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Ops > Ops > Flashcards

Ops Flashcards

1
Q

CAT operations involve

A

Transport for remuneration or valuable consideration

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2
Q

What ICAO annex is ops

A

Annex 6 part 1

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3
Q

Regulation (EU) no. 965/2012 concerns ops and what 5 annexes

A

Basic Regulation

Annex 1 - Part DEF. Definitions
Annex 2 - Part ARO. Authority requirements
Annex 3 - Part ORO. Operation approvals
Annex 4 - Part CAT. Commercial air transport
Annex 5 - Part SPA. Specific approvals

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4
Q

Doc 7030 is?

A

Regional supplementary procedures

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5
Q

Regulation (EU) no. 1178/2011 concerns

A

Technical requirements and admin relating to air crew

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6
Q

Flight safety document contains a minimum of

A

Ops manual

Maintenance control

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7
Q

A complex company has

A

More than 20 full time employees

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8
Q

AOC revalidation inspection every

A

24 months

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9
Q

Ops manual comprises of which parts

A

Part A - General/Basic
Part B - Operating matters - type related instructions and procedures
Part C - CAT operations - route/aerodrome instructions and info
Part D - Training instructions

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10
Q

Crew members have access to all parts of OPS manual and have personal copies of

A

Part A and Part B

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11
Q

Compliance monitoring consists of

A

Quality system and safety monitoring

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12
Q

Flight data monitoring should exist in Ac

A

Above 20,000 kg MCTOM

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13
Q

Flight data monitoring must exist in Ac

A

Above 27,000 kg MCTOM

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14
Q

An incident

A

An occurrence other than an accident that can affect flight safety

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15
Q

An accident

A

A person is fatally or seriously injured or an Ac is seriously damaged or missing while the Ac had the intent of flight.

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16
Q

ASR must be submitted within

A

72 hours of the incident

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17
Q

Documents to be carried on the flight are

A 
Certificate or registration 
C of A
Noise certificate 
Radio licence
AOC
Insurance certificate 
Licences of flight crew

RAN RAIL

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18
Q

Manuals to be carried

A

Part A and B of Ops manual

AFM

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19
Q

Information and forms to be carried

A 
Special pax/loads
Charts/maps
ATS flight plan
Mass and Balance
Tech log
OFP (operational flight plan)
Weather info
NOTAMS

SCAM TOWN

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20
Q

Information to be left on the ground

A 
NOTAMS
OFP
Tech log
AIS brief 
Mass and Balance
Special loads
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21
Q

Operator must produce all required docs within… when asked by the authority

A

A reasonable amount of time, usually 10 days

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22
Q

Flight data recording are retained for

A

60 days

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23
Q

Flight duty time record kept for kept for

A

2 years

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24
Q

Tech log kept for

A

3 years

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25
Q

Everything else kept for

A

3 months

Flight docs
Dangerous goods docs

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26
Q

During a dry lease the Ac is operated

A

Under the AOC of the lessee

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27
Q

During a wet lease the Ac is operated

A

Under the AOC of the lessor

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28
Q

What is a community and non community operator

A

Within the EU a community operator can dry or wet lease for any other EU community operator.

Non community operators must be approved by the authority and the lessee must prove that the Ac cannot be leased for anywhere else in the Eu.

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29
Q

A company with an AOC must be lead by an

A

Accountable manager

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30
Q

Other departments which require specific managers are

A

Flight operations
Maintenance
Ground operations
Crew training

These must be managed by at least 2 managers

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31
Q

During a conversation course

A

You may not operate other types

Class B is exempt

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32
Q

After completing a zero time training course, line training must begin within

A

21 days

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33
Q

OPC every

A

6 months

Valid for 6 months in addition to the remainder of the month of validation

If issued within the final 3 months of revalidation the OPC expiry will still be 6 months from the date of expiry

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34
Q

Dangerous goods training every

A

24 months

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35
Q

Training records kept for

A

3 years

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36
Q

Line training for command course is a minimum of

A

10 flights

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37
Q

For single pilot CAT operation VFR greater than 50nm from departure aerodrome the commander must have

A

500 hrs or valid IR

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38
Q

For single pilot CAT operation IFR on multi engine aircraft the commander must have

