Oracle Test Bobby Flashcards
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space
in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo
before that time has elapsed.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database.
SCOTT’s password is TIGER.
The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?
A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING `HQ’;
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
- Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
- The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
- The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?
A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures? (Choose two.)
A. A segment cannot span data files.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)
A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?
A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
What should you ensure before the start of the operation?
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
A. Row movement is enabled.
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?
A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using the abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.
Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:
Which statement is true?
A. Only SGA components are sized automatically.
B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
C. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
Which two statements are true about extents? (Choose two.)
A. Blocks belonging to an extent can be spread across multiple data files.
B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
D. Data blocks in an extent are automatically reclaimed for use by other objects in a tablespace when all the rows in a table are deleted.
B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
You execute the commands:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
B. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C. The user Sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is default.
D. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects in the users tablespace.
E. The user Sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.
A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
D. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects in the users tablespace.
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries:
Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis.
You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?
A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (SH', CUSTOMERS’, PUBLISH', false’);
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command? (Choose three.)
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):
Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command? (Choose three.)
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database by a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user with the
DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role on the source database.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same operating system (OS) with the same endianness.
E. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database by a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user with the
DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role on the source database.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same operating system (OS) with the same endianness.
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database? (Choose two.)
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA\_MAX\_SIZE = 1024M SGA\_TARGET = 700M DB\_8K\_CACHE\_SIZE = 124M LOG\_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?
A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)
A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
A. All users except SYS
B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT
B. All users except SCOTT
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command:
$> sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command? (Choose two.)
A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.
A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:
After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.
E. Restart the database instance.
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions? (Choose two.)
A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?
A. Oracle Data Pump.
B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:
When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error message:
SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more information.
Identify the reason the instance failed to start.
A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the following script:
SQL > @utlrp.sql
Which two actions does the script perform? (Choose two.)
A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose two.)
A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.
B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).
B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database.
You want to know which change caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
A. Compare Period ADDM report
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
Examine the following steps:
- Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (
SH',CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement. - Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, `SH’, 500) procedure.
- Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
- Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (
SH',CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently.
You notice that the required data blocks are getting aged out of the default buffer cache.
How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?
A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management.
A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege.
The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?
A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application.
The application is undergoing some major schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and materialized views.
You want to check the impact of these changes on workload performance.
What should you use to achieve this?
A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened in read only mode? (Choose four.)
A. You can connect as a common user by using the connect statement.
B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.
A. You can connect as a common user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report? (Choose three.)
A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.
A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management? (Choose three.)
A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized
that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?
A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
You created a new database using the “create database” statement without specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE” clause.
What are two effects of not using the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE database” clause?
A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in. and then create PDBs within this CDB.
A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
What is the effect of specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE” clause in a “CREATE DATABASE” statement?
A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)? (Choose three.)
A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
A. LOG_BUFFER
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
You execute the following command from the root container:
SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window. Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time? (Choose two.)
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM) on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. RMAN CONVERT command
B. Data Pump Export and import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace
A. RMAN CONVERT command
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
- Creates a multitenant container database (CDB)
- Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs)
- Shuts down the CDB instance
- Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITE
Which two statements are true about the outcome after running the script? (Choose two.)
A. The seed will be in mount state.
B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.
B. The seed will be opened read-only.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running.
You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
You execute the following PL/SQL:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in the FGA audit trial.
A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/flash_device_1' , /dev/flash_device_2’
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
What is the result when you start up the database instance?
A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.
A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
- A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
- A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
- User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
- Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days.
How would you accomplish these requirements?
A. by granting a secure application role to the users
B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:
SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe log STORAGE (BUFFER_POOL recycle);
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million rows.
What could be a reason for this recommendation?
A. The keep pool is not configured.
B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of Information lifecycle Management (ILM)? (Choose three.)
A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection? (Choose two.)
A. User session data
B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
A. User session data
C. Private SQL area
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)? (Choose two.)
A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze impact on the performance of SQL statements.
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
E. Database and operating system upgrade
Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command? (Choose two.)
A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
B. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.
A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container database (CDB).
The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:
- Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
- Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
- Create a new PDB in the target container database.
- Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp utility.
- Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
- Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable import options.
- Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.
Identify the correct order of the required steps.
A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)? (Choose two.)
A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.
B. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle? (Choose three.)
A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index
A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:
All users have their default set of system privileges.
For which three situations will data not be redacted? (Choose three.)
A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session
A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback Archiving enabled?
A. It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message
B. The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D. The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle database 12c.
Examine the table definition:
Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table? (Choose three.)
A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries
performed by the session.
A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)? (Choose three.)
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle Database server.
The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart. Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?
A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically started.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE ` /mydir/rman_change_track.f’;
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Maximum Undo per consumer group
B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose three.)
