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Boards > Opthalmology and Otalaryngology > Flashcards

Opthalmology and Otalaryngology Flashcards

1
Q

when does eye development begin

A

5 weeks

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2
Q

what is the retina derived from

A

neuroectoderm

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3
Q

what are the vascular layers and sclerocorneal layers derived from?

A

mesoderm

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4
Q

what is the lens derived from?

A

surface ectoderm

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5
Q

when does eyelid close in response to light

A

30 weeks

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6
Q

when do pupils become reactive

A

30 weeks - well developed at 1 month

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7
Q

when does conjugate horizontal gaze occur?

A

1 month

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8
Q

when does visual fixation develop

A

1 month; well developed at 2 months

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9
Q

when does conjugate vertical gaze develop

A

2 months

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10
Q

when does visual following develop

A

3 months

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11
Q

when does visual evoked potential develop to adult levels?

A

6 months

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12
Q

when does optic nerve myelination complete?

A

2 years

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13
Q

which causes constriction and dilation? SNS vs PNS

A

Parasympathetic - constriction
sympathetic - dilation

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14
Q

leukocoria ddx

A

cataracts
retinoblastoma
coloboma
RoP
persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
retinal detachment or dysplasia
vitreous hemorrhage
intraoccular inflammation
medulloepithelioma
myelinated nerve fibers

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15
Q

hypotelorism

A

holoprosencephaly
Meckel Gruber
trisomy 13
Williams

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16
Q

hypertelorism

A

Apert
cat-eye
CHARGE
Cri du chat
Crouzon
del 13q
DiGeorge
Holt-Oram
Noonan
tri 8

hydantoin and isoretinoin`

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17
Q

upward slant

A

trisomy 21
hydantoin
prader willi
trisomy 13 or 18

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18
Q

downward slant

A

greater growth of brain above eye - maxillary hypoplasia

apert
noonan
criduchat
cat eye
digeorge
isoretinoin

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19
Q

aniridia

A

11pdel
wagr

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20
Q

cherry red spot

A

niemann pick and tay sachs
sialidosis

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21
Q

coloboma

A

cat eye
charge
13q del
treacher collins (eyelid)
tri 8
goldenhar (eyelid)

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22
Q

corneal opacities

A

mucopolysaccharidosis
mucolipidosis
fabry
cystinosis
hypophosphatasia
wilson

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23
Q

epicanthal folds

A

cridu chat
13qdel
fragile x
noonan
smith lemli optiz
stickler
tri21
williams
FAS
methotrexate
valproate

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24
Q

heterochromia

A

waardenburg
horners
hirshsprung

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25
Q

lens dislocation

A

homocystinuria
marfan
ehlers danlos

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26
Q

telecanthus

A

waardenburg

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27
Q

blue sclera

A

OI 1 and 2, 3 initially, not 4
russel - silver
ehlers danlos and marfans
incontinentia pigment
turner

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28
Q

stage 1 ROP

A

demarcation line

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29
Q

stage 2 ROP

A

ridge

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30
Q

stage 3 ROP

A

ridge + extraretinal neovascularization into vitreous space

31
Q

stage 4 ROP

A

partial retinal detachment

32
Q

stage 5 ROP

A

complete retinal detachment

33
Q

plus disease

A

dilated tortuous vessels
iris vascular engorgement, pupillary regidity, vitreous haze/hemorrhage

34
Q

screening for ROP

A

< 30 weeks, < 1500 g

35
Q

risk of strabismus in PT and FT

A

12-22% of preterm, 1-3% FT

36
Q

congenital infections cataracts

A

HSV
varicella
rubella (50%)
toxo

37
Q

metabolic cataracts

A

galactosemia
galactokinase deficiency
mevalonic aciduria
mucolipidoses
hypocalcemia
vitamin A or D

38
Q

genetic cataracts

A

smith lemli optiz
stickler
tri 21
WAGR

39
Q

secondary glaucoma causes

A

homocystinuria
congenital rubella
RoP
Sturge Weber
Stickler

40
Q

eye findings in tri 13

A

hypotelorism
microphtalmia
coloboma of iris
retinal dysplasia

41
Q

eye findings in tri 18

A

short palpebral fissures
hypoplastic orbital ridges, inner epicanthal folds, ptosis, corneal opacity

