Ops

Question 1

taxiway code a aircraft

Answer 1

wingspan: Up to but not including 15 m
Outer main gear wheel span: Up to but not including 4.5 m

Question 2

taxiway code b aircraft

Answer 2

wingspan: 15 m up to but not including 24 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 4.5 m up to but not including 6 m

Question 3

taxiway code c aircraft

Answer 3

wingspan: 24 m up to but not including 36 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 6 m up to but not including 9 m

Question 4

taxiway code D aircraft

Answer 4

wingspan: 36 m up to but not including 52 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 9 m up to but not including 14 m

Question 5

taxiway code e aircraft

Answer 5

wingspan: 52 m up to but not including 65 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 9 m up to but not including 14 m

Question 6

taxiway code F aircraft

Answer 6

wingspan: 65 m up to but not including 80 m
Outer main gear wheel span: 14 m up to but not including 16 m

Question 7

Stand 4 max width and length

Stand 4 largest types

Answer 7

Width 28.72m length 38.69m
Emb-195/ATR 72 largest type

Question 8

Stand 5, 6 and 7 max width and length

Stand 5, 6 and 7 largest types

Answer 8

Width 36m length 39.47m

Largest b737-max8/SW

Question 9

Stand 8 max width and length

Stand 8 largest types

Answer 9

Width 38m length 44.51m
Largest a321neo, b737-800sw, b737-max8

Question 10

how often are runway checks completed by aos vehicles?

Answer 10

During the periods of increased wildlife activity, being sunrise (45 minutes before and 15 minutes after sunrise) and dusk (15 minutes before and 45 minutes after sunset), runway inspection frequency will increase where possible. This will be to a maximum elapsed time of 20 minutes since the last movement. All other inspections will be carried out at intervals of not greater than two hours throughout the day, unless there are no aircraft movements.

Question 11

what is aaib

Answer 11

Air Accident Investigation Branch

Question 12

if an incident occurs over 1000m away who decides if rffs attends

Answer 12

it is the responsibility of ATC to decide whether to allow RFFS to attend an incident which has occurred beyond the 1000m attendance requirement.

Question 13

who reports incidents to aaib

Answer 13

it is the responsibility of ATC to inform the AAIB that an incident has occurred at the Airport (dependent upon the situation), and to later request permission from the AAIB to remove the disabled aircraft from the incident site.

Question 14

who reports incidents to the caa

Answer 14

the head of Fire and Airfield Operations (HFAO) is responsible for informing the CAA of any relevant incidents, for example
aircraft related incidents. In the event of the HFAO not being present, the IMC will
appoint an individual to undertake this task.

Question 15

where do you park a hijacked aircraft or bomb threat aircraft

Answer 15

at the west end of the Bravo taxiway, abeam the Foxtrot taxiway (nose facing west). Should this be unavailable then a dynamic assessment of the most appropriate stand to be used should be made in conjunction with ATC.

Question 16

where to park an aircraft during an aircraft accident. full emergency if needed?

Answer 16

remote stand such as the north edge or if 787 dreamliner or larger aircraft east or west apron until rffs say its safe)

Question 17

Cat 1 operation

Answer 17

A precision Instrument Approach and Landing with a Decisions Height not lower than 200 feet and with either a visibility not less than 800m, or runway visual range (IRVR) not less than 550m.

Question 18

Cat 11 operation

Answer 18

A precision Instrument Approach and landing with a Decision Height lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range not less than 300m.

Question 19

Cat111a operation

Answer 19

A precision Instrument Approach and landing with either a Decision Height lower than 100ft, or with no decision height and a runway visual range not less than 175m.

Question 20

Manuovering area

Answer 20

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding the apron

Question 21

Movement area

Answer 21

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and aprons.

Question 22

what does london flow control do?

Answer 22

allocate slot times for aircraft in UK airspace

Question 23

epm?

Answer 23

emergency planning manager

Question 24

what should RFFS’s response time be?

Answer 24

2 minutes but not more than 3 for the first appliance

Question 25

what is the AOS responsible for during an emergency?

Answer 25

The AOS is responsible for the efficient management of the ESRVP and for the coordination of the escort provision to the incident site through the role of EMA Ops Liaison Officer.

Question 26

what is the AODM responsible for during an emergency?

Answer 26

The AODM undertakes the role of Aerodrome Coordinator of Disabled Aircraft Removal Operations.

Question 27

what are the rangers responsible for during and emergency?

Answer 27

The Airfield Security Rangers are responsible for providing escorts for the emergency services from the ESRVP to the incident site.

Question 28

whats securitys responsibility during an emergency?

