Option D Flashcards

1
Q

Define drug or medicine

A

A substance that alters physiological state, moods and emotions, levels of consciousness and incoming sensory information

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2
Q

What are the 5 ways to take drugs/medicines?

A

Oral
Inhale
Injection
Rectal
Topical

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3
Q

Define parentereal

A

Not involving the digestive system

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4
Q

Which methods of drug administration can be self-administered?

A

Oral
Topical
Usually:
Inhale
Rectal
Sometimes:
Injection

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5
Q

What is the advantage of oral administration of medication?

A

Easy and self administered

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6
Q

What is the disadvantage of oral administration of medication?

A

Can effect the stomach

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7
Q

What is the advantage of inhalation of medication?

A

Easy and fast delivery to the bloodstream

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8
Q

What is the advantage of injection?

A

Can be fast depending on method

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9
Q

What are the three types of injection?

A

Intravenous
Subcutaneous
Intramuscular

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10
Q

Describe intravenous injection

A

Direct to the vein - fast

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11
Q

Describe subcutaneous injection

A

Under the skin (into the fatty layer)

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12
Q

Describe intramuscular injection

A

Deep into the muscle

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13
Q

Should polar or non polar substances be injected intravenously?

A

Polar

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14
Q

Should polar or non polar substances be injected subcutaneously?

A

Non-polar

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15
Q

Should polar or non polar substances be injected intramuscularly?

A

Polar

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16
Q

What is the advantage of rectal administration of medication?

A

Avoids going through the stomach
Good absorption in the intestines (especially for digestive problems)

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17
Q

What is the advantage of topical administration of medication?

A

Easy, self administered and local

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18
Q

Define lethal dose

A

Dose required to kill 50% of the population

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19
Q

Define effective dose

A

Dose required to bring across a notable effect in 50% of the population

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20
Q

Define toxic dose

A

Dose required to bring about a toxic effect in 50% of the population

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21
Q

Define therapeutic index in animals

A

Lethal dose/ Effective dose (ideally high)

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22
Q

Define therapeutic index in humans

A

Toxic dose/ Effective dose (ideally high)

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23
Q

Define therapeutic window

A

The difference between lethal dose and effective dose

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24
Q

Define tolerance

A

Resistance of a body to the effects of a drug

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25
Q

What are the two types of tolerance?

A

Genetic - your natural resistance depending on your genetics
Acquired - from repeated exposure

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26
Q

Define placebo effect

A

The bodies ability to heal itself naturally without the need for drug. Effectivness of a drug

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27
Q

What can placebo groups be useful for?

A

To compare against to see if a drug is effective

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28
Q

Define side effects

A

Not the real effect for which a drug is taken but may occur additionally when taking it

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29
Q

Define risk to benefit ratio

A

A comparison between the bad things that the drug could do to you compared to the benefit that you will receive from taking the drug

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30
Q

Define OTC

A

Over the counter
Drugs available for you to buy in a supermarket/shop without regulation

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31
Q

Define on prescription

A

Drugs only issued by agreement of doctor

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32
Q

Define bioavailability

A

Amount of drug that reaches the target organ

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33
Q

What is the pH of stomach acid?

A

~2
[HCl] = 0.01M

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34
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

Where the stomach acid attacks the stomach where the lining is thin

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35
Q

How can ulcers be treated?

A

Increasing pH by adding a base

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36
Q

What are the suitable bases to treat ulcers?

A

Mg(OH)2, Al(OH)2 or NaHCO3

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37
Q

What are the side effects of Al(OH)2?

A

Alzheimer’s

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38
Q

What are the side effects of Mg(OH)2?

A

Diarrhoea

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39
Q

What does ranitidine (zantac) do?

A

Histamine inhibitor

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40
Q

How does histamine effect the stomach?

A

Histamine stimulates the acid making cells

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41
Q

What does omeprazole (nexium) do?

A

A proton pump inhibitor which prevents acid from being released in the stomach

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42
Q

What two things can omeprazole fight?

A

Heartburn
Stomach ulcers

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43
Q

How does heartburn work?

