opthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anterior chamber in the eye

A

area from the cornea to the iris

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2
Q

What is the posterior chamber in the eye?

A

Narrow space between the iris and the lens

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3
Q

What is the vitreous chamber in the eye?

A

Big space between the lens and the back of the eye

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4
Q

Which chambers are in the anterior section of the eye?

A

–> anterior chamber
–> posterior chamber

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5
Q

Which chamber makes up the posterior section of the eye?

A

vitreous chamber

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6
Q

What fluid is the anterior section of the eye filled with?

A

aqueous humour

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7
Q

What fluid is the posterior section of the eye filled with?

A

Vitreous humour

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8
Q

What secretes aqeous humour in the anterior section of the eye?

A

Cilliary epithelium

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9
Q

Describe the pathway of aqueous fluid in the anterior section of the eye?

A

–> Cilliary epithelium secretes aqueous humour in the posterior chamber ( narrow space between iris and lens)
–> Aqueous humour flows through the narrow posterior chamber through the pupil into the anterior chamber
–> Fluid flows out of the eye through the trabecular meshwork
–> through canal of Schlemn
–> into aqueous veins (episcleral venous system)

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10
Q

Describe what is meant by glaucoma?

A

–> optic nerve damage caused by a rise in intraocular pressure.
–> Raised intraocular pressure is caused by a blockage in aqueous humour trying to escape the eye.

There are two types of glaucoma:
Open-angle glaucoma
Acute angle-closure glaucoma

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11
Q

How does acute angle closure glaucoma arise?

A

–> iris bulges forward
–> seals off trabecular meshwork from anterior chamber
–> Prevents aqueous humour from draining
–> increased IOP (intraocular pressure)
–> Pressure build up in posterior chamber
–> Pushes iris further forward and exacerbates the angle closure
OPTHALMOLOGICAL EMERGENCY

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12
Q

What are the risk factors for acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

–> hypermetropia (long-sightedness)
–> increasing age (lens growth)
–> family history
–> female
–> chinese and east asian ethnic
–> shallow anterior chamber

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13
Q

Which medications can precipitate acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Adrenergic medications (e.g., noradrenaline)
Anticholinergic medications (e.g., oxybutynin and solifenacin)
Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline), which have anticholinergic effects

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14
Q

What are the clinical features of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

–> severe pain - could be ocular or headaches
–> Decreased visual acuity
–> symptoms worse with mydriasis (pupil dilation - watching TV in a dark room)
–> hard red eye
–> haloes around lights
–> semi dilated non reacting pupil
–> Corneal oedema results in dull or hazy cornea
–> systemic upset - N+V/ abdo pain

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15
Q

What are the investigations for acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Tonometry to assess for elevated IOP
gonioscopy - special lens for the slit lamp that allows you to visualise angle

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16
Q

What is the initial management of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

–> emergency - Urgent referral to opthalmologist
–> Lying the patient on their back without a pillow
–> Pilocarpine eye drops (2% for blue and 4% for brown eyes)
–> Acetazolamide 500 mg orally
–> Analgesia and an antiemetic, if required

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17
Q

How do pilocarpine eye drops work?

A

–> Act on muscarinic receptors in the sphincter muscles in the iris and causes pupil constriction (it is a miotic agent).
–> It also causes ciliary muscle contraction.
–> These two effects open up the pathway for the flow of aqueous humour from the ciliary body, around the iris and into the trabecular meshwork.

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18
Q

How does acetazolomide work?

A

Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces the production of aqueous humour.

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19
Q

What is the secondary care managment of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

–> Pilocarpine eye drops
–> Acetazolamide (oral or intravenous)
–> Hyperosmotic agents (e.g., intravenous mannitol) increase the osmotic gradient between the blood and the eye
–> Timolol is a beta blocker that reduces the production of aqueous humour
–> Dorzolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces the production of aqueous humour
–> Brimonidine is a sympathomimetics that reduces aqueous humour production and increases uveoscleral outflow

Laser iridotomy is usually required as a definitive treatment. This involves making a hold in the iris using a laser, which allows the aqueous humour to flow directly from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber. This relieves the pressure pushing the iris forward against the cornea and opens the pathway for the aqueous humour to drain.

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20
Q

What is the normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-21 mmHg - created by resistance to flow through the trabecular meshwork

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21
Q

What is the pathophysiology of open angle glaucoma?

A

–> gradual increase in resistance to flow through the trabecular meshwork
–> pressure slowly builds up in the eye
–> Raised IOP causes cupping of the optic disc
–> centre of the optic disc is an indent called the optic cup.
–> The optic cup usually is less than 50% of the size of the optic disc. –> Raised intraocular pressure causes this indent to become wider and deeper, described as “cupping”.
–> A cup-disk ratio greater than 0.5 is abnormal.