Answer 28

The main responsibility of Security during an aircraft incident is to assist the Police to set up and facilitate the SRC and to represent the Airport to the passengers and agencies within the area.

Question 29

what is airfield engineering responsible for in an emergency?

Answer 29

In the event of an incident occurring on the runway or airfield, Airfield Engineering are
responsible for ensuring that the navaids and airfield lighting have not been damaged.
They will also provide advice where necessary on the safety implications of any damage which has been incurred.
b. Airfield Engineering will also provide the AAIB with voice and radar recordings and any other information as required.

Question 30

what tactical level of management for the airport does the IMC act as?

Answer 30

The IMC acts as the Tactical (“Silver”) level of management for the Airport.

Question 31

define initial and enhanced PDA

Answer 31

Initial – All cargo aircraft and all passenger aircraft of CAT 3 or below
Enhanced - All passenger aircraft of CAT 4 and above, and any military aircraft where
the persons on board may exceed 20 in number.

Question 32

what will LFRS send for an initial PDA?

Answer 32

Initial
3 fire appliances
2 Officers – Command Support and Incident Command
1 Command Support Vehicle

Question 33

What will LFRS send for an enhanced PDA?

Answer 33

Enhanced
6 fire appliances
4 Officers
1 Command Support Vehicle

Question 34

what will EMAS send for an initial PDA?

Answer 34

Initial
Tactical Commander
HART team
NILO (deployed as appropriate)

Question 35

what will EMAS send for an enhanced PDA?

Answer 35

Enhanced
Tactical Commander
HART team
On Call National Inter-Agency Liaison Officer (NILO)
Strategic Commander
Executive Director On Call
Communication Manager On Call

Question 36

If an aircraft accident is confirmed by arriving Ambulance Incident Commander, what will they request?

Answer 36

The Ambulance Incident Commander will request the following
• DCA’s numbers on request as per SOP and POB.
• 2 further Tactical commanders
• NILO (if not already deployed)
• SORT

Question 37

what will leicester police send for an initial or enhanced

Answer 37

leicestershire Police send the same PDA regardless whether it is an initial or enhanced incident. This will consist of 4 Officers and a Bronze Commander.

Question 38

define aircraft accident

Answer 38

“An aircraft accident which has occurred on or in the aerodrome surroundings.”

Question 39

define aircraft ground incident

Answer 39

Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, requiring the attendance of emergency services.”

Question 40

define aircraft full emergency

Answer 40

An aircraft approaching the aerodrome is, or is suspected to be, in such trouble that there is imminent danger of an accident.”

Question 41

define local standby

Answer 41

“An aircraft approaching the aerodrome is known, or is suspected to have developed, some defect but trouble is no such as would normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a
safe landing.”

Question 42

define local standby weather

Answer 42

“When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe.”

Question 43

define domestic incident

Answer 43

“The classification ‘domestic’ is given to any incident:
▪ On the aerodrome (not including aircraft emergencies)
▪ Outside the aerodrome boundary (other than aircraft incidents) which is liable to
constitute a danger to flying or aerodrome property
▪ Which the aerodrome rescue and firefighting service might attend where the response
is according to an agreement with the local emergency services
▪ Which is in response to calls from the public or the police on humanitarian grounds”

Question 44

define aircraft accident location unknown

Answer 44

When an accident has occurred or is considered imminent but the location is unknown.
Once the aircraft’s location has been established, the incident will be upgraded to an aircraft accident.

Question 45

define local standby royal flight

Answer 45

“When a royal flight is landing or taking off

Question 46

define aircraft accident in more detail

Answer 46

a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of:
▪ being in the aircraft, or
▪ direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become
detached from the aircraft, or
▪ direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are from natural causes, selfinflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding
outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew;
b. the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which:
▪ adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of
the aircraft, and
▪ would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component
▪ except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the engine, its
cowlings or accessories; or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas,
tires, brakes, fairings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or
c. the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.

Question 47

where should an aircraft be parked in the event of it being hijacked?

Answer 47

In the event of a hijacked aircraft arriving at EMA it is to be parked, if possible, at the west end of the Bravo taxiway, abeam the Foxtrot taxiway (nose facing west). Should this be unavailable then a dynamic assessment of the most appropriate stand to be used will be made.

Question 48

what building is used for the temporary body holding area?

Answer 48

UPS (UK) Building 68, Winter Storage Shed used to be the temp body holding area however we no longer have one on site

Question 49

who opens the crash gates for RFFS to respond to off aerodrome incidents?