A

700 hrs flight time including 400 hrs PIC
100 hrs IFR
40 hrs multi engine Ac

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39
Q

For single pilot CAT operation IFR on single engine aircraft the commander must have

A

700 hrs flight time including 400 hrs PIC

100 hrs IFR

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40
Q

If operating IFR or at night 2 crew for

A

Turbo prop more than 9 seats

All turbojets

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41
Q

To remain current

A

3 TO, APP and LDN within 90 days as PIC

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42
Q

Commander may be relieved by

A

FL200+

Another pilot or Co-pilot holding an ATPL

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43
Q

Co-pilot may be relieved by

A

Suitably qualified pilot

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44
Q

Familiarisation involves

A

Only theory

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45
Q

Differences training involves

A

Theory and practical training in sim

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46
Q

Pilots operating both helicopters and aeroplanes may only fly

A

One type of each

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47
Q

For a commander’s aerodrome knowledge to be current

A

Operate in area or route of the aerodrome at least once within 12 months

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48
Q

Cabin crew required when

A

MOPSC is more than 19

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49
Q

SCCM must have

A

1 year experience

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50
Q

Cabin crew per pax requirements

A

1 cabin crew for every 50 pax

Or number of cabin crew that participated in evacuation

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51
Q

Cabin crew can only operate on

A

3 Ac types

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52
Q

Cabin crew are supervised for

A

20 hours or 15 sectors

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53
Q

Max crew duty hours

A

60 hours in 7 days
110 hours in 14 days
190 hours in 28 days

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54
Q

Max crew flight time

A

100 hours in 28 days
900 hours per calendar year
1000 hours in 12 consecutive months

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55
Q

Max flight duty period

A

13 hours

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56
Q

Max flight duty period extension

A

1 hour planned

Or at commanders authority:
2 hours
3 if augmented crew

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57
Q

Max number flight duty period extensions

A

2 in 7 days

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58
Q

Night duty is from

A

02:00 to 04:59

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59
Q

WOCL is from

A

02:00 to 05:59

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60
Q

Local night is from

A

22:00 to 08:00 local

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61
Q

Minimum flight crew rest period at base

A

At least as long as the preceding duty or 12 hours

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62
Q

Minimum flight crew rest period away from base

A

At least as long as the preceding duty or 10 hours

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63
Q

Duty is

A

Any task that a crew member is required to carry out associated with the business of an AOC holder

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64
Q

Duty period is

A

A period which starts when a crew member is required by an operator to commence a duty and ends when the crew member is free from all duties

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65
Q

Flight duty period is

A

Begins when the crew member is required to report for duty and ends when the aircraft comes to rest on stand on the last sector

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66
Q

Block time is

A

The time between an aeroplane first moving from its parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest on the designated parking position and all engines or propellers are stopped

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67
Q

MMEL

A

Established by the manufacturer

Approved by the state of design

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68
Q

MEL

A

Established by the operator
Approved by the relevant authority

If amended, authority must be informed within 30 days

Can only be more restrictive than the MMEL

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69
Q

MEL Rectification intervals

A

A - specified time
B - 3 days
C - 10 days
D - 120 days

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70
Q

For day operations the Ac must have

A

Anti-collision lights
Instrument illumination
Pax compartment illumination
Torch for each crew member