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22
Q

What are the risk factors for open-angle glaucoma?

A

–> increasing age
–> family history
–> black ethnic origin
–> myopia (nearsightedness)
–> hypertension
–> diabetes mellitus
–> corticosteroids

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23
Q

what is the presentation of open angle glaucoma?

A

–> may be asymptomatic for a long time and diagnosed by routine eye testing.

–> Glaucoma affects the peripheral vision first, resulting in a gradual onset of peripheral vision loss (tunnel vision). It can also cause:

–> Fluctuating pain
–> Headaches
–> Blurred vision
–> Halos around lights, particularly at night
–> optic disc cupping

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24
Q

What are the investigations for open angle glaucoma?

A

–> Goldmann applanation tonometry for the intraocular pressure
–> Slit lamp assessment for the cup-disk ratio and optic nerve health
–> Visual field assessment for peripheral vision loss
–> Gonioscopy to assess the angle between the iris and cornea
–> Central corneal thickness assessment

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25
Q

What are the fundoscopy signs of open angle glaucoma?

A

–> Optic disc cupping - cup-to-disc ratio >0.7 (normal = 0.4-0.7), occurs as loss of disc substance makes optic cup widen and deepen
–> Optic disc pallor - indicating optic atrophy
–> Bayonetting of vessels - vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and re-appear at the base
–> Additional features - Cup notching (usually inferior where vessels enter disc), Disc haemorrhages

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26
Q

What is the management of open angle glaucoma?

A

–> 360° selective laser trabeculoplasty - laser is directed at the trabecular meshwork, improving drainage. It may delay or prevent the need for eye drops. A second procedure may be necessary at a later date.
–> Prostaglandin analogue eye drops (latanoprost) - first line medical management - increases uveoscleral outflow
–> beta-blockers (timolol) - reduce the production of aqueous humour
–> carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (dorzoloamide/ azetazolomaide) - reduces the production of aqueous humour
–> Sympathomimetics (e.g., brimonidine) reduce the production of aqueous fluid and increase the uveoscleral outflow
–> miotics - pilocarpine - increase iveoscral outflow

–> Trabeculectomy surgery may be required where other treatments are ineffective. This involves creating a new channel from the anterior chamber through the sclera to a location under the conjunctiva, causing a bleb on the conjunctiva. From here, it is reabsorbed into the general circulation.

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27
Q

What are the side effects of prostaglandin eyedrops such as latanoprost?

A

–> eyelash growth
–> eyelid pigmentation
–> iris pigmenetation (browning)

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28
Q

What is age related macular degeneration?

A

–> progressive condition affecting the macula
–> most common cause of blindness in the UK
–> often unilateral but can be bilateral
–> two types - Wet (also called neovascular), accounting for 10% of cases/ Dry (also called non-neovascular), accounting for 90% of cases

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29
Q

Where is the macula and what does it do?

A

–> centre of retina
–> generates high-definition colour vision in the central visual field, has four layers

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30
Q

What are the four layers of the macula?

A

–> Choroid layer (at the base), which contains the blood vessels that supply the macula
–> Bruch’s membrane
–> Retinal pigment epithelium
–> Photoreceptors (towards the surface)

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31
Q

what are Drusen findings in age-related macular degeneration?

A

–> Drusen are yellowish deposits of protein and lipids
–> between retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane
–> few small Drusen normal in elderly, larger and frequent can be an early sign of macular degeenration

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32
Q

What are the risk factors of age-related macular degeneration?

A

–> older age
–> smoking
–> family history
–> cardiovascular disease (hypertension)
–> obeisty
–> poor diet (low in vitamins and high in fats)

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33
Q

What are the two types of macular degeneration and what are the characteristics of each?

A

–> Dry macular degeneration
- 90% of cases
- also known as atrophic
- characterised by Drusen - yellow round spots in Bruch’s membrane
–> Wet macular degeneration
- 10% of cases
- also known as exudative or neovascular macular degeneration caused by vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
- characterised by choroidal neovascularisation
- leakage of serous fluid can result in rapid loss of vision
- carries the worst prognosis

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34
Q

What is the presentation of age related macular degeneration?

A

Visual changes associated with AMD tend to be unilateral, with:

Gradual loss of central vision
Reduced visual acuity
Crooked or wavy appearance to straight lines (metamorphopsia)
Patients often present with a gradually worsening ability to read small text.

Wet AMD presents more acutely than dry AMD. Vision loss can develop within days and progress to complete vision loss within 2-3 years. It often progresses to bilateral disease.

