Oracle Test Bobby Flashcards
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space
in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo
before that time has elapsed.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo
before that time has elapsed.
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that
all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database.
SCOTT’s password is TIGER.
The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?
A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING `HQ’;
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
- Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
- The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
- The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?
A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database
structures? (Choose two.)
A. A segment cannot span data files.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)
A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is
displayed.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the
session will be queued.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the
session will be queued.
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?
A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn
and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
What should you ensure before the start of the operation?
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
A. Row movement is enabled.
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?
A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using the
abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown
using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by
using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the
abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN
IMMEDIATE.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.
Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:
Which statement is true?
A. Only SGA components are sized automatically.
B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
C. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
Which two statements are true about extents? (Choose two.)
A. Blocks belonging to an extent can be spread across multiple data files.
B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
D. Data blocks in an extent are automatically reclaimed for use by other objects in a tablespace when all
the rows in a table are deleted.
B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
You execute the commands:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
B. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no
space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C. The user Sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is default.
D. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects
in the users tablespace.
E. The user Sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.
A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
D. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects
in the users tablespace.
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries:
Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis.
You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to
improve query performance?
A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance
Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on
the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on
the workload captured in the STS.
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (SH',
CUSTOMERS’, PUBLISH',
false’);
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command? (Choose three.)
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle
database (source):
Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command? (Choose three.)
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database by a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user with the
DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role on the source database.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same operating system (OS) with the same
endianness.
E. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database by a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user with the
DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role on the source database.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same operating system (OS) with the same
endianness.
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database? (Choose
two.)
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA\_MAX\_SIZE = 1024M SGA\_TARGET = 700M DB\_8K\_CACHE\_SIZE = 124M LOG\_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?
A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within
SGA_MAX_SIZE.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)
A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
A. All users except SYS
B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT
B. All users except SCOTT
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table
in the HR schema by issuing the following command:
$> sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command? (Choose two.)
A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the
database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.
A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the
database.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as
follows:
After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.
E. Restart the database instance.
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions? (Choose two.)
A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table
containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table’s indexes, to
another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the
application?
A. Oracle Data Pump.
B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the
indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:
When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error
message:
SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more information.
Identify the reason the instance failed to start.
A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the
following script:
SQL > @utlrp.sql
Which two actions does the script perform? (Choose two.)
A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose two.)
A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.
B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).
B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database.
You want to know which change caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
A. Compare Period ADDM report
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for
the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
Examine the following steps:
- Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (
SH',
CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement. - Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, `SH’, 500) procedure.
- Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
- Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (
SH',
CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual
statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently.
You notice that the required data blocks are getting aged out of the default buffer cache.
How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?
A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management.
A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA
privilege.
The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?
A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs
are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or
rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application.
The application is undergoing some major schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and
materialized views.
You want to check the impact of these changes on workload performance.
What should you use to achieve this?
A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has
been opened in read only mode? (Choose four.)
A. You can connect as a common user by using the connect statement.
B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.
A. You can connect as a common user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change
has made this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further
investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report? (Choose three.)
A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.
A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management? (Choose three.)
A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when
they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform
better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode,
during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when
they perform better than existing accepted plans.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform
better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode,
during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized
that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted
the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?
A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
You created a new database using the “create database” statement without specifying the “ENABLE
PLUGGABLE” clause.
What are two effects of not using the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE database” clause?
A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database
(CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.
and then create PDBs within this CDB.
A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
What is the effect of specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE” clause in a “CREATE DATABASE” statement?
A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)? (Choose three.)
A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
A. LOG_BUFFER
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
You execute the following command from the root container:
SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and
all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window. Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time? (Choose two.)
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job's job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job's job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM) on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. RMAN CONVERT command
B. Data Pump Export and import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace
A. RMAN CONVERT command
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
- Creates a multitenant container database (CDB)
- Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs)
- Shuts down the CDB instance
- Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITE
Which two statements are true about the outcome after running the script? (Choose two.)
A. The seed will be in mount state.
B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.
B. The seed will be opened read-only.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running.
You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
You execute the following PL/SQL:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT
statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with
PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in
the FGA audit trial.
A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT
statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with
PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or
DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command,
and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or
DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/flash_device_1' ,
/dev/flash_device_2’
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
What is the result when you start up the database instance?
A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.
A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
- A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
- A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
- User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
- Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days.
How would you accomplish these requirements?
A. by granting a secure application role to the users
B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to
FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE
parameter to NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:
SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe log STORAGE (BUFFER_POOL recycle);
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million
rows.
What could be a reason for this recommendation?
A. The keep pool is not configured.
B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of
Information lifecycle Management (ILM)? (Choose three.)
A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection? (Choose two.)
A. User session data
B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
A. User session data
C. Private SQL area
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)? (Choose two.)
A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze
impact on the performance of SQL statements.
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
E. Database and operating system upgrade
Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command? (Choose two.)
A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
B. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.
A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container database (CDB).
The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:
- Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
- Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
- Create a new PDB in the target container database.
- Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp utility.
- Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
- Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable import options.
- Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.
Identify the correct order of the required steps.
A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)? (Choose two.)
A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.
B. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle? (Choose three.)
A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index
A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:
All users have their default set of system privileges.
For which three situations will data not be redacted? (Choose three.)
A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session
A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback Archiving enabled?
A. It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message
B. The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D. The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c.
Examine the table definition:
Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table? (Choose three.)
A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets
the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries
performed by the session.
A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)? (Choose three.)
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle Database server.
The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?
A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically started.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE ` /mydir/rman_change_track.f’;
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Maximum Undo per consumer group
B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose three.)
A. Advising on block checksum failures
B. Advising on inaccessible control files
C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D. Advising on empty password files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values
A. Advising on block checksum failures
B. Advising on inaccessible control files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values
You created an encrypted tablespace:
You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.
Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column.
Which is true about the result?
A. It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with SALT.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C. It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D. It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted tablespaces.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions
The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month.
You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result? (Choose three.)
A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor? (Choose three.)
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two pluggable database (PDBs).
A local user was accidently dropped from one of the PDBs.
You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped.
You connect to the CDB and execute the following commands:
SQL > SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
SQL > STARTUP MOUNT
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE to TIME “TO_DATE (08/20/12' ,
MM/DD/YY’)”;
Examine following commands:
- ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN;
- ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
- ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashback back schema?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 1
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:
$> conn sys oracle/oracle@prod as sysdba
SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid := DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION (batch_job' , FORCED_TRACKING =\>
Y’);
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
B. Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL
and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D. Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL
and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)? (Choose three.)
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user
before the common user can grant privileges to other users
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user
before the common user can grant privileges to other users
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB) as a pluggable database (PDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
Version: Oracle Database 12c Releases 1 64-bit
Character set: WE8ISO8859P15
National character set: AL16UTF16
O/S: Oracle Linux6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
Character set: AL32UTF8
O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?
A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export / import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN
D. The DBMS_PDB package
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives? (Choose three.)
A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.
Examine these two statements:
Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)
A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required for big file files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking
active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12’
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER operating system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing object.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:
Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output? (Choose three.)
A. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C. The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? (Choose two.)
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database? (Choose three.)
A. Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.
B. Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
C. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
E. Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired flashback time.
C. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
In which two scenarios do you use SQL* Loader to load data? (Choose two.)
A. Transform the data while it is being loaded into the database.
B. Use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C. Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D. Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
C. Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D. Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE.
You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for query execution plan.
C. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.
A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.
A. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.
B. It improves overall auditing performance.
C. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.
B. It improves overall auditing performance.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.