A. Advising on block checksum failures
B. Advising on inaccessible control files
C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D. Advising on empty password files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values
A. Advising on block checksum failures
B. Advising on inaccessible control files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values
You created an encrypted tablespace:
You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.
Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column.
Which is true about the result?
A. It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with SALT.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C. It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D. It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted tablespaces.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions
The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month.
You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result? (Choose three.)
A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor? (Choose three.)
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two pluggable database (PDBs).
A local user was accidently dropped from one of the PDBs.
You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped.
You connect to the CDB and execute the following commands:
SQL > SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
SQL > STARTUP MOUNT
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE to TIME “TO_DATE (08/20/12' , MM/DD/YY’)”;
Examine following commands:
- ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN;
- ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
- ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashback back schema?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 1
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:
$> conn sys oracle/oracle@prod as sysdba
SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid := DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION (batch_job' , FORCED_TRACKING =\> Y’);
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
B. Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL
and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D. Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL
and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)? (Choose three.)
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user
before the common user can grant privileges to other users
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user
before the common user can grant privileges to other users
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB) as a pluggable database (PDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
Version: Oracle Database 12c Releases 1 64-bit
Character set: WE8ISO8859P15
National character set: AL16UTF16
O/S: Oracle Linux6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
Character set: AL32UTF8
O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?
A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export / import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN
D. The DBMS_PDB package
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives? (Choose three.)
A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.
Examine these two statements:
Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)
A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required for big file files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12’
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER operating system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing object.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:
Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output? (Choose three.)
A. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C. The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? (Choose two.)
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database? (Choose three.)
A. Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.
B. Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
C. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
E. Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired flashback time.
C. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
In which two scenarios do you use SQL* Loader to load data? (Choose two.)
A. Transform the data while it is being loaded into the database.
B. Use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C. Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D. Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
C. Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D. Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE.
You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for query execution plan.
C. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.
A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.
A. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.
B. It improves overall auditing performance.
C. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.
B. It improves overall auditing performance.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle Database 12c. Your database supports a mixed workload.
During the day, lots of insert, update, and delete operations are performed. At night, Extract, Transform,
Load (ETL) and batch reporting jobs are run. The ETL jobs perform certain database operations using two or more concurrent sessions.
After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded.
To ascertain the cause of performance degradation, you want to collect basic statistics such as the level of parallelism, total database time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.
How do you accomplish this?
A. Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting runs.
B. Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic data from the trace file.
C. Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the V$SQL_MONITOR view.
D. Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION function, and then use the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required information.
D. Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION function, and then use the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required information.
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column? (Choose two.)
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process monitor (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process monitor (LREG) process of each database instance.
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
You use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data? (Choose three.)
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
- Mount the CDB.
- Close all the PDBs.
- Open the database.
- Apply the archive redo logs.
- Restore the data file.
- Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
- Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
- Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
- Open the database with RESETLOGS.
- Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
F. Reduced CPU utilization
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends. Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days.
You are able to track users, actions taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in data are not tracked.
You decide to keep track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?
A. Apply fine-grained auditing.
B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.
B. Implement value-based auditing.
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a session and executes commands as follows:
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, ‘JACK’);
1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, ‘SMITH’);
1 row created.
As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:
ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott’s session?
A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.
B. The transaction in Scott’s session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes readonly.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements only as part of the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the tablespace is placed in readonly mode.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the tablespace is placed in readonly mode.
You plan to implement the distributed database system in your company.
You invoke Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create a database on the server.
During the installation, DBCA prompts you to specify the Global Database Name.
What must this name be made up of?
A. It must be made up of a database name and a domain name.
B. It must be made up of the value in ORACLE_SID and HOSTNAME.
C. It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for INSTANCE_NAME and HOSTNAME.
D. It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for ORACLE_SID and SERVICE_NAMES.
A. It must be made up of a database name and a domain name.
Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)
A. DDL statements can be audited.
B. Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed more than once.
A. DDL statements can be audited.
B. Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?
A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER operating groups
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)
A. IMPDP can be used to change target data file names, schemas, and tablespaces during import.
B. The DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL package can be used independently of Data Pump clients to perform export and import operations.
C. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
D. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
E. IMPDP always use the conventional path insert method to import data.
A. IMPDP can be used to change target data file names, schemas, and tablespaces during import.
B. The DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL package can be used independently of Data Pump clients to perform export and import operations.
C. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
Your database instance has started using an SPFILE.
Examine the RMAN configuration settings:
You execute the command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE TEST;
Which three types of files are backed up by using this command? (Choose three.)
A. online redo log files
B. control file
C. SPFILE
D. archived redo log files
E. data file(s)
F. PFILE
B. control file
C. SPFILE
E. data file(s)
Which three statements are true about Oracle Restart? (Choose three.)
