Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ops Knowledge > Ops Knowledge > Flashcards

Ops Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

Q. What does METHANE represent?

A
  • Major incident declared?
  • Exact location of the incident
  • Type of incident
  • Hazards
  • Access
  • Number type and severity of casualties
  • Emergency Services in attendance or required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q. What are the stages of the joint decision making model?

A
  • Gather information and intelligence
  • Assess risks and develop a working strategy
  • Consider Powers, Policies and Procedures
  • Identify Options and Contingencies
  • Take Action and Review What Happened
  • Working together saving lives Reducing Harm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q. According to JESIP, what are the principles for joint working?

A
  • Co-locate
  • Communicate
  • Co-Ordinate
  • Jointly Understand Risk
  • Shared Situational Awareness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q. What are the 4 stages of major incidents?

A
  • Initial response
  • Consolidation phase
  • Recovery phase
  • Restoration of normality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q. What does LESLP state as the definition of a Major Incident?

A

Any emergency that requires special arrangements be implemented of any of the emergency services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q. Where does LESLP state that tactical commanders will exercise their authority from?

A

Forward Command Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q. What does STAC represent?

A
  • Scientific
  • Tactical
  • Advice
  • Cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q Where an incident has pan London implications, the London Local Authority Gold structure may be invoked. Who will be involved on behalf of all London Local authorities?

A

The On call Chief executive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q. According to LESLP Strategic Co-Ordination Protocol what does the ‘P’ of ‘STEEPOLE’ represent?

A

Political

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q. What are the three levels of command within LESLP?

A
  • Operational
  • Tactical
  • Strategic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Q. Who is responsible for giving details of the casualties treated and conveyed to hospital during a major incident?

A

LAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Q. Financial regulation section 19, Disposal of assets, stipulates that disposal of surplus stores, equipment and furniture is the responsibility of the head of the respective department subject to the agreement of whom?

A

Director of finance and contractual Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q. How often are the inventories of the authority properties to be checked with the physical assest?

A

At least once each financial year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Q. The carry forward of any unspent budget between accounting years for revenue budgets is permitted, who has to approve this?

A

Members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Q. The advisory committee on dangerous Pathogens has developed four hazard groups based on their ability to infect a healthy adult human and have been assigned a numerical value. What hazard group poses the most serious risk?

A

Hazard Group 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Q. During a terrorist related incident, coordinating the emergency response is a key priority. To facilitate this, the communications network will be critical and can be achieved through what?

A

Use of the digital main scheme ‘talk groups’ reserved for inter-agency voice communications (IVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Q. Effective cordon control is paramount when dealing with IED’s. What are the general guidelines that are considered minimum cordon sizes dependent on the size of the suspect device?

A

Up to Suitcase size – more than 100m
Car/Light vehicle – more than 200m
HGV/Lorry – more than 400m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Q. Who provides national guidance and co-ordinates National Mass Fatality Planning?

A

The Home Office National preparedness planning team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Q. At a collapsed structure incident, USAR teams offer a range of specialist skills and equipment and can carry out which of the following other remits?

A

Tactical searches and shoring of unsafe structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Q. What are the 6 stages of rescue?

A 
(REPEAT)
•	Reconnaissance and Survey
•	Elimination of Utilities
•	Primary Surface search and Rescue
•	Exploration of voids and spaces
•	Access by selected debris removal
•	Terminate by general debris removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Q. What are the types of internal collapse?

A

Pancake Copllapse
Lean to Collapse
V Collapse
Tent Collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Q. What are the types of external collapse?

A

90degree Angle Collapse
Curtain Fall Collapse
Inward/Outward Collapse
Total Collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Q. In terms of dynamic risk assessment it is accepted that the operational environment mean decisions are often made in hazardous fast moving situations. The authority judges those decisions based on information that either was or should have been known at the time. What are those decisions reviewed against?

A

What was reasonable in the circumstances and whether the risks taken by fire fighters was appropriate in the circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Q. At incidents involving cylinders, the message to inform control and remote monitoring officers ‘ Cylinder Procedure Implemented’ may be sent when?