Answer 49

If informed that RFFS have responded to an off-aerodrome incident through one of the
onsite crash gates, Airfield Ops will initially send the Ranger to guard this gate (or secure it if relevant). A member of security staff will then be taken to the crash gate to release the Ranger to assist at the ESRVP.
b. If informed that passengers will be brought to the onsite SRC via a crash gate from the 1000m response area, send a member of staff to open and monitor the crash gate and then secure it when no longer required.

Question 50

where is esrvp1 located?

Answer 50

outside the fire station

Question 51

what call sign will the AOS give in an emergency that requires the ESRVP?

Answer 51

the AOS will set up the ESRVP and then call up as rendezvous point and advise the ESRVP is set up

Question 52

where is ESRVP2 located?

Answer 52

west 1 gate house

Question 53

what 2 situations would ESRVP2 be used over ESRVP1

Answer 53

the proximity of the incident to the Fire Station, ESRVP2 will be used. e.g. incident on the west apron
If ESRVP1 is out of action ESRVP2 will be used

Question 54

who do you contact if the SRC is activated or if there are causalities going to hospital/fatalities

Answer 54

If an SRC has been activated, or if there are potentially any fatalities or casualties who will be going to hospital, inform the UK BF duty manager

Question 55

after an accident who can reopen the airport

Answer 55

The AAIB will give the Airport permission to reopen. The Airport will only be reopened after permission has been given by the IMC. This information should then be disseminated by the ADM (with the support by the Control Room) to all relevant departments.

Question 56

if an IMC is activated what action does the control room take

Answer 56

If the IMC is to be activated, the Control
Room puts out an ad hoc notification using CIM.

Question 57

If informed that ESRVP 1 is compromised what should you do in an emergency?

Answer 57

If informed that ESRVP 1 is compromised by the OIC, inform the following persons –
other CROs, AOS, ATC, Leicestershire Police and HFAO. Inform DHL and other relevant
parties that the West 1 gatehouse has been taken out of operation.

Question 58

what should you do when you see an aircraft incident not atc

Answer 58

Operate the crash alarm and open the direct line to ATC to inform them of the details

Question 59

what should you do in the event of a press enquiry from news reporters

Answer 59

Telephone enquiries from the media only must be referred to the Press Office when it is operational on extension 2988. Prior to the establishment of the physical Press Office, all media calls only should be transferred to the on-call Press Office mobile (07901 911266).
It is company policy not to discuss any incident with members of the general public or any other companies/agencies. Reference may be made to the official EMA press statement which will be available on the Airport website

Question 60

who do you contact when an Welfare Reception Centre is needed

Answer 60

STM - Security position should do this when requested by Ops position or ADM

Question 61

off aerodrome incident procedure - security position

Answer 61

If the EMA onsite ESRVP is not activated and you are notified that RFFS have responded to an off-aerodrome incident through one of the onsite crash gates, inform the Ranger Vehicles.
If the EMA onsite ESRVP is not activated and you are notified that passengers will be brought to the onsite SRC via a crash gate from the 1000m response area, inform the Ranger Vehicles.

Question 62

what will passenger services do when informed by ops controller of an aircraft accident

Answer 62

theyll mobilise at least 2 members of staff in a vehicle to the ESRVP then report to the EMA Ops Liaison Officer in the ESRVP and await further instructions.

If required, theyll attend the incident site (under escort) and secure the passengers in an area assessed to be safe by RFFS.
Once coaches have arrived at the scene, in cooperation with the emergency services guide passengers who are going to the SRC onto the coaches.
If required by the RFFS Incident Commander, assist with the removal of PRMs from the aircraft using the ambulift.

Question 63

where is the family and friends reception centre located

Answer 63

east lounge

Question 64

what does RFFS do when informed of a weather or royal local standby

Answer 64

Upon receipt of the PA announcement or telephone call from the Operations (Fire) Control position, a minimum of one appliance is to be put on standby at the Fire Station for Royal flights only.
For weather standbys RFFS will maintain a heightened state of alert at the Fire Station.

Question 65

how many appliances attend a hijack?

Answer 65

a minimum of one RFFS appliance and crew
standby at a position predetermined by ATC and the Police

Question 66

how many appliances attend an aircraft accident/accident imminent?

Answer 66

all crews get tipped out by the crash alarm

Question 67

how many appliances attend aircraft bomb threat?

Answer 67

Unless directed otherwise, the appliances should park outside the RFFS fire bays.
Further action will be dependent on the individual circumstances. However, if the aircraft is to be evacuated by emergency means RFFS will, at the discretion of the RFFS Officer in Charge and only following instruction from the Police and LFRS, assist the passengers in their disembarkation and removal from the area.
Sufficient RFFS vehicles and personnel should be maintained at an optimum safe distance around 300 metres from the aircraft (or at the distance specified by the Police) in case an explosive device detonates on board the aircraft and to enable any resulting fire to be extinguished.