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35
Q

How do you differentiate between glaucoma and age related macular degeneration

A

Glaucoma is associated with peripheral vision loss and halos around lights. AMD is associated with central vision loss and a wavy appearance to straight lines. This helps you tell them apart in exams.

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36
Q

What are the signs seen in age related macular degneration?

A

–> distortion of line perception may be noted on Amsler grid testing
–> fundoscopy reveals the presence of drusen, yellow areas of pigment deposition in the macular area, which may become confluent in late disease to form a macular scar.
–> in wet ARMD well demarcated red patches may be seen which represent intra-retinal or sub-retinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage.

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37
Q

What are the investigations for age related macular degeneration?

A

Key findings on examination are:

–> Reduced visual acuity using a Snellen chart
–> Scotoma (an enlarged central area of vision loss)
–> Amsler grid test can be used to assess for the distortion of straight lines seen in AMD
–> Drusen may be seen during fundoscopy

–> Slit lamp examination gives a detailed view of the retina and macula.

–> Optical coherence tomography gives a cross-sectional view of the layers of the retina and is used for diagnosing and monitoring AMD.

–> Fluorescein angiography involves giving a fluorescein contrast and photographing the retina to assess the blood supply, showing oedema and neovascularisation in wet AMD.

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38
Q

What is the managment of age related macular degeneration?

A

Patients with suspected AMD require specialist ophthalmology assessment and management.

There is no specific treatment for dry AMD. Management involves monitoring and reducing the risk of progression by:

Avoiding smoking
Controlling blood pressure
Vitamin supplementation has some evidence in slowing progression

Anti-VEGF medications are used to treat wet AMD (not dry AMD). Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) stimulates the development of new blood vessels in the retina. Anti-VEGF medications (e.g., ranibizumab, aflibercept and bevacizumab) block VEGF and slow the development of new vessels. They are injected directly into the vitreous chamber of the eye (intravitreal), usually about once a month.

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39
Q

What is diabetic retinopathy?

A

damage to the retinal blood vessels due to prolonged high blood sugar levels

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40
Q

What is the pathophysiology of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Hyperglycaemia (high blood sugar) damages the retinal small vessels and endothelial cells.

Increased vascular permeability leads to leaking blood vessels, blot haemorrhages and hard exudates. Hard exudates are yellow-white deposits of lipids and proteins in the retina.

Damage to the blood vessel walls leads to microaneurysms and venous beading. Microaneurysms are small bulges in the blood vessel walls. Venous beading is where the walls of the veins are no longer straight and parallel and look more like a string of beads or sausages.

Damage to nerve fibres in the retina causes fluffy white patches called cotton wool spots to form on the retina.

Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA) refer to dilated and tortuous capillaries in the retina. These can act as a shunt between the arterial and venous vessels in the retina.

Neovascularisation involves the release of growth factors in the retina, stimulating new blood vessel development.

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41
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy graded?

A

Diabetic retinopathy is graded based on the findings on fundus examination:

Background – microaneurysms, retinal haemorrhages, hard exudates and cotton wool spots

Pre-proliferative – venous beading, multiple blot haemorrhages and intraretinal microvascular abnormality (IMRA)
Proliferative – neovascularisation and vitreous haemorrhage

Diabetic maculopathy also exists separately and involves:
Exudates within the macula
Macular oedema

The key feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the development of new blood vessels (neovascularisation).

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42
Q

What are the three main classifications of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy.

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43
Q

What is the defining feature of mild non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR)?

A

The presence of one or more microaneurysms.

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44
Q

What additional features are seen in moderate NPDR compared to mild NPDR?

A

Microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots (retinal infarction), venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA) less severe than in severe NPDR.

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45
Q

What criteria define severe NPDR?

A

Blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms in 4 quadrants.
Venous beading in at least 2 quadrants.
Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA) in at least 1 quadrant.

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46
Q

What is the hallmark feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)?

A

Retinal neovascularisation, which can lead to vitreous haemorrhage.

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47
Q

What other key features are associated with PDR besides retinal neovascularisation?

A

Fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc and a higher prevalence in Type 1 diabetes mellitus, with a 50% chance of blindness within 5 years.

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48
Q

What are the characteristic features of diabetic maculopathy?

A

Hard exudates and other background changes on the macula, with visual acuity needing to be checked.

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49
Q

Which type of diabetes is maculopathy more commonly associated with?

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

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50
Q

Why is maculopathy considered potentially serious in diabetic retinopathy?

A

Because it affects the macula, which is critical for central vision.

