OPT Model Flashcards
What are the 5 Phases of the OPT Model?
Phase 1 - Stabilization Endurance Phase 2 - Strength Endurance Phase 3 - Hypertrophy Phase 4 - Maximal Strength Phase 5 - Power
What should the amount or reps be for Phase 1 - Stabilization Endurance?
10-20 reps
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Select one:
a. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
b. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
c. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
d. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
b. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
Select one:
a. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
c. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
d. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
b. 1 set, 10-15 reps 3-10 exercises
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Select one:
a. Instrumental support
b. Informational support
c. Companionship support
d. Emotional support
a. Instrumental Support
What is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax)
What are examples of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Gluteal complex
Quadratus lumborum
Obliques
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Select one:
a. Stretching phase
b. Explosive-shortening phase
c. Muscular-power phase
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
a. reducing burnout
b. providing psychological benefits
c. developing intrinsic motivation
d. winning a triathlon
b. Providing Psychological benefits
Which of the following is a keytone body?
a. Glycogen
b. Pyruvate
c. Acetoacetic acid
d. Lactic acid
c. Acetoacetic acid
What types of motion should Stage 3 balance exercises include?
Select one:
a. Little motion
b. No motion
c. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion
d. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
d. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:
a. Eccentric contraction
b. Lengthening reaction
c. Isometric contraction
d. Stretch reflex
d. stretch reflex
Circuit training is best described as what?
Select one:
a. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement
b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
c. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements
d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch
b. A full body program that incorporates high intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Select one:
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Upper trapezius
c. Rhomboids
d. Diaphragm
a. Sternocleidomastoid
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine:
Select one:
a. Decreased lordosis
b. Increased lordosis
c. Decreased kyphosis
d. Increased kyphosis
b. Increased lordosis
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?
Select one:
a. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
b. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
c. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
d. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium
b. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Select one:
a. Osteokinematics
b. Kinesiology
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Biomechanics
a. Osteokinematics
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Select one:
a. Peripheral resistance
b. Venous pooling
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
d. Valsalva maneuver
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
What are the building blocks of proteins?
Essential and non-essential amino acids
What are ground reaction forces?
Select one:
a. The force of gravity
b. Deceleration forces in the muscles
c. Forces used by the muscles during a jump
d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Select one:
a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c, Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
Isometric
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
Select one:
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
a. isokinetic
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
Feed-forward
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
a. kettlebells
b. BOSU balls
c. Medicine balls
d. Strength machines
c. medicine balls
Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which barrier?
Lack of time
What is Magnesium classified as?
Macromineral
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves what function?
it replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance
Which assessment should be conducted first to preserve its validity?
Body Composition
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a truck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Select one:
a. Being more explosive
b. Increasing speed
c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
d. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
Adding a stabilization pause between reps
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon what?
Select one:
a. Absent stretch reflex
b. Rapid amortization phase
c. Prolonged amortization phase
d. Release of stored energy during concentric phase
Rapid amortization phase
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?
Informational support
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help decrease stress to the lower back?
Hip extension
What would the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 rep at 225 lbs?
6,750 lbs
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Platelets
Which of the following variations of hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
a. multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
b. multiplanar hop with stabilization
c. single-leg hop forward
d. multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
a. multiplanar single leg box hop-down with stabilization
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Select one:
a. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
b. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
Aprox. what % of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
0.6
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Select one:
a. Force production
b. Functional movement
c. Motor unit recruitment
d. Tissue overload
Tissue overload
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Multifidus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Iliopsoas
Multifidus
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the Eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds
What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation “muscular strength and hypertrophy” fall into?
Muscular development
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:
a. Muscle imbalance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Length-tension relationship
Reciprocal Inhibition
What is a very important prenatal vitamin?