Question 68

RFFS response time for incidents within 1000m?

Answer 68

EMA RFFS are required to respond to an incident within 1000m of the 09 and 27 thresholds.
There is no specific time period stated, but it must be assumed that the response is made as safely and quickly as reasonably practicable.

Question 69

define wrc

Answer 69

welfare reception centre

Question 70

define src

Answer 70

survivors reception centre

Question 71

what gate provides access the the SRC

Answer 71

gate 19 manned by security

Question 72

who sets up the SRC?

Answer 72

security

Question 73

where is the SRC located?

Answer 73

the pier

Question 74

how many appliances does RFFS send to a domestic incident

Answer 74

1

Question 75

terminal sector 1

Answer 75

Immigration Hall

Question 76

terminal sector 2

Answer 76

baggage Reclaim

Question 77

terminal sector 3a

Answer 77

Meet and Greet (arrivals)

Question 78

terminal sector 3b

Answer 78

Car Park main office

Question 79

terminal sector 4a

Answer 79

World Duty Free and WH Smiths (Decompression Area)

Question 80

terminal sector 4b

Answer 80

Dwell Area and retail

Question 81

terminal sector 4c

Answer 81

IDL from Gates 8 -17 and Escape Lounge

Question 82

terminal sector 4d

Answer 82

Ops Control tower and Engineering

Question 83

terminal sector 4e

Answer 83

1st floor all

Question 84

terminal sector 4f

Answer 84

Domestic Lounge Gate 1 - 5

Question 85

terminal sector 5a

Answer 85

Check in Hall, Ryanair check in hall and upstairs offices

Question 86

terminal sector 5b

Answer 86

– Central Search and queuing area

Question 87

terminal sector 6a

Answer 87

baggage dock

Question 88

terminal sector 6b

Answer 88

tower base building

Question 89

terminal sector 6c

Answer 89

tower upper

Question 90

terminal sector 7a

Answer 90

link pier

Question 91

terminal sector 7b

Answer 91

west pier

Question 92

where are the two terminal protec panels located

Answer 92

▪ Central Search - Rear of Podium
▪ Check in hall - Rear of staff channel search area

Question 93

where are the evacuation points for fires

Answer 93

The main fire assembly points for the terminal building include:
▪ VIP staff car park
▪ Transport interchange area
▪ Central Apron Head of Stand Roadway
▪ Base of ATC Tower
▪ Central west apron north and south

Any staff evacuating airside from sector 6A (outbound baggage dock) will assemble to the west of the baggage dock towards the potable water point. The fire assembly point will be the VIP staff car park as evacuations from this sector will involve staff only.

Question 94

who is the Fire Assembly Point Coordinators (FAPC) for airside

Answer 94

security

Question 95

who is the Fire Assembly Point Coordinators (FAPC) for landside

Answer 95

The FAPC for landside evacuation will also be co coordinated by Security staff, but assistance with evacuation from these sectors will also be given from Car Parks and Passenger Services staff. A member of the security staff will also be stationed at the Fire Assembly point with the FAPC.

Question 96

what are the 7 assistance point areas labeled a-g for emergency phones where passengers may call from when stuck

Answer 96

Main Departure Lounge East Assistance Point ‘A’
Main Departure Lounge West Assistance Point ‘B’
Tower to Link Bridge East Assistance Point ‘C’
Link Bridge Central Assistance Point ‘D’
Tower to Link Bridge West Assistance Point ‘E’
Pier South Assistance Point ‘F’ (Ground Floor)
Pier North Assistance Point ‘G’ (Ground Floor

Question 97

for confirmed fires only (AFA) what should you additionally do?

Answer 97

For confirmed fires only, inform the HFAO and the FSM.
Ring LFRS to also attend

Question 98

what does the STM do in an AFA

Answer 98

Upon receipt of the AFA the SOL will coordinate the evacuation of the terminal by dispatching a team of Security Staff to the affected sector to evacuate all common
areas.

Question 99

who do you ring to evacuate the terminal in an AFA

Answer 99

ADM and STM

Question 100

what radio is channel 4

Answer 100

RFFS

Question 101

what radio is channel 1

Answer 101

Ground

Question 102

what radio is channel 5

Answer 102

apron (ops and rangers)

Question 103

how many appliances does RFFS send to an AFA - single detector activation?

Answer 103

Upon activation of a single smoke detector one Fire Appliance will be mobilised to the
affecting Sector to investigate the cause of the alarm.

Question 104

how many appliances will RFFS send in a confirmed fire?