42
Q

eye findings in tri 21

A

bruschfield spots
lens opacities
myopia
nyastagmus
strabismus
blocked tear duct

43
Q

eye findings in del 13q

A

colobomas
small eyes
hypertelorism
increased risk Rb
ptosis
epicanthal folds

44
Q

preauricular pit or sinus

A

beckwith wiedemann
branchio oto renal syndrom
risk of infections and cyst development
NOT associated with hearing loss

45
Q

pre auricular skin tag

A

goldenhar
hemifacial microsomia
1st and 2nd branchial arch syndrome
RISK hearing loss

46
Q

microtia

A

isoretinoin
RISK hearing loss
treacher collins
goldenhar
hemifacial microtia

47
Q

small cupped ears

A

RISK hearing loss
CHARGE
Hirshsprung
agenesis of corpus callosum

48
Q

when is AABR reliable

A

after 34 weeks

49
Q

what is 1-3-6 rule for hearing

A

screen by 1 month
diagnose by 3 months
intervention by 6 months

50
Q

ranges of hearing loss

A

normal - 10 to 15
mild 26 - 40
mod 41- 55
mod sever 56-70
severe 21 - 90
profound > 91

51
Q

most common genetic cause of hearing loss

A

connexin 26

52
Q

syndromes with hearing loss

A

alport
pierre robin
usher
pendred
waardenburg
treacher collins
charge
klippel feil
tri8
stickler
tri21

53
Q

when to follow up failed ABR?

A

< 1 month

54
Q

development of nose

A
  • formation of NT from ectoderm (3rd week)
  • NT into neural crest cells
  • migration neural crest into mesenchyme
  • nasal cavity from invagination of nasal placodes (3-6 weeks)
  • epithelial plug in nostrils until 24 weeks when resorption occurs
55
Q

nasal encephalocoele

A

contiguous with CSF
may be pulsatile and expand with crying or compression of jugular veins

56
Q

nasal glioma

A

does not have CSF connection
firm, noncompressible
60% external 30% internal 10% mixed

57
Q

nasal meningocele

A

contains CSF and brain tissue
may be pulsatile and expand with crying or compression of jugular veins

58
Q

epulis vs epignathus

A

epulis from gum
epignathus from jaw/hard palate

59
Q

ranula vs mucocele

A

mucocele from minor salivary gland; painless
ranula from major salivary gland; painless

60
Q

macroglossia

A

lymphangioma
hemangioma
Beckwith wiedemann
hypothyroid
mucopolysaccharidoses
tri21

61
Q

MCC laryngeal anomaly

A
  1. layngomalaxia
  2. VC paralysis (L > R)
62
Q

embryology of laryngeal web

A

week4-5 primitive tissue obliterates area of larynx
if airway does not canalize the web will form during week 7-8
often in glottis area

63
Q

endoscopy showing pale or blue compressible mass originating laterally

A

subglottic hemangioma

64
Q

grading in subglottic stenosis and treatment

A

grade 1 <50%
grade 2: 51-70%
grade 3: 71-99%
grade 4: complete obstruction

1 & 2 endoscopic laser with stenting
3 & 4: surgery

65
Q

preauricular problem

A

hemangioma
vascular malformation

66
Q

post auricular problems

A

branchial cleft cyst (I)

67
Q

submandibular

A

hemangioma
ranula

68
Q

submental and midline neck

A

thyroglossal duct cyst
dermoid cyst
venous malformation

69
Q

anterior border of sternocleidomastoid

A

branchial cleft cyst (I, II, II)
hemangioma
laryngocele

70
Q

supraclavicular/paratracheal

A

thyroid mass
parathyroid mass
esophageal diverticulum
lipoma
dermoid cyst

71
Q

supraclavicular

A

lipoma

72
Q

average palatal index in neonate

A

0.3

73
Q

MCC neonatal nasal obstruction

A

mucosal inflammation

74
Q

% of cleft lip + palate identified prenatally

A

28%

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