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51
Q

What are the complications of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Vision loss
Retinal detachment
Vitreous haemorrhage (bleeding into the vitreous humour)
Rubeosis iridis (new blood vessel formation in the iris) – this can lead to neovascular glaucoma
Optic neuropathy
Cataracts

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52
Q

What is the mangement of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy requires close monitoring and careful diabetic control.

Treatment options for proliferative diabetic retinopathy are:

Pan-retinal photocoagulation (PRP) – extensive laser treatment across the retina to suppress new vessels
Anti-VEGF medications by intravitreal injection e.g., ranibizumab
Surgery (e.g., vitrectomy) may be required in severe disease

An intravitreal implant containing dexamethasone is an option for macular oedema.

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53
Q

What is cataracts?

A

Cataracts describe a progressively opaque eye lens, which reduces the light entering the eye and visual acuity.

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54
Q

What are the risk factors of cataracts?

A

Increasing age
Smoking
Alcohol
Diabetes
Steroids
Hypocalcaemia

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55
Q

What is the presentation of cataracts?

A

Patients typically present with a gradual onset of:
Reduced vision
Faded colour vision: making it more difficult to distinguish different colours
Glare: lights appear brighter than usual
Halos around lights

Signs:
A Defect in the red reflex: the red reflex is essentially the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Cataracts will prevent light from getting to the retina, hence you see a defect in the red reflex.

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56
Q

What are the investigations for cataracts?

A

Ophthalmoscopy: done after pupil dilation. Findings: normal fundus and optic nerve
Slit-lamp examination. Findings: visible cataract

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57
Q

What is the management of cataracts?

A

No intervention may be necessary if the symptoms are manageable.

Cataract surgery involves drilling and breaking the lens to pieces, removing the pieces and implanting an artificial lens. It can be performed as a day case under local anaesthetic and generally gives good results.

Cataracts can prevent the detection of other pathology, such as macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy, which can become apparent after surgery. Therefore, they may still have reduced visual acuity after the cataract is treated.

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58
Q

What are the potential complications after cataracts surgery?

A

Complications following surgery
Posterior capsule opacification: thickening of the lens capsule
Retinal detachment
Posterior capsule rupture
Endophthalmitis: inflammation of aqueous and/or vitreous humour

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59
Q

What is blepharitis?

A

inflammation of the eyelid margins

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60
Q

What causes blepharitis?

A

–> Meibomian gland dysfunction - which secrete oil onto the eye surface to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film
–> RARE - subhorrhoeic dermatitis
–> RARE - staphylococcal infection

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61
Q

What is the presentation of blepharitis?

A

–> symptoms are usually bilateral
–> grittiness and discomfort, particularly around the eyelid margins
–> eyes may be sticky in the morning
–> eyelid margins may be red. Swollen eyelids may be seen in staphylococcal blepharitis
–> styes and chalazions are more common in patients with blepharitis
secondary conjunctivitis may occur

62
Q

What is the management of blepharitis?

A

–> softening of the lid margin using hot compresses twice a day

–> ‘lid hygiene’ - mechanical removal of the debris from lid margins
cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo is often used
an alternative is sodium bicarbonate, a teaspoonful in a cup of cooled water that has recently been boiled

–> artificial tears may be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film

63
Q

What are the two groups of infections that can cause styes?

A

–> Hordeolum externum
–> Hordeolum internum

64
Q

Whats hordeolum exterum?

A

–> infection of the glands of Zeis or glands of Moll. The glands of Moll are sweat glands at the base of the eyelashes. The glands of Zeis are sebaceous glands at the base of the eyelashes. A stye causes a tender red lump along the eyelid that may contain pus.

65
Q

What is hordeolum internum?

A

Hordeolum internum is infection of the Meibomian glands. They are deeper, tend to be more painful and may point inwards towards the eyeball underneath the eyelid.

66
Q

What is the managment for styes?

A

Styes are treated with hot compresses and analgesia. Topical antibiotics (e.g., chloramphenicol) may be considered if it is associated with conjunctivitis or if symptoms are persistent.

67
Q

What is a chalazion and how does it present?

A

–> Meibomian gland becomes blocked and swells
–> presents with a swelling in the eyelid that is typically non tender

68
Q

What is the treatment of a Chalazion?

A

warm compresses and gentle massage towards the eyelashes (to encourage drainage). Rarely, surgical drainage may be required.

69
Q

What is entropion?

A

Entropion refers to when the eyelid turns inwards with the lashes pressed against the eye.

70
Q

What can entropion cause?

A

–> pain
–> coreneal damage
–> ulceration

71
Q

What is the management of entropion?

A

Initial management is by taping the eyelid down to prevent it from turning inwards. Definitive management is surgical. A same-day referral to ophthalmology is required if there is a risk to sight.