Answer 104

all three appliances, ATC must be informed fire cat 0 and this will close the airfield to inbound and outbound traffic

Question 105

other than a confirmed fire, what situations would RFFS send 3 appliances?

Answer 105

All three appliances will be mobilised to the incident when deemed necessary by the RFFS Incident Commander upon the result of a dynamic risk assessment for additional personnel/media, or for multiple Terminal Sector evacuations.

Question 106

in what situation would 2 appliances be sent to an AFA?

Answer 106

single smoke detector activation, one appliance will attend. if any disabled or infirmed passengers need assistance evacuating/trapped a second appliance will attend to assist them in liasion with the OIC of the first appliance

Question 107

in what situation would a BA crew be needed

Answer 107

A BA crew should only be committed if it is evident that persons are at risk/trapped and in need of rescue, and are within a short distance of the entry point. If no life risk is involved, BA crews should only be committed if dangerous escalation of the incident can be prevented by immediate and limited action.

Question 108

BA crew committed - ops fire control procedure

Answer 108

In the event of a BA crew being committed all three appliances will respond to the terminal.
c. ATC must be informed that RFFS have become committed and we are fire cat 0.
d. pass on any informative messages to the RFFS Officer in Charge and the LFRS control room.

Question 109

procedure for a disabled or infirmed passenger trapped at one of the emergency points in the terminal from a first floor area- ops fire control

Answer 109

when informed by 3333 or by the push button call point within the IDL of the location from the security and info position, RT RFFS n giving the evacuation point location and number of persons requiring assistance. who will attend to assist the passenger in the second fire appliance

Question 110

what are the emergency call points designated to in the terminal?

Answer 110

The call points are designated to evacuation points A and B, whilst the direct dial emergency phones are located at evacuation points C – G and may be used by a member of staff or passenger.

Question 111

procedure for a disabled or infirmed passenger trapped at one of the emergency points in the terminal from a first floor location - security and info control

Answer 111

when informed by 3333 or by the push button call point within the IDL of the location from the security and info position
let the fire ops controller know and give them the evacuation point location and number of people needing assistance

Question 112

what happens if sector 5a goes into evacuation

Answer 112

If Sector 5A goes into evacuation then Passenger Services will clear the public area of passengers and direct them to the nearest available fire exit and onto the fire assembly point. One member of Passenger Services will sweep adjacent prayer room if safe to do so.

Question 113

what happens if sector 4c goes into evacuation

Answer 113

If Sector 4C goes into evacuation then Escape Lounge Staff will clear the following:
a. Gates 14 – 18, coordinating the evacuation of the IDL from these gates, over to head of stand road fire assembly point No.2 assisted by Swissport staff if gates in use.
b. One member of Escape Lounge staff will clear adjacent toilets, and one member of staff will clear the adjacent smoking shelter if safe to do so.

Question 114

when can the terminal/building be re-entered after an AFA

Answer 114

The RFFS Incident Commander must declare the area to be safe following liaison with all relevant parties. No-one must enter the building/sector until this declaration has been made.

Question 115

what is the procedure for an AFA at DHL?

Answer 115

local alarm and tannoy

Question 116

what is the procedure for an AFA for landside buildings for white watch?

Answer 116

Ring Station Manager to assess whether they will take action or pass it to LFRS

Question 117

what is the procedure for an AFA for landside buildings for other watches?

Answer 117

local alarm and tannoy

Question 118

where do the LFRS appliances go when sent to an AFA at DHL

Answer 118

LFRS will mobilise three appliances, two of which will respond directly to the West Cargo entrance of the Airport site and liaise with Airport Security. The third appliance will proceed directly to the ESRVP and will be escorted down the Alpha taxiway to the DHL building.

Question 119

what is the full procedure for an AFA at a landside building

Answer 119

In the event of an AFA activation in another airside building or landside premises, the RFFS Officer in Charge will make an assessment whether the RFFS are able to attend based on flight movements and duties.
5.2 one appliance will deploy to investigate the alarm. In the event of a confirmed fire this will be increased to two appliances.
5.3 If RFFS attend the AFA and advise that it is a confirmed fire, the Operations (Fire) Control position will request that LFRS attend via the Emergency Line and provide details of the location and incident.

Question 120

how many appliances attend a landside building AFA for an unconfirmed fire and a confirmed fire?

Answer 120

one appliance will deploy to investigate the alarm. In the event of a confirmed fire this will be increased to two appliances.