A

Acid in the stomach prays up in to the oesophagus and attacks the tissues

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44
Q

Define zwitterion

A

An ion with both negatively and positively charged groups

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45
Q

Give an example of a zwitterion

A

Ranitidine

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46
Q

What are the side effects of ranitidine and omeprazole?

A

Short term: Diarrhoea
Long term: Osteoporosis, food allergies and intolerance

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47
Q

Define analgesis

A

Pain relief

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48
Q

Define and name mild analgesics

A

Prevent the release of neurotransmitters from the injury site (aspirin, paracetamol and ibuprofen)

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49
Q

Define and name strong analgesics

A

Prevents neurotransmitters from reaching the brain by blocking the receptor sites (morphine, codeine and heroin)

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50
Q

Where is aspirin originally from?

A

Salicylic acid and ethanoic acid to reduce side effects of the salicylic acid

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51
Q

What potential side effect of aspirin makes it not prescribed to childern?

A

Reye’s disease (fatal)

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52
Q

Define antipyretic

A

Fever reducing

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53
Q

Which common drug is anticoagulalent?

A

Aspirin

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54
Q

Which common drug is antipyretic?

A

Paracetamol and ibuprofen

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55
Q

Which common drug is antiinflammatory?

A

Ibuprofen

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56
Q

Which common drug is a mild analgesic?

A

Aspirin
Paracetamol
Ibuprofen

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57
Q

What are the side effects of aspirin?

A

Stomach ulcers

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58
Q

What are the side effects of paracetamol?

A

Liver, brain, kidney damage

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59
Q

What are the side effects of ibuprofen?

A

Liver, kidney and stomach damage

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60
Q

Which mild analgesic should be taken after food?

A

ibuprofen

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61
Q

Which common mild analgesic may prevent cancer and Parkinsons?

A

Aspirin

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62
Q

Define retrosynthesis?

A

Working back from a target compound to make the desired compound out of a variety of sources

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63
Q

Define alkaloids

A

Drugs of plant origin containing a tertiary amine and heterocycle

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64
Q

Which strong analgesics are alkaloids?

A

Morphine
Codeine
(Diamorphine)

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65
Q

Which strong analgesic is a derivative of alkaloid?

A

Diamorphine (heroin)

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66
Q

What are the opiates?

A

Drugs from poppy seeds
Morphine and codeine (and diamorphine)

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67
Q

How is diamorphine produced?

A

Esterification of morphine with vinegar

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68
Q

Why is heroin more dangerous than morphine?

A

It is less polar and therefore dissolves well in fats and can more easily cross the blood brain barrier, making it more addictive

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69
Q

What are the short term effects of strong analgesics?

A

Euphoria
Depressed nervous system
Loss of cough reflex
Nausea
Coma
Death

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70
Q

What is defined as a short term effect?

A

Something that occurs within minutes or hours

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71
Q

What is defined as a long term effect?

A

Something that occurs over months or years (usually after repeated exposure)

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72
Q

What are the long term effects of strong analgesics?

A

Constipation (Direct)
Loss of libido (Direct)
Loss of period (Direct)
Poor nutrition
Risk of HIV (needles)
Social problems
Prostitution
Loss of job
(Direct) means directly due to drug use whilst the others are secondary

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73
Q

What are the sections of a bacteria?

A

Cell membrane
Ribosomes
DNA
Cytoplasm
Cell wall

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74
Q

How do bacteria replicate?

A

Binary fission

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75
Q

When is bacteria most vulnerable and why?

A

When they are replicating as the cell wall gets thinner

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76
Q

How does penicillin work?

A

It mimics the units needed for healthy cell wall construction

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77
Q

What is the first example of chemistry being used to treat bacterial infection?

A

Paul Ehrlich used salvarsan to treat syphilis

78
Q

What led to the discovery of penecillin?

A

Alexandra Fleming noticed bacteria would not grow in mold

79
Q

Who first used penecillin?

A

Florey and Chain

80
Q

What occurred in the first ever treatment with penicillin?

A

Penicillin ran out halfway through and the policeman (patient) died despite having been dramatically better

81
Q

When did penecillin use become widespread?

A

World War II

82
Q

Which part of the penicillin ring mimics the amino acids needed for cell wall construction?