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71
Q

For night ops the Ac must additionally have

A

Navigation lights

2 landing lights

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72
Q

Minimum spare fuse requirements

A

10% or minimum of 3 of each rating

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73
Q

Windscreen wipers at each pilot station if

A

MCTOM > 5700 kg

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74
Q

To fly day VFR need

A

Basic 6
Clock
Temperature
Indication of power supply failure

Pitot heat if MCTOM > 5700kg or C of A after 1 Apr 1999

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75
Q

Additional requirements to fly night and IFR

A

2nd altimeter
DG

If MCTOM > 5700 kg:
2nd static system
Pitot failure warning if

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76
Q

Ac MCTOM > 5700 kg or 9 Pax must have how much independent power

A

30 mins

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77
Q

Single pilot IFR must have

A

AP with ALT and HDG modes

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78
Q

Altitude alerting system required for

A

Turboprop MCTOM > 5700 kg or 9 pax

All jet

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79
Q

TAWS required if

A

MCTOM > 5700 kg or 9 pax

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80
Q

Which Ac require what class of TAWS

A

Class A - Jet Ac

Class B - Prop with MCTOM > 5700 kg or 9 pax

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81
Q

Wx radar required if

A

At night or IMC
Weather hazards
Px cabin
MCTOM > 5700 kg or 9 pax

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82
Q

PTT must be on

A

Control column if flying at night or IMC

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83
Q

If flying IFR each crew must have their own

A

Audio selector panel

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84
Q

Crew Inter phone required if

A

MCTOM > 15,000 kg or 19 pax

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85
Q

Crew inter phone must connect to

A

Each pax compartment
Each galley
Each crew compartment
Ground personnel with at least 2 crew stations

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86
Q

PA system required if

A

MOPSC > 19

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87
Q

IFR and VFR flights not navigating by ground reference must have

A

2 radios

Altitude reporting transponder

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88
Q

RVSM requires

A

2 altimeters
Altitude alerting system
Alt transponder
AP with alt mode

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89
Q

Operator must report alt keeping errors greater than

A

300 ft total error
245 ft altimetry system error
300 ft deviation

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90
Q

CVR required on

A

Multi eng Ac with > 9 pax
All Ac MCTOM > 5700 kg

Record anything in or out of cockpit and cockpit background noise

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91
Q

Underwater locating device transmit for

A

90 days or FDR and CVR

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92
Q

If nav database is wrong report to

A

Nav database provider

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93
Q

CVR records

A

25 hrs if MCTOM > 27,000 kg

2 hrs other Ac

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94
Q

FDR required

A

MCTOM > 5700 kg

Multi eng turbine Ac with 9 or more pax

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95
Q

1 first aid kit per

A

100 seats

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96
Q

Emergency medical kit required

A

MOPSC > 30
Or
> 60 mins from aerodrome

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97
Q

First aid oxygen required

A

Cabin crew required and px cabin and alt > 25,000ft

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98
Q

First aid oxygen must be sufficient for

A

2% of pax with minimum of 1
3L per min
For remainder of flight after depressurisation

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99
Q

Supplemental oxygen required if

A

Above 10,000ft

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100
Q

Pax oxygen masks must exceed number of seats by

A

10%

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101
Q

Oxygen masks must be supplied to % of pax

A

100% if > 15,000ft for minimum of 10 min supply
30% if > 14,000ft
10% if > 10,000ft

102
Q

Flight crew quick don masks required

A

Above 25,000ft

And last for 110 min at 10,000 ft

103
Q

Flight crew O2 masks below 25,000ft

A

20 mins supply at 10,000 ft

104
Q

Crew PBE required if

A

MCTOM > 5,700 kg and MOPSC > 19

Supply for 15 mins

105
Q

Flight deck fire extinguisher requirement

A

1 for electrical and fluid fires

106
Q

Pax numbers and fire extinguishers

A

7 - 30 pax 1
31 - 60 pax 2
Greater than 60 1 per 100 plus 1

Eg
61 - 200 pax 3
200 - 300 pax 4
300 - 400 pax 5 
Etc
107
Q

Break in points are coloured

A

Red or yellow

108
Q

Emergency exits much have slides if

A

More than 1.83m/6 ft from ground

109
Q

Number of megaphones required

A

< 60 pax none
61 - 99 pax 1
> 99 pax 2

Minimum of 1 per deck

110
Q

Independent lighting system required if

A

> 9 seats

111
Q

Cabin lighting required if And includes

A

> 19 seats

Includes:
Floor lighting
Exit signs
Over wing lights if at night

112
Q

Modern Ac require what kind of ELT

A

At least 1 and automatic

113
Q

Life jackets required if

A

> 50 nm from coast
Or
When takeoff or approach is over a significant body of water

Must have a light

114
Q

Life rafts required if

A

OEI:
120 min or 400 nm from land

Or other Ac
30 min or 100 nm from land

Must be enough rafts for all people to fit in them if 1 raft is lost

Must also have 2 ELT

115
Q

Additional survival equipment is required if

A

120 min OEI
30 min single engine
90 min from suitable landing site for CS25 Ac

116
Q

Require a seat if over

A

24 months old

117
Q

Fasten seatbelt sign required if

A

Cabin not visible from flight deck

118
Q

Must have cockpit door is

A

> 19 seats

119
Q

Dangerous goods are in ICAO annex

A

18 and

doc 9284 - the technical instructions for the safe carriage of dangerous goods by air