When the eyelid is taped down, it is essential to prevent the eye from drying out by using regular lubricating eye drops.

72
Q

What is ectropion?

A

Ectropion refers to when the eyelid turns outwards, exposing the inner aspect.

73
Q

What is a complication of ectropion?

A

This can result in exposure keratopathy, as the eyeball is exposed and not adequately lubricated and protected.

74
Q

What is the treatment of ectropion?

A

Mild cases may not require treatment. Regular lubricating eye drops are used to protect the surface of the eye. More significant cases may require surgery to correct the defect. A same-day referral to ophthalmology is required if there is a risk to sight.

75
Q

What is trichiasis?

A

Trichiasis refers to inward growth of the eyelashes

76
Q

What does trichiasis cause?`

A

–> corneal damage and ulceration

77
Q

What is the management of trichiasis?

A

Management involves removing the affected eyelashes. Recurrent cases may require electrolysis, cryotherapy or laser treatment to prevent them from regrowing. A same-day referral to ophthalmology is required if there is a risk to sight.

78
Q

What is periorbital cellulitis?

A

Periorbital cellulitis (also known as preseptal cellulitis) is an eyelid and skin infection in front of the orbital septum (in front of the eye).

79
Q

What are some common causative agents of perioribtal cellulitis?

A

–> Staph. aureus
–> Staph. epidermidis
–> streptococci

80
Q

What is the presentation for someone with periorbital cellulitis?

A

Symptoms
The patient presents with a red, swollen, painful eye of acute onset. They are likely to have symptoms associated with fever.

Signs
Erythema and oedema of the eyelids, which can spread onto the surrounding skin
Partial or complete ptosis of the eye due to swelling
Orbital signs (pain on movement of the eye, restriction of eye movements, proptosis, visual disturbance, chemosis, RAPD) must be absent in preseptal cellulitis - their presence would indicate orbital cellulitis

81
Q

What are some significant differentials of preorbital cellulitis?

A

Orbital cellulitis
Allergic reaction

82
Q

What are the investigation for pre-orbital cellulitis?

A

–> Bloods - raised inflammatory markers
–> Swab of any discharge present
–> Contrast CT of the orbit may help to differentiate between preseptal and orbital cellulitis. It should be performed in all patients suspected to have orbital cellulitis

83
Q

What is the management of pre-orbital cellulitis?

A

All cases should be referred to secondary care for assessment
Oral antibiotics are frequently sufficient - usually co-amoxiclav
Children may require admission for observation

84
Q

What are the complications of pre-orbital cellulitis?

A

Bacterial infection may spread into the orbit and evolve into orbital cellulitis

85
Q

What is orbital cellulitis?

A

Orbital cellulitis is the result of an infection affecting the fat and muscles posterior to the orbital septum, within the orbit but not involving the globe

MEDICAL EMERGENCY - hospital admission needed

86
Q

What usually causes oribtal cellulitis?

A

spreading upper respiratory tract infection from the sinuses and carries a high mortality rate

87
Q

What are the risk factors for orbital cellulitis?

A

–> Childhood - Mean age of hospitalisation 7-12 years
–> Previous sinus infection
–> Lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination
–> Recent eyelid infection/ insect bite on eyelid (periorbital cellulitis)
–> Ear or facial infection

88
Q

What is the presentation of oribtal cellulitis?

A

–> Redness and swelling around the eye
–> Severe ocular pain
–> Visual disturbance
–> Proptosis
–> Ophthalmoplegia/pain with eye movements
–> Eyelid oedema and ptosis
–> Drowsiness +/- Nausea/vomiting in meningeal involvement (Rare)

89
Q

How do you differentiate between orbital and peri-oribtal cellulitis?

A

reduced visual acuity, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia/pain with eye movements are NOT consistent with preseptal cellulitis

90
Q

What are the investigations for orbital cellulitis?

A

Full blood count - WBC elevated, raised inflammatory markers.
Clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment - Decreased vision, afferent pupillary defect, proptosis, dysmotility, oedema, erythema.
CT with contrast - Inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum, sinusitis.
Blood culture and microbiological swab to determine the organism. Most common bacterial causes - Streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae B.

91
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of orbital cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae B.

92
Q

What is the management of orbital cellulitis?

A

admission to hospital for IV antibiotics

93
Q

What does the central retinal artery branch off from?

A

–> opthalmic artery –> branch of internal carotid

94
Q

What are the causes of central retinal vein occlusion

A

The most common cause is atherosclerosis. It can also be caused by giant cell arteritis, where vasculitis affecting the ophthalmic or central retinal artery reduces blood flow.