Folate
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
a. The exercise is intense
b. The exercise is continuous in nature
c. The exercise is rhythmic
d. The exercise targets large muscle groups
a. The exercise is intense
What is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Health Risk Assessment
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
Select one:
a. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training
b. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals
c. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA
d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and Progression
When a client’s heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
a. Somatic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
Plant foods and dairy
What is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble board
The goal of a Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?
Select one:
a. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities
b. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2
c. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
d. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells
Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
Core stability is best described as what?
Select one:
a. The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance
b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
c. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine
d. The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension
b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
45-60% of total calories
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
a. stabilization of the LPHC
b. a faster tempo, similar to daily life
c. slow and controlled movements
d. use of heavy weights
b. a faster tempo, similar to daily life
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Select one:
a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
b. Adductor complex (inner thighs)
c. Hip flexors
d. Upper trapezius
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and Medius
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
a. moving a grocery cart
b. getting in and out of the car
c. raking leaves
d. cleaning
cleaning
What is plyometric training also known as?
Select one:
a. Strength training
b. Resistance training
c. Reactive training
d. Stability training
Reactive Training
What is the primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?
A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
Flexibility is defined as what?
Select one:
a. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
c. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
d. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
How many B vitamins are there?
8
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
b. Increased lipogenesis
c. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
d. Increased lipolysis
d. Increased lipolysis
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?
a. Dumbbell and medicine ball
b. ViPR and sandbag
c. TRX suspension and ViPR
d. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR
b. ViPR and sandbag
One of the two independent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
Peripheral nervous system
Where is the location of the chest skinfold for men to be performed?
Select one:
a. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
b. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
c. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexors
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
a. 135/80 mm Hg
b. 118/78 mm Hg
c. 143/92 mm Hg
d. 124/80 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
What scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
Select one:
a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
c. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
4-2-1-1
Proprioception is best described as what?
Select one:
a. The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
b. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
c. Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion
d. The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement
b. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
Compared to water soluble vitamins, what is true about fat soluble vitamins?
Select one:
a. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.
b. Fat soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body
What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success?
A. A SWOT analysis
B. Building rapport
C. A unique selling proposition (USP)
D. Forecasting
A. A SWOT analysis
What muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Infraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
What is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Select one:
a. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis
b. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
c. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
d. Involves training multiple styles each week
c. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
A. Strength
B. Somatosensation
C. Vision
D. Vestibular senses
A. Strength
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion
c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg
d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
A. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.
B. Recommend she eat-high calorie “cheat meals” more often
C. Suggest she increase consumption of high calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza and cake
D. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals
D. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals
A client performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Select one:
a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
c. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety.
d. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.
a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrist
What client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Motivational interviewing
Which synergist would assist the upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Quadriceps
C. Triceps brachii
D. Biceps brachii
C. Triceps brachii
What is the key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Select one:
a. Proprioception
b. Motivation
c. Knowledge of results
d. Knowledge of performance
Proprioception
What component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body?
Red blood cells
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Long
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 - 60 seconds
What three joint actions comprise triple FLEXION?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0-60 seconds
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Select one:
a. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
b. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
d. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?
Ligament
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
B. An overweight client with adequate strength
C. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength
D. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvement in strength
A. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Vitamin A
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
Which protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
A. Fascicles
B. Troponin
C. Actin
D. Myosin
B. Tropinin
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the blood stream?
Hyperglycemia
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
Select one:
a. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
b. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
c. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8
d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
d. 4-6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
A. Kinesiology
B. Athrokinematics
C. Osteokinematics
D. Biomechanics
B. Athrokinematics
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
A. Box jumps
B. Depth jumps
C. Ice skaters
D. Single-leg hops
B. Depth jumps
What is the five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
What is the best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:
a. Heart rate
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Thermoregulation
d. Blood pressure
b. Peripheral vasodilation
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Posterior
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Undulating
What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
A. Somatosensory system
B. Visual system
C. Vestibular system
D. Auditory system
B. Visual system
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
A. Tricep extensions
B. Calf raises
C. Bench press
D. Back squat
D. Back squat
What is the characteristic of type 1 muscle fibers?