A. It can be configured to automatically attempt to restart various components after a hardware or software failure.
B. While starting any components, it automatically attempts to start all dependencies first and in proper order.
C. It can be configured to automatically restart a database in case of normal shutdown of the database instance.
D. It can be used to only start Oracle components.
E. It runs periodic check operations to monitor the health of Oracle components.
B. While starting any components, it automatically attempts to start all dependencies first and in proper order.
D. It can be used to only start Oracle components.
E. It runs periodic check operations to monitor the health of Oracle components.
You want to schedule a job to rebuild a table’s indexes after a bulk insert, which must be scheduled as soon as a file containing data arrives on the system.
What would you do to accomplish this?
A. Create a file watcher and an event-based job for bulk insert and then create another job to rebuild indexes on the table.
B. Create a file watcher for the bulk inserts and then create a job to rebuild indexes.
C. Create a job array and add a job for bulk insert and a job to rebuild indexes to the job array.
D. Create an event-based job for the file arrival event, then create a job for bulk insert, and then create a job to rebuild indexes.
A. Create a file watcher and an event-based job for bulk insert and then create another job to rebuild indexes on the table.
You execute this command:
Which two statements are true about segment space management for segments in this tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. Space utilization inside segments is mapped by bitmaps.
B. Segments are automatically shrunk and compressed when rows are deleted.
C. The PCTFREE storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.
D. The PCTUSED storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.
A. Space utilization inside segments is mapped by bitmaps.
D. The PCTUSED storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.
You have successfully taken a database backup by using the command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS BACKUPSET DATABASE;
Now you execute this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 DATABASE;
What is the outcome?
A. It fails because an incremental level 1 backup always searches for an image copy as level 0 backup.
B. It fails because an incremental level 0 backup does not exist.
C. It takes a backup of blocks that have been formatted since the last full database backup.
D. It takes an incremental level 0 backup of the database.
E. It first takes an incremental level 0 backup and then an incremental level 1 backup.
E. It first takes an incremental level 0 backup and then an incremental level 1 backup.
Which two actions does an incremental checkpoint perform? (Choose two.)
A. It signals CKPT to write the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
B. It writes the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
C. It advances the checkpoint position in the checkpoint queue.
D. It writes the checkpoint position to the control file.
C. It advances the checkpoint position in the checkpoint queue.
D. It writes the checkpoint position to the control file.
Examine the parameters for a database instance:
Your database has three undo tablespaces and the default undo tablespace is not autoextensible.
Resumable space allocation is not enabled for any sessions in the database instance.
What is the effect on new transactions when all undo space in the default undo tablespace is in use by active transactions?
A. Transactions write their undo in the SYSTEM undo segment.
B. Transactions fail.
C. Transactions wait until space becomes available in UNDOTBS1.
D. Transactions write their undo in a temporary tablespace.
B. Transactions fail.
The DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION parameter is set to TRUE in your database instance.
You execute the following command to create a table:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The table is created without a segment because the storage clause is missing.
B. A segment is allocated when the first row is inserted in the table.
C. A segment is allocated when an index is created for any column in the table.
D. The table is created and extents are immediately allocated as per the default storage defined for its tablespace.
E. A segment is allocated for the table if the ALTER TABLE… ALLOCATE EXTENT command is issued.
B. A segment is allocated when the first row is inserted in the table.
E. A segment is allocated for the table if the ALTER TABLE… ALLOCATE EXTENT command is issued.
The HR user executes the following query on the EMPLOYEES table but does not issue COMMIT, ROLLBACK, or any data definition language (DDL) command after that:
HR then opens a second session.
Which two operations wait when executed in HR’s second session? (Choose two.)
A. LOCK TABLE employees IN EXCLUSIVE MODE;
B. INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename) VALUES (1289, `Dick’);
C. SELECT job FROM employees WHERE job=’CLERK’ FOR UPDATE OF empno;
D. SELECT empno,ename FROM employees WHERE job=’CLERK’;
E. INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename,job) VALUES 2001,’Harry’,’CLERK);
A. LOCK TABLE employees IN EXCLUSIVE MODE;
C. SELECT job FROM employees WHERE job=’CLERK’ FOR UPDATE OF empno;
In your database, USERS is the default permanent tablespace.
Examine the commands and their outcome:
You plan to execute the commands:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
B. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace and rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
C. The MYTAB table is created in the USERS tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
D. The CREATE TABLE statement generates an error because the SYSDBA privilege does not provide any space quota on the SYSTEM tablespace by default.
E. The MYTAB table is owned by the SYS user.
B. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace and rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
E. The MYTAB table is owned by the SYS user.
Which three statements are true about automated maintenance tasks? (Choose three.)