95
Q

What are the risk factors for central retinal venin occlusion?

A

Risk factors for cardiovascular disease (e.g., smoking, hypertension, diabetes and raised cholesterol) increase the risk of atherosclerosis causing central retinal artery occlusion.

Risk factors for giant cell arteritis are white ethnicity, older age, female and polymyalgia rheumatica.

96
Q

What is the presentation of central retinal artery occlusion?

A

–> sudden, painless unilateral visual loss
–> relative afferent pupillary defect (pupils react differently to light when shone in each eye)
–> ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina (fundoscopy)

97
Q

What are the key differentials for a sudden painless vision loss?

A

–> Retinal detachment
–> central retinal artery occlusion
–> Central retinal vein occlusion
–> Vitreous haemorrhage (Due to diabetic retinopathy)
–> amaurosis fugax

98
Q

What is the management of central retinal artery occlusion?

A

–> Management is difficult and the prognosis is poor
any underlying conditions should be identified and treated (e.g. intravenous steroids for temporal arteritis)
–> if a patient presents acutely then Intraarterial thrombolysis may be attempted but currently, trials show mixed results.

99
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

–> inflammation of the conjunctiva
–> may be bacterial viral or allergic

100
Q

What is the conjunctiva?

A

–> thin layer of tissue that covers the inside of the eyelids and the sclera

101
Q

What is the presentation of conjuncitivits?

A

–> Red bloodshot eye
–> itchy or gritty sensation
–> Discharge
–> no pain/ photophobia/ reduced visual acuity
–> Bacterial - purulent discharge worse in the morning and highly contagious
–>Viral - more common - clear discahrge - dry cough, sore throat, blocked nose, tender pre-auricular lymph nodes, contagious

102
Q

What are the cuases of an acute painful red eye?

A

Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Anterior uveitis
Scleritis
Corneal abrasions or ulceration
Keratitis
Foreign body
Traumatic or chemical injury

103
Q

What are the causes of an acute painless red eye?

A

–> Conjunctivitis
–> Episcleritis
–> Subconjunctival haemorrhage

104
Q

What are the common bacterial causative organisms in infective conjunctivitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

105
Q

What are the common causative virusses in infective conjunctivitis?

A

Adenovirus (most common)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
Enterovirus

106
Q

What is the management of infective conjunctivitis?

A

–> normally a self-limiting condition that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks
–> topical antibiotic therapy is commonly offered to patients, e.g. Chloramphenicol. Chloramphenicol drops are given 2-3 hourly initially where as chloramphenicol ointment is given qds initially
–> topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. Treatment is twice daily
–> contact lens should not be worn during an episode of conjunctivitis
–> advice should be given not to share towels
–> school exclusion is not necessary

107
Q

What is allergic conjuncitivitis?

A

–> Ocular inflammatory condition triggered by an immune response to various environmental allrgens eg pollen

108
Q

What is the pathophysiology of allergic conjunctiviits?

A

–> type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
–> initial exposure - sesnitisation of mast cells
–> re-exposure release infalmmatory mediators - histamines, prostaglandins, leukotrines
–> Cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability and recruitment of eosinophils
–> clinical manifesatation of allergic conjuncitvitis

109
Q

What are the clinical features of allergic conjunctivitis?

A

–> Bilateral ocular itching and redness
–> Watery or stringy, mucoid discharge
–> Conjunctival chemosis and hyperemia
–> Eyelid oedema and erythema
–> Tearing and photophobia

The severity and duration of symptoms may vary depending on the type of allergic conjunctivitis, which can be categorized as seasonal, perennial, vernal, or atopic.

110
Q

What is the management of allergic conjunctivitis?

A

The management of allergic conjunctivitis aims to alleviate symptoms and reduce exposure to allergens. Treatment approaches include:

–> Allergen avoidance: Encourage patients to minimize exposure to known allergens.
–> Basic eye care:
- avoid rubbing eyes as this may cause mast cell degranulation
- cool compresses
–> Pharmacotherapy:
- Topical antihistamines: e.g. olopatadine, ketotifen
- Topical mast cell stabilizers: e.g. sodium cromoglicate, nedocromil
- Topical corticosteroids: Reserved for severe cases and used under close supervision due to potential side effects
–> Immunotherapy: Allergen-specific immunotherapy may be considered in cases of moderate to severe allergic conjunctivitis that are unresponsive to conventional treatment.

111
Q

What is Keratitis?

A

inflammation of the cornea

112
Q

What are the causes of keratitis?