120
Q

Gangrenous goods EU reg

A

EU regulations 965/2012 Annex V part SPA DG

121
Q

Dangerous goods transported in a

A

Freight container mostly for radio active materials

122
Q

UN number

A

4 digit number to identify DG substance

123
Q

Serious injury is one that

A

Requires hospitalisation for at least 48 hours within 7 days of the injury

124
Q

‘Red book’ is the

A

Emergency response guide

125
Q

Who’s the responsibility is it to ensure packaging, storage and labelling is done correctly

A

The shippers

126
Q

DG training every

A

24 months

127
Q

If incident the PIC must inform ATC of the

A

UN number of DG

128
Q

Forbidden DG include

A

Unstable explosives
Substances liable to produce dangerous quant,ivies of heat or gas under normal transporting conditions
Dangerously toxic or corrosive substances

129
Q

Overpack is

A

2 layers of packaging

130
Q

Where can the pilots find info on DG being carried

A

NOTOC

131
Q

DG training records kept for

A

3 years

132
Q

Categories of Dangerous Goods

A

9 categories

133
Q

DG incidents

A

Must be reported within 72 hours to the your authority and the authority in which the incident occurred

134
Q

Planning and preparation can be found in

A

ICAO annex 6 Part 1 Air Ops

135
Q

ETOPS en-route alternate requirements

A

ATS facility

At least one instrument approach

136
Q

2 eng AC TO alternate

A

60 mins OEI
Or
ETOPS up to 2 hours or ETOPS approval which ever is less

137
Q

3+ eng AC TO alternate

A

120 mins OEI in still air

138
Q

Dest alternate

A

1 alternate for IFR flights unless:

< 6 hours or isolated 
And 
1 separate RWY at dest
Met +/- 1 hour arrival 
2000ft ceiling and 5km Vis

2 aft for IFR if:
Wx below minima or there is no Wx info

139
Q

VFR operating minima

A
140
Q

SVFR must commence

A

Below 3km and not continued below 1500m

141
Q

Planning minima

A
142
Q

ETOPS en-route planning minima

A
143
Q

When refuelling with AVGAS

A

Can’t have pax onboard

144
Q

To refuel Jet A with pax onboard

A

Qualified person to handle emergency onboard
2 way Comms to ground crew
Crew and pax informed of refuelling
Seat belt signs off
Seat belt signs and exit signs on
Pax instructed not to smoke and not to wear seatbelts
Crew must be prepared for immediate evacuation
Fuel vapour detected inside the cabin refuelling must stop immediately
Areas beneath emergency exits clear

145
Q

Low vis takeoff is and can be reduced

A

400m can be reduced to 75m with HUD

146
Q

Can pilot assessment replace RVR

A

Yes

147
Q

LVO training every

A

Year

148
Q

NAPD 1 and 2

A
149
Q

Cannot use reduced thrust if

A

RWY contaminated
X wind exceeding 15kts
Tail wind exceeding 5kts
Wind shear or TS reported

150
Q

Noise abatement procedures in

A

AIP Part AD section 2 & 3

151
Q

Standard twin limitation

A

60 mins of adequate AD OEI

152
Q

ETPOS is displayed on

A

AOC

153
Q

Shortest ETOPS routes are known as

A

Minimum time routes

154
Q

EEP and EXP stand for

A

Extended range entry point

Extended range exit point

Between them is known as the ETOPS segment

155
Q

LRNS

A

Long range navigation system

156
Q

MASPS

A

Minimum aircraft system performance specification

157
Q

NAT HLA

A

North Atlantic high level airspace

FL285 - FL420 which normal cruising levels FL290 - FL410

158
Q

OCA

A

Oceanic control area

159
Q

OTS

A

Organised track system

160
Q

PRM

A

Preferred route message

161
Q

SLOP

A

Strategic lateral offset procedures

162
Q

WATRS

A

West Atlantic route system

163
Q

NAT HLA extends

A

FL285 to FL420

164
Q

OCAs

A 
Bodo
Reykjavik 
Gander
Shanwick
Santa Maria
New York
165
Q

Oceanic transition areas

A

BOTA by Brest FIR
SOTA by Shannon FIR
NOTA by Shannon FIR

SOTA and NOTA go from FL060 to FL600

166
Q

NAT HLA requirements

A 
RVSM approval 
RNP10 / RNAV10
TCAS 7.1 / ACAS2
2 serviceable LRNS
Datalink
HF radio
167
Q