A. They run at predefined time intervals that are intended to occur during a period of low system load.
B. An Oracle Scheduler job is created for each maintenance task that is scheduled to run in a maintenance window.
C. A maintenance window is automatically extended until all the maintenance tasks defined are completed.
D. A repository is maintained in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of execution of all tasks.
E. Predefined maintenance tasks consist of automatic optimizer statistics collection, running Automatic Segment Advisor, and running Automatic SQL Tuning.
A. They run at predefined time intervals that are intended to occur during a period of low system load.
B. An Oracle Scheduler job is created for each maintenance task that is scheduled to run in a maintenance window.
E. Predefined maintenance tasks consist of automatic optimizer statistics collection, running Automatic Segment Advisor, and running Automatic SQL Tuning.
Which three statements are true about the purpose of checkpoints? (Choose three.)
A. They ensure that uncommitted transactions are rolled back in case of an instance failure.
B. They ensure that all the dirty buffers are written to disk during a normal shutdown.
C. They ensure that instance recovery starts in the event of an instance failure.
D. They ensure that dirty buffers in the buffer cache are written to disk regularly.
E. They reduce the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure.
B. They ensure that all the dirty buffers are written to disk during a normal shutdown.
D. They ensure that dirty buffers in the buffer cache are written to disk regularly.
E. They reduce the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure.
You use multiple temporary tables frequently in your database. Which two are benefits of configuring temporary undo? (Choose two.)
A. Performance improves because less redo is written to the redo log.
B. Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
C. Performance improves because data manipulation language (DML) operations performed on temporary tables do not use the buffer cache.
D. Performance improves because no redo and undo are generated for the temporary tables.
A. Performance improves because less redo is written to the redo log.
B. Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
Which three statements are true about the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool? (Choose three.)
A. It generates a script to recompile invalid objects post-upgrade.
B. The preupgrade_fixups.sql script is created to list and describe issues in the source database.
C. A log file, preupgrade.log, is created that contains the output of the Pre-Upgrade Information tool.
D. It checks for required tablespaces and if they are not available, creates them automatically.
E. The preupgrade_fixups.sql script is executed automatically to fix issues in the source database.
F. The postupgrade_fixups.sql script is created to address issues that can be fixed after a database has been upgraded.
B. The preupgrade_fixups.sql script is created to list and describe issues in the source database.
C. A log file, preupgrade.log, is created that contains the output of the Pre-Upgrade Information tool.
F. The postupgrade_fixups.sql script is created to address issues that can be fixed after a database has been upgraded.
Which activity is audited by default and recorded in the operating system audit trail irrespective of whether or not database auditing is enabled?
A. execution of SQL statements by users connected with the SYSDBA privilege
B. creation of a fine-grained audit policy
C. configuration of unified auditing mode
D. usage of the AUDIT statement
A. execution of SQL statements by users connected with the SYSDBA privilege
You want to create a role that:
- is protected from unauthorized usage
- does not use a password embedded in the application source code or stored in a table
- is enabled for a user based on security policies defined in a PL/SQL package
How would you create this role?
A. as a secure application role
B. with definer’s rights
C. with global authentication
D. with external authentication
A. as a secure application role
Your database instance is started by using a server parameter file (SPFILE).
You execute the following command to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization parameter:
ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32 M;
What is the outcome of this command?
A. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the SGA.
B. It returns an error because the value of this parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
C. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect at the next instance startup.
D. It returns an error because SCOPE should be set to MEMORY
B. It returns an error because the value of this parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
You want to create a database and you have the following:
- Oracle Grid Infrastructure is installed and configured.
- Oracle Database Vault is installed in ORACLE_HOME to be used for this database.
- Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control is available and an agent is deployed on the database server.
Examine the requirements:
- configuring the database instance to support shared server mode
- using Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing database files.
- configuring a naming method to help a remote user connect to a database instance
- configuring the Fast Recovery Area
- configuring Database Vault
- configuring Enterprise Manager (EM) Database Express
- registering with EM Cloud Control
- configuring remote log archive destinations
- enabling daily incremental backups
- configuring a nondefault block size for nondefault block size tablespaces
Which of these requirements can be met while creating a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 and 10
B. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7
C. 1, 2, 3, 8, 9 and 10
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10
E. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10
You want execution of large database operations to suspend, and then resume, in the event of space allocation failures.
You set the value of the initialization parameter RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT to 3600.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Before a statement executes in resumable mode, the ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE statement must be issued in its session.
B. Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations are resumable, provided that they are not embedded in a PL/SQL block.
C. A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed only once during execution.
D. A suspended statement will report an error if no corrective action has taken place during a timeout period.
E. Suspending a statement automatically results in suspending a transaction and releasing all the resources held by the transaction.