Question 121

what alarm is an AFA

Answer 121

local alarm and tannoy

Question 122

what alarm is a fuel/hazardous spill

Answer 122

local alarm and tannoy

Question 123

what is a port health incident

Answer 123

where a member of the crew of an
aircraft becomes aware, or suspects, that a person on board is suffering from an infectious disease, they must notify the commander of the aircraft, who is in turn required to notify the airline/handling agent.

Question 124

what is a wrc

Answer 124

welfare reception centre

Question 125

what is an src

Answer 125

survivors reception centre

Question 126

what stand should you park an aircraft with more than 50 evacuees?

Answer 126

For incoming flights with more than fifty evacuees on board, evacuees will be taken directly from the aircraft to the West Pier. They will be processed and registered in this area which will be set up as a WRC before being taken for further assistance to an LRF approved venue

stands 30-33 or 40-45

Question 127

what stand should you park an aircraft with less than 50 evacuees?

Answer 127

For flights with less than fifty evacuees on board, an assessment will be made and an area identified for booking in the evacuees dependent on the individual circumstances of the flight. Arrangements for evacuees once they leave the Airport site will be made by the Local Authorities.

Question 128

evacuee flight procedure

Answer 128

1. if more than 50 evacuees, allocate pier stand. If less than 50 evacuees any stand
2. inform UKBF & (inform to head to the west pier if more than 50)
3. if required call EMAS/first aider if any evacuees are injured or ill

Question 129

where are the terminal first aid rooms located

Answer 129

There are two first aid rooms within the terminal building – one adjacent in the arrivals area (landside), and one on the first floor of the departure lounge.

Question 130

where are the airport defib locations?

Answer 130

Terminal Locations
a. Check in hall 1 (Ryanair tent)
b. Check in hall 2 (Staff channel)
c. Central search area
d. Gate 8
e. Castle Rock
f. Opposite Gate 14
g. (Evac Point C) Top of Pier Escalator
h. (Evac Point F) Pier Opposite Gate 18
i. Gate 1
j. Baggage Reclaim Hall
k. Immigration Hall
l. Arrivals Meet & Greet next to First Aid Room

Non-Terminal Locations
m. RFFS
n. RFFS
o. RFFS
p. MT Section
q. Control Room B113
r. Duty First Aider Trauma Bag

Question 131

what category medical supplies are held on rescue 7

Answer 131

Medical supplies for up to category 9 are held by RFFS on Rescue 7

Question 132

what appliance holds additional medical supplies

Answer 132

rescue 7

Question 133

where are the emergency dressings packs located

Answer 133

the packs are located within the landside first aid room and on Rescue 7.
The packs are large green bags with a small plastic padlock on. This padlock will need to be broken to open the pack.

Question 134

what are the emergency dressings packs and when can they be used

Answer 134

Emergency Dressings Packs have been provided to EMA by the NHS Ambulance Service to assist with the aftermath of a major incident which results in mass casualties within the terminal building. These packs are not to be used for general first aid calls or
aircraft incidents. The purpose of these packs is to hand out dressings to casualties in the interim time before they can be seen by the ambulance service.

Question 135

who can give permission to use the emergency dressings packs

Answer 135

Permission to use these packs in an emergency can only be given by the ADM, IMC or EMAS.

Question 136

what should you request a caller do when informed of a disruptive passenger?

Answer 136

scan their qr code in the disruptive passenger app

Question 137

what does the control room do when RFFS cant respond to a separate first aid call during an a/c incident

Answer 137

If a request for first aid assistance is made during an aircraft related incident which requires the full attendance of RFFS, an appliance will not be mobilised to assist with the first aid call.
The RFFS Officer in Charge must ensure that the Control Room is made aware that they are unable to respond, who will then inform the ADM.

Question 138

what are the three types of disabled aircraft removal

Answer 138

aircraft debogging
aircraft recovery
aircraft salvage

Question 139

what is aircraft debogging

Answer 139

The removal of an aircraft from a runway or taxiway where the aircraft has become bogged down but has relatively little or no damage is considered a
“debogg”.

Question 140

what is aircraft recovery

Answer 140

Any aircraft that is unable to move under its own power or through the normal use of an appropriate tow tractor and tow bar will be considered an “aircraft
recovery”. the aircraft has sustained damage
. Examples are:
- one or more landing gear off the hard surface of a runway, taxiway or apron;
- aircraft bogged down in mud or snow;
- one or more landing gear collapsed or damaged;
- an aircraft that is considered to be economically repairable.

Question 141

what is aircraft salvage

Answer 141

An accident or incident in which the aircraft sustains substantial
damage and the insurer considers the hull a constructive loss will be considered “aircraft
salvage”.