A

Square B lactam ring has strained angles which can be easily opened to mimic these amino acids

83
Q

Define narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

Effective against a small number of species

84
Q

Define broad spectrum antibiotics

A

Effective against a wide number of species

85
Q

What does overuse of antibiotics lead to?

A

Bacterial resistance rendering them ineffective

86
Q

What are the causes of overuse of antibiotics?

A

Prescription when not needed
Added to animal feed as a preventative (e.g.: chickens full of penicillin)

87
Q

How can cancer be treated?

A

Radiotherapy with radio isotopes

88
Q

What are the two categories of waste?

A

LLW (Low level waste)
HLW (High level waste)

89
Q

What are the properties of low level waste?

A

Low activity, short half-life and decays quickly

90
Q

How are protective clothing maintained sterile?

A

Treated with radiotherapy
(Iodine -131, Strontium-89 or Samarium-153)

91
Q

Give examples of low level waste items?

A

Gloves, packaging, protective clothing

92
Q

How is low level waste disposed of?

A

Landfill or the sea

93
Q

What are the properties of high level waste?

A

High activity, long half-life and decays slowly

94
Q

Define in vivo

A

In living

95
Q

Define in vitro

A

In glass (Latin)

96
Q

How is high level waste disposed of?

A

Vitrification and burying

97
Q

Define vitrification

A

Turned into glass

98
Q

How should antibiotic waste be correctly disposed of?

A

In pharmacy

99
Q

Why must antibiotic waste not be sent to landfill?

A

Waste in the environment (soil and water) may also lead to resistance

100
Q

What are the three types of solvent?

A

Chlorinated, non-chlorinated and aqueous

101
Q

What constitutes as aqueous solvents?

A

Water, NaCl (aq) etc…

102
Q

What constitutes as non-chlorinated solutions?

A

Methanol, ethanol, esters

103
Q

What constitutes as chlorinated solutions?

A

CCl4, CHCl3 etc…

104
Q

How are chlorinated solutions disposed of?

A

Burned at very high temperatures to prevent the formation of toxic dioxins

105
Q

How are non-chlorinated solutions disposed of?

A

Recycled
Heavy metals are extracted and then both metals and solution are either recycled or burnt for energy

106
Q

How are aqueous solutions disposed of?

A

In the sea
(almost infinite dilution)

107
Q

What is the greatest disadvantage of non-chlorinated solution disposal?

A

Expensive

108
Q

What is the greatest disadvantage of chlorinated solution disposal?

A

If incomplete combustion occurs, toxic dioxins may be produced

109
Q

What are the aims of “Green Chemistry”?

A

Reduce pollution, consumption (of raw material and energy and high yield (low waste)

110
Q

What 5 things must we look at in chemistry to be as “green” as possible?

A

High atom economy
Environmental factor
Carbon efficiency
Reduce steps in reaction (less waste)
Use greener and safer solvents

111
Q

What is environmental factor?

A

Total waste (kg) / Mass of product
Total waste includes water used in washing, gloves, packaging etc…

112
Q

What is carbon efficiency?

A

Amount of carbon in product/ total carbon in reactants

113
Q

Describe the differences between bacteria and viruses

A

Viruses are smaller, not strictly alive and require a host to reproduce
Bacteria are larger and can reproduce and live independently
Bacteria also have a nucleus and cytoplasm whilst viruses do not

114
Q

How large is a typical virus?

A

~100nm

115
Q

Describe a virus

A

Basic protein coat with either RNA or DNA inside

116
Q

How do viruses reproduce?

A

Attaching to a host cell membrane and injecting their DNA/RNA which the host cell will replicate thus producing more viruses. When the host cell becomes full of virus, it ruptures and the thousands of virus search for new host cells.

117
Q

Why are viral infections harder to target ?

A

Vary fast rate or reproduction (very spread before symptoms are present)
Simpler biochemical structures
May lie dormant for periods
Rapid replication leads to high mutation rates

118
Q

What do vaccines do?

A

Help the body produce antibodies against viruses

119
Q

What does amantadine do?