A. Before a statement executes in resumable mode, the ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE statement must be issued in its session.
D. A suspended statement will report an error if no corrective action has taken place during a timeout period.
Which two statements are true about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. It calls SQL advisors automatically if required.
B. It provides recommendations only for poorly performing SQL statements.
C. Its results are stored in AWR.
D. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot is created and requires at least two snapshots for analysis.
E. It requires at least one Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot for analysis.
C. Its results are stored in AWR.
D. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot is created and requires at least two snapshots for analysis.
Which statement is true about using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade your database from Oracle Database 11g to Oracle Database 12c?
A. It terminates if the SYSTEM tablespace in the source database is not autoextensible.
B. It automatically makes necessary changes to Oracle environment variables.
C. It automatically enables unified auditing in the upgraded database.
D. It automatically adds new data files if there is not enough disk space to grow.
B. It automatically makes necessary changes to Oracle environment variables.
Identify two prerequisites for configuring Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express).
A. Grant the APEX_PUBLIC_USER role to the SYSMAN user.
B. Use the DBMS_XDB_CONFIG.SETHTTPPORT procedure to configure a port number for Oracle HTTP Server.
C. Install Oracle HTTP Server.
D. Configure at least one dispatcher for the TCP/IP protocol.
E. Create a SYSMAN user with the SYSDBA privilege as an administrator for EM Express.
B. Use the DBMS_XDB_CONFIG.SETHTTPPORT procedure to configure a port number for Oracle HTTP Server.
D. Configure at least one dispatcher for the TCP/IP protocol.
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of complex queries. Currently, the database is running with peak workload.
You want to analyze some of the most resource-intensive statements cached in the library cache.
What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?
A. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report
C. SQL Access Advisor
In which situations does the Database Writer process (DBWn) write to data files? (choose two).
A. when the RMAN recovery process starts
B. when a user process commits a transaction
C. when a tablespace is made read-only or taken offline
D. when PMON cleans up dirty buffers in the database buffer cache
E. when clean buffers for reading new blocks into the database buffer cache are not found easily
C. when a tablespace is made read-only or taken offline
E. when clean buffers for reading new blocks into the database buffer cache are not found easily
Which two statements are true about availability audit features after migration to unified auditing? (Choose two.)
A. The ability of users to audit their own schema objects is not available in the post-migrated database.
B. Operating system audit trail is available in the post-migrated database.
C. Network auditing is available in the post-migrated database.
D. Mandatory auditing of audit administrative actions is available in the post-migrated database.
A. The ability of users to audit their own schema objects is not available in the post-migrated database.
D. Mandatory auditing of audit administrative actions is available in the post-migrated database.
Which three statements are true about Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)
A. A resource plan change can be automated by using the Oracle Scheduler.
B. It can be used to control the consumption of only physical I/Os where excessive physical I/Os can trigger an automatic session termination but excessive logical I/Os cannot.
C. It can be used to control the usage of the undo tablespace by consumer groups.
D. A resource plan can have multiple resource plan directives, each of which controls resource allocation for a different consumer group.
E. It can be used to enable resumable timeout for user sessions.
F. It can be used to control the usage of the temp tablespace by consumer groups.
A. A resource plan change can be automated by using the Oracle Scheduler.
C. It can be used to control the usage of the undo tablespace by consumer groups.
D. A resource plan can have multiple resource plan directives, each of which controls resource allocation for a different consumer group.
What is the effect of setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter to BASIC?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots are not generated automatically.
D. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary object-level statistics on tables as part of query optimization.
C. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots are not generated automatically.
You are administering a database that supports an OLTP workload.
The default UNDO tablespace is a fixed size tablespace with the RETENTION NOGUARATNEE clause and undo retention set to 12 minutes.
The user SCOTT queries a large table during peak activity.
The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
Which is possible reason for this?
A. The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing updates.committed after the query began.
B. The query is unable to place data blocks in the UNDO tablespace.
C. The flashback data archive is not enabled for the table on which the query is issued.
D. There is not enough space in Fast Recovery Area.
E. The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing uncommitted updates.
A. The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing updates.committed after the query began.
Which two categories of segments are analyzed by the Automatic Segment Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. segments in tablespaces that have exceeded a critical or warning space threshold
B. segments that have the highest growth rate in a database
C. segments that are sparsely populated and have more than 10% of free space below the high water mark.
D. segments that have unusable indexes
E. segments for tables created using ADVANCED ROW COMPRESSION
A. segments in tablespaces that have exceeded a critical or warning space threshold
B. segments that have the highest growth rate in a database
Your database is running in NOARCHIVLOG mode.
Examine the following parameters:
You execute the following command after performing a STARTUP MOUNT:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the command?
A. It executes successfully and sets the Fast Recovery Area as the local archive destination.
B. It executes successfully and issues a warning to set LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST while opening the database.