Question 142

who authorises the release of a disabled aircraft

Answer 142

The AAIB are responsible for authorising the release of the disabled aircraft

Question 143

who is the Aerodrome Coordinator for disabled aircraft removal operations

Answer 143

aos

Question 144

aircraft recovery procedures - ops controller procedure

Answer 144

mostly done by the aos not much involvement from the control room
3.3.1 Ensure that the ADM is updated on progress as relevant.
3.3.2 Liaise with ATC regarding any continued operations
3.3.3 Contact operators or handling agents as required by the AOS.
3.3.4 Advise the Aerodrome Coordinator of stand availability for the aircraft.
advise station manager so that RFFS can standby to assist with removal if required

Question 145

after an aircraft is debogged what should RFFS do

Answer 145

Wash the wheels and undercarriage once the aircraft is back on hard standing to ensure that surfaces are not contaminated when the aircraft moves back to the apron.

Question 146

difference between aircraft debog and aircraft recovery

Answer 146

debog has no damage to its landing gears, aircraft recovery has damage to its landing gears

Question 147

procedure for aircraft debogging

Answer 147

-atc informs AAib, if they ask the aircraft not to be moved ATC will inform the AOS
-Once the aircraft has been moved onto the nearest hard surface it may be necessary to
wash down the aircraft prior to moving it further to prevent contamination of the runway or
taxiway by mud or other substances. The RFFS Incident Commander will ensure that this is
carried out.

Question 148

in a confirmed fire involving an aircraft e.g. an apu connected to an aircraft what alarm do you press

Answer 148

crash alarm as it requires the full turnout of the RFFS and it could lead to an explosion

Question 149

in what instances would you activate the crash alarm

Answer 149

aircraft incidents or anything that requires the full attendance of the RFFS e.g. confirmed fire

Question 150

what is the procedure for a live incident test on CIM

Answer 150

if a test is required using one of the live incident types the following procedures must be followed:
a. Approval to use a live incident type for a test must be granted by the CM-RR, or the HCBR in their absence.
b. The ADM will contact the CM-RR at least 30 minutes prior to the test commencing. If the CM-RR is requesting the test they should contact the ADM at least 30 minutes in advance.
c. The ADM will be responsible for briefing the Control Room and arranging the test.
d. An SMS message should be sent via the ad hoc messaging function to all persons who will receive the notifications in advance of the test commencing informing them that this will be a system test only. This should be sent at least 15 minutes in advance by the Control Room.
e. The Control Room should inform the AOS, RFFS Station Manager and ATC Watch
Supervisor at least 15 minutes prior to the test commencing.

Question 151

during a crash alarm The EMA Ops Liaison Officer role will be fulfilled by?

Answer 151

AOS

Question 152

who acts as the FCP during a crash alarm?

Answer 152

The FCP will be the LFRS Command Vehicle, In the event that LFRS (or the Command Vehicle) are not present, or if LFRS have been stood down, then an RFFS vehicle will identified to fulfil this function.

Question 153

what is the EMA ops liason officer responsible for

Answer 153

The EMA Ops Liaison Officer will be responsible for the management of the ESRVP

Question 154

Ilyushin Il-76
what apron/ who operates it and what is the wingspan

Answer 154

west apron DHL special handling
wingspan: 50.5m

Question 155

Boeing C-17 Globemaster III
what apron/ who operates it and what is the wingspan

Answer 155

military, aviation solutions west apron
51.75m wingpsan

Question 156

AN-124
what apron/who operates it and what is the wingspan

Answer 156

DHL special handling west apron
73.3m wingspan

Question 157

what is the FCP?

Answer 157

forward command point
The FCP is the point which coordinates the multi-agency response at the incident site and requests further resources as and when required. The FCP will also be the point where all messages are agreed and disseminated from.
2.2 The FCP will usually be the LFRS Command Support Vehicle. If LFRS, or this vehicle itself, are not mobilised or are stood down then an RFFS vehicle will be identified to fulfil this function.
The FCP will be identifiable as it will be the only vehicle at the incident site with blue lights illuminated as per the JESIP protocols.

Question 158

who can declare a major incident

Answer 158

• EMA departments cannot declare a major incident. This will be done by one of the
  arriving emergency services.

Question 159

what is the procedure for on stand/apron evacuation?

Answer 159

The procedure for passenger evacuation on stand/aprons will be for the RFFS Incident
Commander to pass an ‘informative’ message to the Operations (Fire) Control position via RT advising “passengers evacuating”. These self-evacuating passengers will be directed by RFFS/Ground Handling staff to the nearest ‘fire’ or ‘assembly/emergency’ point(s).
b. Operations (Fire) Control position will request coaches from the handling agent and instruct them to go directly to the designated assembly point(s).
c. Passengers will then be transported to the SRC in the West Pier.