A

Inhibits an enzyme in the flu virus which doesn’t allow the virus to stick to a host cell

120
Q

What does acyclovir do?

A

Has a similar structure to deoxyguanosine and thus can be mistaken for viral DNA but will terminate DNA synthesis

121
Q

Describe an amine group

A

R-N-R
(where R is variable)

122
Q

Describe an amide group

A

R-C(=O)-N(-R)-R
(where R is variable)

123
Q

Name two antacids

A

Omeprazole
Ranitidine

124
Q

What molecules can form hydrogen bonds?

A

N, O, F

125
Q

Name two antivirals

A

Oseltamivir
Zanamivir

126
Q

Name a less polar antiviral

A

Oseltamivir

127
Q

Name a more soluble antiviral

A

Zanamivir

128
Q

Define retrovirus

A

Has RNA instead of DNA

129
Q

What is HIV/AIDS?

A

A human retrovirus which attacks the T-helper cells

130
Q

Describe the life-cycle of an HIV virus

A

HIV virus infects a host cell and releases reverse transcriptase which is used by the human cell uses to synthesise RNA from DNA
This then passes into the nucleus and replicates with the cells own DNA during replication making thousands of new HIV virus

131
Q

What does AZT do?

A

It’s an anti-retroviral used against HIV as it inhibits reverse transcriptase

132
Q

What are the problems when fighting HIV/AIDS?

A

T helper cells (which form part of the immune system) are destroyed weakening the immune system
The virus can lay dormant for years 10 on average)
Rapid replication can lead to mutations

133
Q

How many enantiomers are produced from SN1?

A

2

134
Q

How many enantiomers are produced from SN2

A

1

135
Q

What is a chiral centre?

A

A carbon with 4 different groups attached

136
Q

What was the original use of Thalidomide?

A

Anti-morning sickness drug

137
Q

What was the problem with Thalidomide?

A

One enantiomer was harmless and the other produced dangerous side effects

138
Q

What kind of mixture is usually produced under lab conditions of an SN2 reaction?

A

Racemic mixture
(with a 1:1 ratio of each enantiomer)

139
Q

How can we most efficiently prevent the production of the more harmful enantiomer?

A

Using a chiral auxillary

140
Q

What is a chiral auxillary?

A

A chiral molecule which binds to the reactant, physically blocking one of the reaction sites by steric hinderance meaning that the reaction can only occur on the other side

141
Q

Which drug has 11 chiral centres?

A

Taxol

142
Q

What is taxol used to treat?

A

Breast, ovary and brain tumours

143
Q

How does taxol work?

A

Inhibits mitosis by preventing breakdown of microtubules

144
Q

Where can taxol be found naturally?

A

Pacific Yew Tree

145
Q

Describe a phenyl group

A

Benzene ring

146
Q

Describe an ester group

A

(C=O)O

147
Q

Describe a ketone group

A

R-(C=O)-R

148
Q

Describe a hydroxyl

A

C-OH

149
Q

Describe a heterocycle

A

Any ring where one of the corners is not a carbon

150
Q

Describe an alkene

A

C=C

151
Q

What are the two functions of radioisotopes in chemistry?

A

Diagnostic
Treatment (to kill cancer cells)

152
Q

Give examples of side effects of nuclear medicine

A

Hair loss
Nausea
Fatigue
Loss of appetite
Damage to healthy cells
Sterility

153
Q

What are tracers?

A

Isotopes used to follow a path through the body

154
Q

What is the half life of Tc-99

A

6 hours

155
Q

What are the properties of isotopes?

A

Same chemical properties as other isotopes
Different physical properties

156
Q

What encompasses physical properties of a molecule?

A

Melting point
Boiling point
Density
Colour

157
Q

What encompasses chemical properties of a molecule?

A

How they react and which reactions they undergo

158
Q

What kind of radiation do tracers emit?

A

Gamma

159
Q

Give examples of a tracer molecules?

A

Tc-99
I-131

160
Q

What is the risk of using tracers?

A

Still ionising to a degree and therefore still a risk of cancer

161
Q

What are gamma rays?

A

Photons of light

162
Q

What beta particles?

A

e-

162
Q

What are alpha particles?