A

Once cylinders have been identified as having been directly heated, a hazard zone has been identified; crews have positioned covering jets or monitors to cool the cylinders, withdrawn from the hazard zone and a tactical mode declared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Q. Acts, which constitute Gross misconduct, are those resulting in a serious breach of contractual terms. Identify 5 key factors, which result in gross misconduct.

A

Bullying, Violence, breach of confidentiality, damage to property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Q. Grievances should be raised within what time frame of the management decision causing the grievance, unless otherwise agreed?

A

3 Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Q. What is the primary role of the ORT officer at a Performance Review of the Command (PRC)?

A

Support chair and provide consistency to the process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Q. It is the role of an ORT officer to Issue personal development plans, True or False?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Q. When considering the size of the inner cordon, what should it be large enough to contain?

A

The hazard zone and personnel / equipment involved at the scene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Q. Why should an Incident Commander appoint an Operations Commander?

A

To maintain span of control at large/complex incidents

31
Q

Q. Who has the authority to change from defensive to offensive tactics?

A

IC Unless delegated to Ops Commander

32
Q

Q. BA Main control should be considered when either (but not exclusively) of the following two conditions apply?

A

More than 1 stage 2 ECP/ Where the IC considers the number of wearers warrant additional level of control

33
Q

Q. Under what circumstances can an aerial appliance’s cage be used as a BA Entry Control Point?

A

Never

34
Q

Q. When resourcing an incident at what stage should an Incident Commander consider providing BA emergency teams?

A

Whenever BA is in use

35
Q

Q. Where should a Base Control Point be located?

A

In a protected stairwell or route

36
Q

Q When a decision to undertake an emergency evacuation is made, the IC will instigate a message outlining details to control whilst crews evacuate. What should the tactical mode be?

A

Offensive as crews are still in the hazard zone

37
Q

Q. What is the definition of a tactical withdrawal at an incident?

A

The removal of personnel from an area of potential danger in a safe and controlled manner

38
Q

Q. Who can initiate an emergency evacuation?

A

Any firefighting personnel

39
Q

Q. A Fire Fighter Emergency message is sent by the IC at an already established 12-pump fire. The DAC mobilised as part of the FFE attendance will:

A

Take responsibility for search and rescue

40
Q

Q. Random testing requires no notice to be given. What is the minimum level of manager who will be required to be in attendance at the location that the testing will take place?

A

SM/FRSE/OM

41
Q

Q What are the 3 ways frauds can be committed?

A

Fraud by dishonest representation, failing to disclose information and dishonestly abusing a position of trust

42
Q

Q. When a concern is raised under the Confidential reporting policy, what timescale is specified for a response to the individual raising the concern?

A

Within 10 days of the concern being raised

43
Q

Q. The message sent from a high rise incident which indicates ‘High Rise Procedure implemented’ can only be sent when what minimum SSOW have been put in place?

A

Bridgehead location risk assessed, and appropriate for the incident with access and egress to and from the bridgehead secured and maintained with a minimum of two jets deployed

44
Q

Q. At a High Rise incident, In which sector will the bridgehead be located?

A

Lobby Sector

45
Q

Q. In regard to use of Fire Lifts at high rise fires, where should the firefighting lift be situated once firefighting actions have commenced?

A

The lift should be taken to bridgehead level

46
Q

Q. If the Brigade Coordinating Centre (BCC) is stood up as one of the Strategic Response Arrangements who determines where the BCC should be located?