C. It fails and returns an error about LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST not being set.
D. It executes successfully and sets $ORACLE_HOME/dbs as the default archive destination.
A. It executes successfully and sets the Fast Recovery Area as the local archive destination.
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled for your database instance.
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 100M;
Which statement is true?
A. It succeeds and the minimum size for the DEFAULT buffer pool is set to 100M.
B. It fails because DB_CACHE_SIZE is a static initialization parameter.
C. It fails because ASMM is enabled and individual SGA components cannot be sized.
D. It succeeds and the value is changed in the SPFILE immediately, but the change takes effect only at the next instance startup.
A. It succeeds and the minimum size for the DEFAULT buffer pool is set to 100M.
You want to create a database with a block size other than the default 8 kilobytes (KB) by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
Which option should you use?
A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storage of data files
B. a file system for storage of data files
C. a Data Warehouse database template
D. a custom database template
D. a custom database template
Which two statements are true about using SQL*Loader? (Choose two.)
A. It can load data from external files by using the direct path only.
B. It can load data into multiple tables using the same load statement.
C. It can load data into only one table at a time.
D. It can generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
E. It can load data from external files by using the conventional path only.
B. It can load data into multiple tables using the same load statement.
D. It can generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
The HR user owns the BONUSES table. HR grants privileges to the user TOM by using the command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON bonuses TO tom WITH GRANT OPTION;
Tom then executes this command to grant privileges to the user JIM:
SQL> GRANT SELET ON hr.bonuses TO jim;
Which statement is true?
A. TOM cannot revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
B. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
C. JIM can grant the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege to other users, but cannot revoke the privilege from them.
D. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from TOM, which will automatically revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
D. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from TOM, which will automatically revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
What is the benefit of running the catctl.pl script during an upgrade of a pre-12c database to an Oracle 12c database?
A. It provides a summary of the upgrade results.
B. It recompiles all invalid PL/SQL and Java code.
C. It generates a log file containing the fixes that can be made to the source database.
D. It provides parallel upgrade options to finish the upgrade process with a reduced down time.
E. It generates fix-up scripts to be run on the source database before upgrade.
D. It provides parallel upgrade options to finish the upgrade process with a reduced down time.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. All current, online, and archived redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.
B. All redo log entries in the current and active logs are applied to data files to reconstruct changes made after the most recent checkpoint.
C. All redo log entries in the current log are applied to data files until the checkpoint position is reached.
D. All current, active, and inactive redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.
B. All redo log entries in the current and active logs are applied to data files to reconstruct changes made after the most recent checkpoint.
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
You want to take a consistent whole database backup.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The user-managed backup consists of only formatted data blocks.
B. The database must be shut down to take a user-managed backup.
C. The RMAN backup contains only data files.
D. The RMAN backup can be performed while the database is open.
E. The database must be in MOUNT state to take RMAN backup.
B. The database must be shut down to take a user-managed backup.
E. The database must be in MOUNT state to take RMAN backup.
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken.
RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackup.
In which three scenarios do you need media recovery? (Choose three.)
A. loss of all the copies of the control file
B. loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
C. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D. loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
E. logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
F. abnormal termination of the database instance
A. loss of all the copies of the control file
C. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D. loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
Which two statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations? (Choose two.)
A. You cannot specify how partitioned tables should be handled during an import operation.
B. Only data can be compressed during an export operation.
C. Existing dump files can be overwritten during an export operation.
D. Tables cannot be renamed during an import operation.
E. Metadata that is exported and imported can be filtered based on objects and object types.
C. Existing dump files can be overwritten during an export operation.
E. Metadata that is exported and imported can be filtered based on objects and object types.
Your database instance has the following parameter setting:
OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX = OPS$
You execute the following command:
And then grant OPS$GUEST_USER the CREATE SESSION privilege.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. GUEST_USER can query the tables created in the USERS tablespace by default.
B. The authentication details for GUEST_USER are stored in the database password file.
C. A local GUEST_USER OS account should exist before GUEST_USER can log on to the database.
D. GUEST_USER can log on to the database without specifying a username and password.
E. GUEST_USER is forced to change the password at the first login.
C. A local GUEST_USER OS account should exist before GUEST_USER can log on to the database.
D. GUEST_USER can log on to the database without specifying a username and password.
Your database has been running with a peak load for the past hour.
You want to preserve the performance statistics collected during this period for comparison when you analyze the performance of the database later.
What must you do to achieve this?
A. Increase the window size of the moving window baseline so that it equals the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot retention period.