A

–> bacterial
- typically Staphylococcus aureus
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa is seen in contact lens wearers
–> fungal
–> amoebic
- acanthamoebic keratitis
accounts for around 5% of cases
increased incidence if eye exposure to soil or contaminated water
- pain is classically out of proportion to the findings
–> parasitic: onchocercal keratitis (‘river blindness’)
–> viral: herpes simplex keratitis
environmental
–> photokeratitis: e.g. welder’s arc eye
–> exposure keratitis
–> contact lens acute red eye (CLARE)

113
Q

What are the clinical features of keratitis?

A

–> red eye: pain and erythema
–> photophobia
–> foreign body, gritty sensation
–> hypopyon may be seen - (white blood cells pool in the anterior chamber

114
Q

How is an assessment carried out for keratitis?

A
  • contact lens wearers
    assessing contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye is difficult
    an accurate diagnosis can only usually be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis
115
Q

What is the management of keratitis?

A

stop using contact lens until the symptoms have fully resolved
topical antibiotics
typically quinolones are used first-line
cycloplegic for pain relief
e.g. cyclopentolate

116
Q

What are the complications of keratitis?

A

corneal scarring
perforation
endophthalmitis
visual loss

117
Q

What is the most common cause of Keratitis?

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

118
Q

Which part of the cornea does Herpes Simplex keratitis affect?

A

Only the epithelial layer of the cornea

119
Q

What is Stromal keratitis?

A

Inflammation between the epithelium and endothelium of the cornea

120
Q

What are the complications of Stromal keratitis?

A

stromal necrosis, vascularisation and scarring and can lead to corneal blindness.

121
Q

What is the presentation of herpes keratitis?

A

–> Herpes simplex keratitis most commonly presents with a dendritic corneal ulcer.

–> Primary infection often involves mild symptoms of blepharoconjunctivitis (inflammation of the eyelid margins and conjunctiva).

Recurrent infection may present with:

Painful red eye
Photophobia
Vesicles (fluid-filled blisters)
Foreign body sensation
Watery discharge - epiphora
Reduced visual acuity

122
Q

What are the investigations for herpes keratitis?

A

Slit lamp examination is required to diagnose keratitis. Fluorescein staining shows a dendritic corneal ulcer. Dendritic describes the branching appearance of the ulcer.

–> Corneal scrapings can be used for viral testing.

123
Q

What is the management of herpes keratitis?

A

immediate referral to an ophthalmologist
topical aciclovir

124
Q

What is anterior Uveitis?

A

Inflammation of the anterior Uvea - Iris, ciliary body and choroid

125
Q

What does the Uvea consist of?

A

–> Iris
–> Cilliary body
–> Choroid - layer between the retina and sclera

126
Q

What are the causes of anterior uveitis?

A

An autoimmune process usually causes it, but it can be due to infection, trauma, ischaemia or malignancy

127
Q

What are the associations of anterior uveitis?

A

–> Associated with HLA-B27 conditions
–> ankylosing spondylitis
–> reactive arthritis
–> ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease
–> Behcet’s disease
–> sarcoidosis: bilateral disease may be seen

128
Q

What is the presentation of anterior uveitis?

A

Anterior uveitis may present with symptoms of:

–> Painful red eye (typically a dull, aching pain)
–> Reduced visual acuity
–> Photophobia (due to ciliary muscle spasm)
–> Excessive lacrimation (tear production)

Examination findings include:

–> Ciliary flush (a ring of red spreading from the cornea outwards)
–> Miosis (a constricted pupil due to sphincter muscle contraction)
–> Abnormally shaped pupil due to posterior synechiae (adhesions) pulling the iris into abnormal shapes
–> Hypopyon (inflammatory cells collected as a white fluid in the anterior chamber)

129
Q

What is the management of anterior uveitis?

A

urgent review by ophthalmology
cycloplegics (dilates the pupil which helps to relieve pain and photophobia) e.g. Atropine, cyclopentolate
steroid eye drops

130
Q

What do cycloplegic eye drops do?

A

Cycloplegics dilate the pupil and reduce pain associated with ciliary spasm. Cycloplegic refers to paralysing the ciliary muscles.

Cyclopentolate and atropine are antimuscarinic drugs that reduce the action of the iris sphincter muscles and ciliary muscles.

131
Q

What are the causes of optic neuritis?

A

–> multiple sclerosis: the commonest associated disease
–> diabetes
–> syphilis

132
Q

What is optic neuritis?

A

any condition that causes inflammation of the optic nerve

133
Q

What are the features of optic neuritis?

A

–> unilateral decrease in visual acuity over hours or days
–> poor discrimination of colours, ‘red desaturation’
–> pain worse on eye movement
–> relative afferent pupillary defect
–> central scotoma

134
Q

What is the investigation for optic neuritis?