Changeover times

A

Westbound (day)
11:30 - 19:00z

Eeastbound (night)
01:00 - 08:00z

168
Q

Blue spruce routes

A

Only require 1 LRNS

Canada Greenland etc

169
Q

Tango Routes

A

Northern Europe to Spain/Portugal etc

170
Q

Hybrid routes

A

Can only join outer tracks

171
Q

PBCS tracks

A 
FL350 - FL390
23nm / 0.5 degree separation 
RNP4
RSP180 / RCP240
CPDLC
ADS-C
5 mins separation
172
Q

OTS tracks

A

FL290 - FL410
60nm / 1 degree separation
10 mins sep

173
Q

Must tell ATC if ETA changes by

A

3 mins or more

174
Q

Oceanic clearances should be requested

A

40 mins prior to entry point

175
Q

When transmitting position reports report

A

Next position + 1

176
Q

AC with RNP4, RCP240 and RSP180 can reduce separation to

A

19nm

177
Q

Before entering the NAT if altimeters disagree by

A

200ft or more must report to ATC

Increases to 300ft inside the NAT

178
Q

Must ask ATC if you want to change your Mach by more than

A

0.2

179
Q

Longitudinal separation is

A

10 mins

5 mins on PBCS track

180
Q

HF bands day and night

A

Lower HF bands at night < 7MHz

Higher HF bands during day > 8MHz

181
Q

When entering the NAT SSR should be maintained for

A

30 mins or 10 mins on Tango routes

182
Q

SLOP

A

Wake, Wx, pax problems

0.1 increments up to 2nm right only

183
Q

Wx deviation NAT

A

30 degrees right of left up to 5nm and +/- 300ft

SAND

184
Q

Mech and pax problems in the NAT

A

30 degrees left or right up to 5 nm

Descend below FL290
Or

+/-500ft is below FL410

-500 +1000 if at FL410

+/-1000ft is above FL410

185
Q

Recommended time between significant points on random routes is

A

60 mins

186
Q

random routes defined as

A

Parallels of latitude spaced at 5 degrees

Crossed at whole degrees of longitude

187
Q

On initial contact with OTS the pilot should state

A

The HF frequency in use

188
Q

HF frequencies range from

A

2.8 to 18 MHz

189
Q

Minimum nav specification when 50 nm spacing is

A

RNP10

190
Q

Converted met visibility CMV

A
191
Q

If RVR or CMV is less than minima, may not continue an approach if

A

At 1000ft RVR is below minima

Or if RVR goes below minima while below 1000ft can continue to DA/DH

192
Q

Fail passive is

A

No out of trim but landing cannot be completed automatically

193
Q

Fail operational

A

No out of trim and landing can be completed automatically and will become fail passive

194
Q

Fail operational hybrid

A

Fail passive system with a secondary system eg a HUD

195
Q

Approach system minima

A 
ILS/MLS/LS - 200ft
SRA to 1nm - 300ft
VOR - 300ft
VOR/DME - 250ft
NDB - 350ft
196
Q

Single pilot CAT 1 minimum vis is

A

800m

197
Q

Precision approach minima

A
198
Q

AC speed categories

A
199
Q

Circling minima

A
200
Q

Takeoff RVR minima

A

A, B, C - 150m

D - 200m

201
Q

Icing effects on lift and drag

A

Reduces lift by 30%

Increases drag by 40%

202
Q

One step and two step de icing

A

De ice and anti ice

De icing followed by anti icing

203
Q

Commanders responsibilities after de icing

A

Entry into tech log
Monitor conditions and HOT
Pre takeoff check

204
Q

Types of fluids and colours

A

Roman numerals 1 - 4

Deicing orange
Anti icing green

Fluid turns white and milky when it develops ice crystals

205
Q

HOT starts from

A

Hold over time

From beginning of anti icing

206
Q

Low vis ops come into place when

A

Ceiling is 200ft and RVR 600m

207
Q

Visual approach minima is

A

800m

208
Q

Clean aircraft concept is DOC

A

ICAO DOC 9640

209
Q

Vertical and horizontal wind shear

A
210
Q

Wind shear recognition

A 
ASI +/- 15kts
VSI +/- 500ft
Attitude change 5 degrees 
Glide slope 1 dot
Heading +/- 10 degrees 
Unusual auto thrust and lever position