B. Create a baseline on a pair of snapshots that span the peak load period.
C. Generate Active Session History reports for the peak load period.
D. Set the snapshot retention period in AWR to 60 to avoid automatic purging of snapshots for the past hour.
B. Create a baseline on a pair of snapshots that span the peak load period.
Which four operations performed after the Oracle Restart installation are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose four.)
A. listener configured by using NETCA
B. database service created by using SRVCTL
C. database created by using a SQL statement
D. database created by using DBCA
E. ASM instance created by using ASMCA
F. database service created by using DBMS_SERVICE.CREATE_SERVICE
G. database service created by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter
A. listener configured by using NETCA
B. database service created by using SRVCTL
D. database created by using DBCA
E. ASM instance created by using ASMCA
You want to import the schema objects of the HR user from the development database DEVDB to the production database PRODDB by using Oracle Data Pump.
A database link devdb.us.oracle.com is created between PRODDB and DEVDB.
You execute the following command on the PRODDB database server:
What should you do to resolve the error?
A. Add network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com.
B. Add the SYSTEM user to the schemas option.
C. Change the dumpfile option value to schema.dat@devdb.us.oracle.com.
D. Replace the schemas option with network_1ink = devdb.us.oracle.com.
E. Replace the dumpfile option with network_1ink = devdb.us.oracle.com.
E. Replace the dumpfile option with network_1ink = devdb.us.oracle.com.
Examine the parameters:
Users complain that their sessions for certain transactions hang.
You investigate and discover that some users fail to complete their transactions, causing other transactions to wait on row-level locks.
Which two actions would you take to prevent this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the maximum number of ITL slots for segments on which a blocking user performs a transaction.
B. Decrease the SESSIONS_PER_USER limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
C. Set a limit in the profiles of blocking users to control the number of data blocks that can be accessed in a session.
D. Use Database Resource Manager to automatically kill the sessions that are idle and are blocking other sessions.
E. Decrease the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
D. Use Database Resource Manager to automatically kill the sessions that are idle and are blocking other sessions.
E. Decrease the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
In your database, the RESOURCE_LIMIT parameter is set to TRUE.
You create the profile:
Which two statements are true about users and their sessions that are subject to this profile? (Choose two.)
A. The CPU_PER_CALL is ignored in the user sessions because of the unlimited value of CPU_PER_CALL
B. These users can never reuse a password
C. The PASSWORD_LIFE_TIME value is ignored because of the unlimited value of PASSWORD_REUSE_MAX.
D. In each user session, the limit for LOGICAL_READS_PER_SESSION in the same as defined in the DEFAULT profile.
B. These users can never reuse a password
D. In each user session, the limit for LOGICAL_READS_PER_SESSION in the same as defined in the DEFAULT profile.
You executed the following query:
Considering that all the redo logs are available, what information can you derive from the output of the preceding query?
A. The time when the last flashback operation in your database was performed
B. The time when the first flashback operation in our database was performed
C. The approximate time and the lowest system change number (SCN) to which you can flash back your database
D. The system change number (SCN) and the time when the Flashback Database was enabled in the database instance
C. The approximate time and the lowest system change number (SCN) to which you can flash back your database
Examine the query and its output:
What might have caused three of the alerts to disappear?
A. The threshold alerts were cleared and transferred to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
B. An Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot was taken before the execution of the second
query.
C. An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADOM) report was generated before the execution of the
second query.
D. The database instance was restarted before the execution of the second query
A. The threshold alerts were cleared and transferred to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable
databases (PDBs).
Examine the query and its output:
Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the
password file? (Choose two.)
A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.
B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments
set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.
B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments
set to Yes.
Examine the following query output:
You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:
$ > impdp hr/hr directory = dumpdir dumpfile = hr_new.dmp schemas=hr
TRANSFORM=DISABLE_ARCHIVE_LOGGING: Y
Which statement is true?
A. All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.
B. Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C. Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D. None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its activities
are logged.
C. Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
Examine the parameter for your database instance:
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.
A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.
A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:
Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file?
(Choose three.)
A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the
loaded data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal
carriage return string as the record terminator.
A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the
loaded data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal
carriage return string as the record terminator.
You execute the following piece of code with appropriate privileges:
User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.
Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL column in the view
and the table? (Choose two.)
A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
B. Data is redacted for EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
C. Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
D. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role
set.
A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
C. Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback?
(Choose three.)
A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is
a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are
enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are submitted to the optimizer.
A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is
a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are
enabled.
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and
execute the following sequence statements:
What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?
A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.
B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable database (PDB).
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR)
report:
What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?
A. The size of the shared pool is too small.
B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
A. The size of the shared pool is too small.
B. Cursors are not being shared.
D. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the
following command in the root container:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Schema objects owned by the C# # A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs
B. The C # # A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
C. The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
D. The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
E. The command will create a user in the root container only because the container clause is not used.
C. The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
D. The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:
Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?