A

MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is diagnostic in most cases

135
Q

What is the management of optic neuritis?

A

high-dose steroids
recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks

136
Q

What is the prognosis of optic neuritis?

A

MRI: if > 3 white-matter lesions, 5-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is c. 50%

137
Q

What is scleritis?

A

–> Scleritis describes full-thickness inflammation of the sclera.
–> It generally has a non-infective cause
–> typically causes a red, painful eye.

138
Q

What are the risk factors/associations of scleritis?

A

–> rheumatoid arthritis: the most commonly associated condition
–> systemic lupus erythematosus
–> sarcoidosis
–> Vasculitis - granulomatosis with polyangiitis

139
Q

What are the features of scleritis?

A

–> red eye
–> classically painful (in comparison to episcleritis), but sometimes only mild pain/discomfort is present
–> watering and photophobia are common
–> gradual decrease in vision

140
Q

What is the management of scleritis?

A

–> same-day assessment by an ophthalmologist
–> oral NSAIDs are typically used first-line
–> oral glucocorticoids may be used for more severe presentations
–> immunosuppressive drugs for resistant cases (and also to treat any underlying associated diseases)

141
Q

What is episcleritis?

A

Benign and self-limiting inflammation of the episclera, the outermost layer of the sclera, just below the conjunctiva.

142
Q

What is episcleritis caused by?

A

It is often associated with inflammatory disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease. It is not usually caused by infection.

143
Q

What is the presentation of episcleritis?

A

Episcleritis usually presents with acute-onset unilateral features:

–> Localised or diffuse redness (often a patch of redness in the lateral sclera)
–> No pain (or mild pain)
–> Dilated episcleral vessels

Importantly, there is no photophobia or discharge and normal visual acuity (these symptoms suggest scleritis).

Applying phenylephrine eye drops helps differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis. It will cause blanching of the episcleral vessels, causing the redness to disappear. It will not affect scleral vessels and will not impact the redness in scleritis.

144
Q

What can help differentiate scleritis and episcleritis?

A

–> There is no photophobia or discharge and normal visual acuity (these symptoms suggest scleritis).

–> Applying phenylephrine eye drops helps differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis. It will cause blanching of the episcleral vessels, causing the redness to disappear. It will not affect scleral vessels and will not impact the redness in scleritis.

145
Q

What is the management of episcleritis?

A

Episcleritis is usually self-limiting and will resolve in 1-2 weeks. In mild cases, no treatment is necessary. Symptoms may be relieved with analgesia (e.g., ibuprofen) and lubricating eye drops. More severe cases may be treated with steroid eye drops.

146
Q

Who is affected by thyroid eye disease?

A

Thyroid eye disease affects between 25-50% of patients with Graves’ disease.

147
Q

What is the pathophysiology of thyroid eye disease?

A

–> autoimmune response to TSH receptor
–> retro-orbital inflammation
–> results in glycosaminoglycan and collagen deposits in muscles

148
Q

What are the key factors in the prevention of thyroid eye disease?

A

–> Smoking is the most important modifiable risk factor.
–> Radioiodine treatment may increase inflammatory symptoms, with around 15% of Graves’ disease patients developing or worsening eye disease.
–> Prednisolone may help reduce the risk.

149
Q

What are the features of thyroid eye disease?

A

–> exophthalmos
–> conjunctival oedema
–> optic disc swelling
–> ophthalmoplegia
–> inability to close the eyelids may lead to sore, dry eyes. If severe and untreated patients can be at risk of exposure keratopathy

150
Q

What is the management of thyroid eye disease?

A

–> Smoking cessation
–> Topical lubricants may be needed to help prevent corneal inflammation caused by exposure
–> Steroids
–> radiotherapy
–> surgery

151
Q

What are the complications of thyroid eye disease?

A

–> Exposure keratopathy - most common
due to eyelid retraction and proptosis (exophthalmos) → cornea becomes excessively exposed, disrupting the normal tear film → dryness, irritation, and corneal ulceration
symptoms include foreign body sensation, pain, and photophobia
in severe cases, it can lead to corneal scarring and vision impairment.

–> Optic neuropathy
one of the most serious complications of thyroid eye disease
occurs when enlarged extraocular muscles compress the optic nerve at the apex of the orbit → a reduction in visual acuity, colour vision deficits, and visual field defect
it requires urgent medical intervention to prevent permanent vision loss.

–> Strabismus and diplopia
fibrosis and enlargement of the extraocular muscles can result in restrictive strabismus → misalignment of the eyes → double vision (diplopia)

152
Q
A