A

Helium nucleus (2 protons, 2 neutrons)

163
Q

What is TAT?

A

Targeted alpha therapy

164
Q

How can alpha particles be useful?

A

Very high ionisation at short distance so can be put into a tumour and kill only the cells around it

165
Q

What is a nuclear equation?

A

The equation to show the decay of a radioisotope (doesn’t require charge symbols)

166
Q

Describe BNCT

A

Boron Neutron Capture Therapy
Boron 10 is injected into a patient and then the patient is irradiated with neuron which are captured by boron which decays and releases an alpha particle

167
Q

Give the nuclear equation for BNCT

A

B-10 + n-1 -> B-11 -> Li-7 + He-4

168
Q

What are the advantages of BNCT?

A

Very safe
Very localised

169
Q

How are Lutetium-177 and Ytrium-90 used in radiotherapy?

A

They are added to the carrier molecule DOTA-TATE (memorise the name) which attaches to tumours and releases radioisotopes to kill the cells

170
Q

How may potassium dichromate crystals be used to detect alcohol?

A

Colour change from orange -> green
(as ethanol in the body is converted to ethanal)

171
Q

What should be present in a normal breath?

A

O2, N2, CO2, H2O

172
Q

How does an infrared intoximeter work?

A

Passes infrared light through a breath sample and compares to a control
If C-H molecules were in the sample the IR light spectrum will be different to the example

173
Q

What is the problem with the orange->green test with potassium dichromate crystals to test for alcohol consumption?

A

Very inaccurate

174
Q

What is the UK legal limit for alcohol?

A

The legal limit in the UK is 80mg per 100ml sample breathe

175
Q

How does a fuel cell breathalyser work?

A

Breathe passes into a cell where it is converted to ethanoic acid and electrons which are detected as an electrical urrent. The higher the current, the greater the amount of alcohol

176
Q

How does a fuel cell breathalyser work?

A

Breathe passes into a cell where it is converted to ethanoic acid and electrons which are detected as an electrical current. The higher the current, the greater the amount of alcohol

177
Q

What methods can be used to identify drugs using spectroscopic methods?

A

Mass spectroscopy
Infrared spectroscopy
NMR
Chromatography
Distillation
Solvent extraction

178
Q

Describe mass spectroscopy as a method for identifying drugs

A

Molecules are broken into fragments and parent ion is used to identify which molecule is present

179
Q

Describe infrared spectroscopy as a method for identifying drugs

A

Different bonds vibrate with different energies, the absorption spectrum can be compared to identify which bonds are present

180
Q

Describe NMR as a method for identifying drugs

A

Chemical shifts and hydrogen environments and their splitting at different integration values can be used to work out how many different types of hydrogen are in a structure

181
Q

What is TMS?

A

Tetramethyl silane
This is used as a control for NMR as it has 1 hydrogen environment in an even polarity

182
Q

What are the different types of chromatography?

A

Paper
Thin layer
Column
Gas liquid
High performance liquid

183
Q

How does chromatography work?

A

A stationary phase and a mobile phase are used and the mixture of chemicals separates across them as they interact

184
Q

What is an Rf value?

A

A value to identify what proportion of the distance travelled by the mobile phase, was also travelled by a single section of the mixture

185
Q

What type of chromatography is used for alcohol detection?

A

Gas liquid

186
Q

How does gas liquid chromatography work?

A

Urine/ blood is heated and passed through a coiled tube with a liquid layer on the inside. The only thing that will come out the other end is ethanol… idk why?! apparently it’s irrelevant

187
Q

How can distillation be used to separate chemicals?

A

Seperate them by boiling point

188
Q

What is Raoults Law?

A

P= P(A)X(A) + P(B)X(B)…
Where P(A) is partial pressure of A and X(A) is mole fraction of A

189
Q

How is mole fraction calculated?

A

Amount of moles of molecule A / Total moles

190
Q

How can we ensure distillation is pure?

A

Do many times, seperating each time, the liquid from the gas

191
Q

Describe solvent extraction as a method for identifying drugs

A

Dissolve the sample in a solvent in which it does not mix well thus allowing the different elements to seperate