Type 1 fibers are “slow twitch “
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
Select one:
a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
c. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle
d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
A. Stage 4
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 5
D. Stage 3
B. Stage 2
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Pattern overload
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Select one:
a. Drop set
b. Pyramid system
c. Complex training
d. Peripheral heart action system
Peripheral heart action system
Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances?
They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model?
A. Sandbags
B. Battle ropes
C. TRX rip trainer
D. Strength machines
A. Sandbags
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
A. Stride rate
B. Assessment of visual stimuli
C. Reaction
D. Deceleration
D. Deceleration
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Sustain talk
Which vitamin is the most transient?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A
A. Vitamin C
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Select one:
a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Amortization
d. Isometric
Amortization
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in a client with PAD?
A. Low-back pain
B. Leg pain
C. Shoulder pain
D. Neck pain
B. Leg pain
Improving frontside running mechanics in associated with which of the following?
A. Less braking force
B. Less stability
C. Less speed
D. Less forward drive
A. Less breaking force
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
A. Increased ventricular filling
B. Venous pooling
C. Decreased ventricular filling
D. Decreased venous return
A. Increased ventricular filling
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Abdominals
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed a roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Select one:
a. Piriformis
b. Tensor fascia latae
c. Thoracic spine
d. Adductors
Tensor fascia latae
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
A. Multifidus
B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Erector spinae
D. Diaphragm
C. Erector spineae
What term is used to describe the concept of how functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body?
Select one:
a. Osteokinematics
b. Biomechanics
c. Regional interdependence
d. Kinesiology
Regional interdependence
Without a perceived discrepancy between the clients current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Motivation
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
A. Smaller in size
B. Slow to fatigue
C. Short-term contractions
D. Increased oxygen delivery
C. Short-term contractions
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Stabilize individual vertebral segments
b. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
c. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs
d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
A. Family
B. Exercise leader
C. The community
D. Exercise group
A. Family
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?
A. Amotivation to exercise
B. Ambivalence toward exercise
C. An influence on exercise
D. A barrier to exercise
D. A barrier to exercise
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Infraspinatus and teres minor
b. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid
c. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris
d. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae
Infraspinatus and teres minor
What is end-diastolic volume?
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
A. Pulmonary hypoplasia
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypoxia
D. Pneumonia
B. Dyspnea
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
A. Dead bug
B. Medicine ball overhead throw
C. Back extension
D. Plank
C. Back extension
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Thyroid function
Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Flexibility and joint ROM
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?
Individuals with performance goals
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
Select one:
a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
d. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:
a. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Transverse plane box jump-down b. Sagittal plane box jump-down c. Frontal plane box jump-up d. Sagittal plane box jump-up
a. Transverse plane box jump-down
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Select one: a. Single-leg dumbbell scaption b. Ball cobra c. Standing dumbbell lateral raise d. Calf raise
d. Calf raise
What are the three categories within the lipid family?
Select one:
a. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol
b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
c. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s
d. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats
b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. The ATP-PC system c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Beta-oxidation
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Atrioventricular node b. Right bundle branch c. Intercalated discs d. Sinoatrial node
d. Sinoatrial node
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Brachialis b. Biceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Stationary balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Static balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Decreased volume and intensity
b. Muscle mass atrophy
c. Body fat loss
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
c. Body fat loss
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Select one:
a. Pull the elbows into extension
b. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
c. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Knee dominance c. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt d. Knee varus
d. Knee varus
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
Select one:
a. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
b. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
c. It helps transmit the motor signal.
d. It converts ADP back to ATP.
a. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Sandbag rotational lunge b. Stability ball abdominal crunches c. Kettlebell RDL d. Cable machine single-arm row
c. Kettlebell RDL
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
Select one:
a. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Unloading phase c. Loading phase d. Amortization phase
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Deltoid b. Serratus anterior c. Rhomboids d. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Serratus anterior
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Transverse abdominis d. Rectus abdominis
c. Transverse abdominis
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Select one: a. Arterioles b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Veins
d. Veins
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Strength and stabilization b. Growth and stabilization c. Growth and volume d. Strength and volume
c. Growth and volume
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. Fitness manager b. Exercise leader c. General manager d. Certified Personal Trainer
b. Exercise leader
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Select one:
a. Helping make the exercises fun
b. Providing information on the health benefits
c. Improving their confidence for their technique
d. Helping them make a plan
b. Providing information on the health benefits
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle
d. Left ventricle
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. Osteopenia d. Osteoporosis
b. Osteoarthritis
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
b. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Transitioning of forces b. Shortening of the agonist muscle c. Stretching of the agonist muscle d. Stretching of the antagonist muscle
c. Stretching of the agonist muscle
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. Rockport 1-mile walk test c. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test d. YMCA 3-minute step test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion b. Hip abduction c. Knee flexion d. Ankle dorsiflexion
a. Ankle plantar flexion
The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phases 1 and 3 b. Phases 2, 3, and 4 c. Phases 1, 2, and 5 d. Phases 3, 4, and 5
c. Phases 1, 2, and 5
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium
d. Right atrium
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. Select one: a. Open-ended questions b. Reflections c. Closed-ended questions d. Active listening
b. Reflections
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Pushing test
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
a. Pushing test
What are the two components of a sarcomere? Select one: a. Muscle fiber and muscle cell b. Epimysium and endomysium c. Tropomyosin and troponin d. Actin and myosin
d. Actin and myosin
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. Duodenum of the large intestine b. Duodenum of the small intestine c. The ileum of the small intestine d. The ileum of the large intestine
b. Duodenum of the small intestine
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Gait b. Jump c. Land d. Stabilize
b. Jump
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
Select one:
a. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.
b. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.
c. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate.
d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Technique imagery b. Positive self-talk c. Energy imagery d. Appearance imagery
d. Appearance imagery
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Select one: a. Palms facing down b. Thumbs pointing down c. Palms facing each other d. Thumbs pointing up
d. Thumbs pointing up
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Pulmonary veins
c. Left atrium
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Sports drills b. Dynamic stretches c. Active stretches d. Self-myofascial techniques
d. Self-myofascial techniques
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? Select one: a. Psychological concern b. Cardiovascular precaution c. Precaution d. Contraindication
d. Contraindication
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Shoulders b. Ankles c. Spine d. Knees
c. Spine
What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Select one: a. Brachial artery b. Radial artery c. Femoral artery d. Carotid artery
a. Brachial artery
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Developmental psychology b. Health psychology c. Sport and exercise psychology d. Social psychology
c. Sport and exercise psychology
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Select one: a. Core training b. Resistance training c. Cardiorespiratory training d. Balance training
b. Resistance training
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.
b. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
c. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
d. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.
c. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Biceps brachii c. Gluteus medius d. Adductor longus
a. Quadriceps
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Select one:
a. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results
b. Any medical precautions or contraindications
c. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
d. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results
b. Any medical precautions or contraindications
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating? Select one: a. Ambiguity b. Ambivalence c. Unequivocal d. Confusion
b. Ambivalence
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
Select one:
a. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
b. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
d. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
What is acidosis in muscle?
Select one:
a. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
b. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
d. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Closed-chain movements b. Open-chain movements c. Suspended bodyweight movements d. Loaded movements
a. Closed-chain movements
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Select one:
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
c. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
d. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
b. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
d. It decreases core muscle activation.
a. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phases 2 and 3 b. Phases 4 and 5 c. Phases 3 and 4 d. Phases 1 and 3
b. Phases 4 and 5
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. A cadence of 36 steps per minute b. A cadence of 60 steps per minute c. A cadence of 112 steps per minute d. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
d. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 6 times a week b. 3 times a week c. 4 times a week d. 5 times a week
d. 5 times a week
