Ops A Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Accelerate-Stop Distance Available

A

The length of the take off run available plus the length of stopway capable of bearing the mass of the aeroplane.

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2
Q

Adult

A

A male or female at the age of 12 years or above.

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3
Q

Aerodrome

A

A defined area on land or water intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of an aircraft.

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4
Q

Aerodrome elevation

A

The elevation of the highest point of the landing area.

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5
Q

Air Operator Certificate

A

A certificate authorizing an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations.

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6
Q

Alerting Service

A

A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist in such organisations as required.

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7
Q

Alternate aerodrome

A

An aerodrome to which an aircraft should proceed when it become either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

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8
Q

Altitude

A

The vertical distance of a level or object measured from sea level.

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9
Q

Apron

A

A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purpose of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.

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10
Q

Aquaplaning (or hydroplaning)

A

A situation where the tires of the aircraft, to a large extent, are separated from the runway surface by a thin fluid film.

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11
Q

Braking action

A

A report of the conditions of the airport movement areas, providing pilots the quality or degree of braking that should be expected. Braking action is reported in terms of: good, medium to good, medium, medium to poor, poor, nil or unreliable.

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12
Q

Children

A

Person who are of an age of two years or above but who are less than 12 years of age.

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13
Q

Circling

A

Not an approved approach procedure. The visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.

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14
Q

Commander/PIC

A

The captain designated by the operator responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time. He may delegate the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.

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15
Q

Commercial operations

A

Flights conducted for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.

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16
Q

Contaminated runway

A

A runway is considered to be contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:

  • surface water of more than 3mm, or slush, or loose snow equivalent to 3mm of water, or
  • snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into further lumps if picked up (compacted snow), or
  • ice, including wet ice.
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17
Q

Contingency fuel

A

A quantity of fuel carried to compensate for items such as:

  • deviation of an individual aircraft from expected fuel consumption data
  • deviations from forecast meteorological conditions
  • deviations from planned routing and or cruising levels/altitudes
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18
Q

Critical phases of flight

A

Those portions of operations involving taxiing, takeoff and landing and all flight operations below 10,000ft, except cruise flight.

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19
Q

Damp runway

A

A runway is considered damp when the surface is not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.

20
Q

Dispatch

A

Dispatch is defined as the time the parking brake is released prior to commencing pushback or taxi.

21
Q

Dry runway

A

A dry runway is one which is neither wet nor contaminated, and includes those paved runways which have specifically been prepared with grooves or porous pavement and maintained to retain “effectively dry” braking action even when moisture is present.

22
Q

Elevation

A

A point as measured from sea level

23
Q

Extended over water operations

A

An operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50nm from the nearest shoreline.

24
Q

Fail-operational flight control system

A

A flight control system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically. In the event of a failure the system will operate as a fail-passive system.

25
Q

Fail-passive flight control system

A

A flight control system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation from flight path or attitude but the landing is not completed automatically. For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the pilot assumes control of the aeroplane after a failure.

26
Q

Flight control system

A

A system which includes and automatic landing system.

27
Q

Friction coefficient

A

Relationship between the friction force acting on the wheel and the normal force on the wheel. The normal force depends on the weight of the aircraft and the lift of the wings.

28
Q

Glide path

A

A descent profile determined for vertical guidance during a final approach.

29
Q

Ground visibility

A

The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by and accredited observer.

30
Q

Infant

A

A person who is less than two years of age.

31
Q

Low visibility procedures

A

Procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during CAT II and III approaches and Low Visibility Takeoffs.

32
Q

Low visibility takeoff

A

A takeoff where the RVR is less than 400m.

33
Q

Missed approach procedure

A

The procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued.

34
Q

Net flight path

A

Gross/actual takeoff flight flight path minus a mandatory reduction:
- 0.8% for two engine aircraft
- 1.0% for four engine aircraft
The net flight path needs to clear all obstacles by 35ft.

35
Q

Gross/actual flight path

A

Takeoff flight path actually flown by the aircraft.

36
Q

Night

A

The time between the end of ECT and the beginning of MCT. ECT begins when the center of the suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon. MCT begins when the center of the suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.

37
Q

Non-precision approach

A

Instrument approach with lateral guidance only. Descent limit the MDA. LOC, VOR, LDA, LOC_BC, RNP APCH down to LNAV minima are all non-precision approaches.

38
Q

Precision approach

A

Instrument approach with lateral and vertical guidance from the FAP to the runway touchdown zone, with system accuracy, integrity and obstacle clearance guaranteed until the descent limit is reached. ILS, MLS, GLS, SBAS CAT 1 and PAR are precision approaches.

39
Q

Required Navigation Performance

A

A statement of the navigation performance accuracy necessary for operations within a defined airspace.

40
Q

Slush

A

Water saturated snow which will splatter. Specific gravity of 0.5 to 0.8.

41
Q

Snow (on the ground)

A
  • Dry snow: can be blown or falls apart when released. SG of up to but not incl 0.35.
  • Wet snow: sticks together. SG of 0.35 up to but not incl 0.5
  • Compacted snow: resists further compression. SG of 0.5 or above
42
Q

Stabilized approach

A

An approach without speed of configuration changes during final approach.
1000ft IMC
500ft VMC
- On correct lateral and vertical flight path
- In desired landing config
- Thrust is stabilized and at target speed
- No excessive flight parameter deviations.

43
Q

Taxiing

A

Movement of aircraft under its own power excluding takeoff and landing.

44
Q

Visual approach

A

An approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.

45
Q

Wet runway

A

A runway is considered wet when the surface is covered with water, or equivalent, less than 3mm or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway to cause is to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.