A

The duty director in conjunction with the duty AC1

47
Q

Q. Within LFB Strategic Response Arrangements who decides to instigate BCC arrangements?

A

Commissioners Group

48
Q

Q. What are the 7 core structures of the BCC?

A
  • Commissioners Group
  • Duty AC (AC1)
  • BCC
  • DAC (Brigade Coordinating Manager)
  • Gold Command Fire
  • Gold Support Team
  • Continuity Management Team
49
Q

Q. What are the four functional Cells of the BCC?

A
  • Resources
  • Planning
  • Operations
  • Communications
50
Q

Q. Adult safeguarding is built on six main principles that are used to do what?

A

Evaluate safety from and prevention of abuse or neglect with an adult’s capacity to make their own decisions

51
Q

Q. Under the safeguarding policy, an officer transmitting data to an external partner agency must?

A

Retain a record of the communication by copying in the Social Issues mailbox

52
Q

Q. What are the 4 key stages of the adult safeguarding process.?

A

Concerns
Enquiry
Safeguarding Plan and Review
Closing the Enquiry

53
Q

Q. At incidents involving wind turbines where the fire is at height or involved the nacelle, what is recommended as the initial safety cordon distance?

A

300m Diameter

54
Q

Q. When working operationally in the vicinity of live overhead conductors what is the minimum safe approach distance where you may use ground monitors?

A

30m

55
Q

Q. When is it acceptable to apply water or foam directly onto live electrical apparatus below 1000v?

A

When more appropriate extinguishing media is not available

56
Q

Q. What is the minimum safe distance to operate an aerial appliance in the vicinity of high voltage overhead cables?

A

10m

57
Q

Q. When attending an incident involving an explosion in pavement level ducting, what action should crew not undertake?

A

Remove further inspection covers to release possible built up pressure and applying a non-conducting extinguishing media

58
Q

Q. What is the minimum safe approach distance to perform a rescue in the vicinity of an electrical substation?

A

5m

59
Q

Q. In order that control can make effective plans for the movement of resources. When considering relief planning at a protracted incident, what timescales should be used as a general guide for ordering reliefs?

A

Minimum of 90 minutes with consideration for travel times and take over at the scene

60
Q

Q. Can the incident commander alter the advice Brigade Control give to FSG callers?

A

Yes but only in exceptional circumstances

61
Q

Q. When brigade control deal with FSG calls control officers will if resources allow offer the use of which dedicated radio channel?

A

M2FH Flon-Ops-01

62
Q

Q. When control deal with FSG calls, which calls take precedence over other FSG calls?

A

All FSG calls are treated with the same level of urgency however in some circumstances the officer in charge of control may order a call to be terminated to answer another call

63
Q

Q. What is the minimum setting for a firefighting jet when entering a compartment?

A

230lpm

64
Q

Q. What cordon should be established when it is identified that up to 1000kg of explosives are involved in the fire?

A

600m

65
Q

Q. Maximum storage of fireworks for domestic use for a shop is;

A

250kg in ISO container

66
Q

Q. What distance must Radios not be used within explosive material?

A

60m

67
Q

Q. The IC mobilised to an incident should consider interrogating the ORD on the MDT to establish the presence of explosives (Yankee Hazard). What will they appear as on the MDT?

A

Red Triangle with black Exclamation Mark

68
Q

Q. At any incident where there is clear information, which suggests that an adjustment to the operational procedure is required, what must be recorded?

A

The planned action with the reason and expected outcome

69
Q

Q. What is a key decision?

A

A decision or course of actions which either amends or changes current operational procedure, or which has an actual or potential significant impact on another organization, person or location

70
Q

Q Where ducting systems have electrical powered electrostatic filters or extractors, what must the IC ensure if water is to be used to extinguish the fire?

A

System must be isolated

71
Q

Q. Whilst preservation of the scene is essential to assist in identifying a cause, two operational priorities, which must be considered, are?

A

The need to ensure that the fire is fully extinguished and protecting the reputation of the authority

72
Q

Q In the event of an undeclared no notice firearms event where no safe RVP has been identified, what is the minimum distance crews must withdraw to?

A

1000m

73
Q

Q. When attending a possible MTFA incident, a multi agency risk assessment process will be undertaken, called a joint assessment of risk (JAR) to establish the hot warm and cold zones. Who is responsible for carrying out the JAR for the fire service?

A

NILO

74
Q

Q. Who has responsibility to formally declare a MTFA incident is underway?

A

Police control room

Ops Knowledge (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions