ More expensive

196
Q

What is static stability?

A

The initial tendency that the airplane displays after its equilibrium is disturbed.

197
Q

What is positive static stability?

A

The initial tendency of the airplane to return to the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed.

198
Q

What is neutral static stability?

A

The initial tendency of the airplane to remain in a new condition after its equilibrium has been disturbed.

199
Q

What is negative static stability?

A

The initial tendency of the airplane to continue away from the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed.

200
Q

What is dynamic stability?

A

How an airplane responds over time to a disturbance.

201
Q

What is positive dynamic stability?

A

Oscillations dampen out over time.

202
Q

What is neutral dynamic stability?

A

Oscillations that never dampen out.

203
Q

What is negative dynamic stability?

A

Oscillations get worse over time.

204
Q

Why do we slip instead of skid to land?

A

When you slip, the upper wing will stall first, and when upper wing stalls you can still recover because the wing will drop and decrease AOA. When you skid, the lower wing stalls first, so when the lower wing stalls, the upper wing produces more lift, and you will roll over and spin.

205
Q

How to calculate gust factor?

A

(Gust wind - wind) / 2 = gust factor (add gust factor to final approach speed)

206
Q

PAVE acronym

A

Pilot
Aircraft
Environment
External pressures

207
Q

IMSAFE acronym

A

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotions/eating

208
Q

Day VFR required equipment list

A

ATOMATOFLAMES
Anti collision lights, tachometer, oil pressure gauge, manifold pressure gauge, altimeter, temperature gauge, oil temperature gauge, fuel gauge, landing gear position indicator, airspeed indicator, magnetic heading, ELT, safety belts.

209
Q

Night VFR required equipment list

A

FLAPS
Fuses, landing light, anti collision light, position lights, source of electrical energy.

210
Q

IFR required equipment list

A

GRABCARD
Generator, radios, attitude indicator, ball, clock, altimeter, rate of turn, heading indicator.

Commercial Stage Check (1 decks)

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