A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the
total rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the
screen or the application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group, DGROUP1 with
SQL:
There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.
What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error of for maintenance?
A. Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1
will fall.
B. Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until the
CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C. The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the controller2 failure group and rebalancing
is initiated.
D. ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly
allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
E. Transactions accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fail but
queries will succeed.
D. ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly
allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
You have the following entry in the tnsnames.ors of your hq.us.example.com host machine:
You issue the following command at the command prompt:
Sqlplus HR/HR@ORCL -
Which statement is true about the connection to the ORCL database instance?.
A. The connection succeeds, provided the NAMES.DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to
us.example.com in the sqlnet.ora file on the client side.
B. The connection fails because the net service name does not have the suffix us.example.com.
C. The connection succeeds, provided the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter is set to ORCL.
D. The connection succeeds, provided the ORCL.us.example.com database service is registered with a listener, the listener is up, and the database is open.
D. The connection succeeds, provided the ORCL.us.example.com database service is registered with a listener, the listener is up, and the database is open.
You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restart the database instance:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.
B. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.
C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero for the database instance.
D. The lower limits of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB
and 270 MB respectively.
E. The instance does not start up because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is enabled but
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to nonzero values.
A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.
D. The lower limits of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB
and 270 MB respectively.
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:
Examine the command:
RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
What is the outcome?
A. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS BACKUPSET
command.
B. It executes successfully and creates a backup set of the database along with archived log files and then
deletes the original archived log files.
C. It executes successfully and creates an image copy of the database along with archive log files and then
deletes the original archived log files.
D. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY command.
B. It executes successfully and creates a backup set of the database along with archived log files and then
deletes the original archived log files.
In your database, USERS is the default permanent tablespace.
Examine the commands and their outcome:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
B. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace and rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
C. The MYTAB table is created in the USERS tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
D. The CREATE TABLE statement generates an error because the SYSDBA privilege does not provide
any space quota on the SYSTEM tablespace by default.
E. The MYTAB table is owned by the SYS user.
B. The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace and rows can be inserted into the table by USER02.
E. The MYTAB table is owned by the SYS user.
Examine the parameter settings in your local ORCL database:
As the SYS user, you issue the following command on ORCL:
CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK sales.us.example.com USING sales1;
The sales1 tnsnames entry points to the sales database instance.
Which two are requirements to ensure that you can successfully connect by using this database link?
(Choose two.)
A. The GLOBAL_NAMES initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the ORCL database.
B. The SALES1 net service name should be known to both the local and remote databases.
C. Local database users who use this database link should have accounts and the required privileges in the remote database.
D. The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the remote database.
E. Only the user creating the database link must have an account and the required privileges in the remote
database.
A. The GLOBAL_NAMES initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the ORCL database.
C. Local database users who use this database link should have accounts and the required privileges in the remote database.
A database uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as database storage, which has a diskgroup, DATA1, which is created as follows:
What happens when the FAILGRP1 failure group is corrupted?
A. Mirroring of allocation units occurs within the FAILGRP2 failure group.
B. Transactions that are using the diskgroup fail.
C. ASM does not mirror any data and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the FAILGRP2 failure group.
D. Data in the FAILGRP1 failure group is moved to the FAILGRP2 failure group and rebalancing is started.
C. ASM does not mirror any data and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the FAILGRP2 failure group.
You are using RMAN to back up your database.
All the data files are in read/write mode.
Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:
Which two statements are true about a whole consistent backup of a database running in ARCHIVELOG
mode? (Choose two.)
A. The backup can be used as an incremental level 0 backup.
B. The database instance must be shut down to take the backup.
C. The database must be in MOUNT state to take the backup.
D. The backup consists of blocks that have been formatted.
E. The system Change Number (SCN) is the same for all the data files in the backup.
C. The database must be in MOUNT state to take the backup.
E. The system Change Number (SCN) is the same for all the data files in the backup.
Examine the parameters:
Your database instance is started with a PFILE.
You want to increase the size of the buffer cache.
Free memory is available to increase the size of the buffer cache.
You execute the command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=1024M;
Which is the outcome?
A. Change is applied to the current instance, but does not persist after instance restart.
B. The value is changed only in the PFILE and takes effect at the next instance startup.
C. The value is chang
D. It fails because the SCOPE clause is missing.
A. Change is applied to the current instance, but does not persist after instance restart.
Examine the details of the uncompressed, non-partitioned heap table CITIES.
Examine the command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE cities SHRINK SPACE COMPACT;
What must you do before executing it?
A. Ensure free space that is approximately equal to the space used by the table should be available.
B. Ensure there are no pending transactions on the table
.
C. Enable row movement is enabled.
D. Disable all indexes on the table
C. Enable row movement is enabled.