Blowing rings of dust on the ground

211
Q

Microbursts

A

5km diameter
1 - 5 min
Downdraught of 60 kts
Speed change of up to 45 kts

212
Q

On wind shear escape remember to

A

Go around and keep config
Pitch close to stick shaker or follow FD
If AP engaged, leave it engaged

213
Q

PIREP must be reported if wind shear

A

20 kts or more

Up or downdraught of 500ft below 1000ft

214
Q

Contaminated when

A

> 25% 3mm of water or equivalent

215
Q

Damp

A

Surface does not give shiny appearance

216
Q

Wet

A

Surface gives reflective appearance

217
Q

Dynamic hydro planing

A

Spin down = 9 root P
Spin up = 7.7 root P

1 bar is 15 psi

Speed below which water is displaced

218
Q

Viscous hydro planing

A

Tyre can’t penetrate through thin water film after most of the water has been displaced

219
Q

Reverted rubber hydro planing

A

High px causes steam high can melt the tyres

220
Q

SNOWTAM valid for

A

8 hours

221
Q

Contamination codes need to know: 6, T, D

A 
6 = slush
T = cleared length 
D = actual info in plain language
222
Q

Most wake turbulence from an AC that is

A

Heavy
Slow
Clean config

223
Q

In regards to wake turbulence X wind

A

Light X wind is more dangerous than a strong one

2 - 5 kts

224
Q

Wake categories

A

Heavy > 136,000kg
Medium 136,000 to 7,000kg
Light < 7,000kg

225
Q

Wake turbulence departure spacing

A

Same point 2 mins unless medium or light after A380 it’s 3 mins

Intersection is 3 mins unless medium or light after A380 it’s 4 mins

For medium following a heavy, 5nm and 2 mins

226
Q

Birds attracted to what grass

A

Short grass

227
Q

Info on bird activity can be found in

A

AIP ENR 5.6

228
Q

90% of bird strikes occurs below

A

2500ft

229
Q

Slow decompression is

A

Insidious

Eg leak in door

Hissing or whistling
Ears popping
Mild hypoxia

230
Q

Rapid decompression

A

Don oxygen mask and set 100%

231
Q

Cabin warning sound when exceed

A

10,000ft

232
Q

Cabin masks automatically drop

A

14,000ft for AC certified above 25,000ft

233
Q

Need extra masks

A

10% pax seating

234
Q

TUC

A
235
Q

Should only approach landing gear from

A

Front or rear

236
Q

Steel breaks

A

Small frequent applications

237
Q

Carbon breaks

A

Few but firm applications

238
Q

Classes of fire

A 
A - material
B - liquid
C - gas
D - metal
Electrical 
F - cooking fats and oils
239
Q

Hanson fire extinguisher used

A

Pretty much everywhere

Powder only for breaks sometimes

240
Q

Lithium fires extinguished with

A

Water

241
Q

Precautionary landing when

A

No immediate threat

242
Q

Emergency landing when

A

Immediate threat

243
Q

Ditching

A

Gear up and flaps down

Parallel to swell

244
Q

CS 25 evacuation requirements

A

90 seconds with half of the doors open in the dark

245
Q

Jettison not less than

A

6,000ft

246
Q

When do you need jettison

A

AC must be able to land within 15 mins of departure to meet performance requirements

247
Q

Security is

A

Annex 17 or EU reg 300/2008

248
Q

Following unlawful interference commander must submit report to

A

Local authority and registry authority

249
Q

Lockable cockpit door required if

A

4,500kg or 60 PSC

250
Q

An ICAO standard is

A

Contracting states will conform to any specification in accordance with the convention

251
Q

ICAO recommended practice is

A

Contracting states will endeavour to conform to any specification in accordance with the convention.

252
Q

ICAO national differences must be

A

More stringent than the ICAO requirements

Ops (1 decks)

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