Question 160

what is the procedure for manouvering area evacuation?

Answer 160

Manoeuvring area evacuation procedures will commence as per ‘on stand/apron’
procedures. Self-evacuating passengers in the initial stages of an aircraft incident will
be directed to an area of safety as designated by the RFFS Incident Commander using a
dynamic risk assessment, until the arrival of the passenger evacuation management
team
b. As per the ‘on stand/apron’ procedures, passenger coaches will go to the ESRVP and
then be escorted by the Airfield Security Rangers to the incident site. Passengers will
then be transported to the SRC in the West Pier.
c. If ESRVP2 is in operation, then a designated meeting point will be allocated by the
Operations (Fire) Control position who will then inform the Handling Agent

Question 161

what does passenger services do in an aircraft accident?

Answer 161

ops control will let them know what has happened they will then head over to the incident and secure the passengers into an area assessed to be safe by RFFS to await the arrival of the passenger coaches organised by the handling agent.

Question 162

in and aircraft accident emergency what happens to the crew

Answer 162

they will be taken into the SRC by ambulance to be assessed An area will then be identified to take the air crew to dependent on the location of the incident. This will usually be a Crew Room or Airline Office. The crew must not be taken away from the site without prior agreement with the Police as they may need to be interviewed and breathalised.

Question 163

what happens when one of the runway/airport hydrants is not serviceable?

Answer 163

should any of the hydrant systems require a number of repairs, or closing down completely, for contractual maintenance the RFFS must be informed. RFFS will then provide an additional water carrier if available. Where there is no availability for this, LFRS will be informed.

tell them you are east midlands fire control and that one of the pumps is off the run and we will ring them to let them know when it is back on the run. advise if we have an extra water carrier or if we dont

Question 164

where is a6 located

Answer 164

Alpha 6 (A6) intermediate holding point is located in-between November and Quebec on the Alpha taxiway.

Question 165

what is the urgent atc evacuation (not procedure but what do they mean by urgent evacuation)

Answer 165

Procedure – Urgent Evacuation
2.1 ATC will break off any aircraft on final approach outside 2nms. Traffic inside 2nms will be allowed to land and, unless the controlling staff are in imminent danger, tower will not evacuate until the landing traffic has touched down. Following landing, ATC will instruct the aircraft to hold position and shut down. Any traffic pushing back or taxiing will also be instructed to hold position and shut down.
2.2 ATC will advise the CCR using the red phone that ATC is evacuating. ATC will also call Ops 1 on RT and hand over control of the airfield to airfield ops.

Question 166

what is the none urgent atc evacuation (not procedure but what do they mean by none urgent evacuation)

Answer 166

In the event of a non-urgent evacuation, ATC will aim to leave the control tower within 20 minutes. ATC may continue to allow traffic to land and depart at the discretion of the tower controller, however, steps will be taken to ensure that all traffic has left the frequency within the 20 minute period.
3.2 In the case of a non-urgent evacuation, the assistant will call to advise that ATC is evacuating once all traffic has left the frequency. Again, a call will be made on RT to Ops 1 handing the airfield over and the managed closure procedure will be followed.

Question 167

difference between urgent and non urgent atc evacuation?

Answer 167

urgent - cr notified by red phone by atc, atc immediately evacuate after a/c within 2nm land

not urgent - notified by normal phone by atc assistant, evacuation within 20 minutes of call & atc tower controller has discretion to continue landings and take offs if they want to within that 20 mins but not after

Question 168

if esrvp2 is in use who do you inform?

Answer 168

leicester police, hfao and then inform DHL west 1 has been taken out of operation

Question 169

what is the definition of a BA emergency

Answer 169

there are already BA Wearers within a risk area and they themselves have become impacted by something; the work they are doing, a failure of equipment, suffered an injury which individually or together sees them in a position whereby they themselves cannot evacuate the risk area effectively. The term BA EMRGENCY is used to reference an immediate requirement to increase staffing and Breathing apparatus wearers at the incident to now save the lives of the fire crews affected.
from jez paget

Question 170

what do you do when a BA emergency is declared?

Answer 170

ring LFRS to advise

Question 171

what should you do when receiving a stop message to pass onto LFRS?

Answer 171

STOP message- when received, this will turn around all local authority resources not already in attendance at the RVP. This can be given through the AOS (Liaison officer at the RVP), via the orange local authority radios or through fire control and will stop all oncoming resources. You may want to clarify the resources at the RVP prior to passing a STOP message if you think you may still require further assistance.
Obviously due to their proximity Castle Donington may already be on site in the event of a STOP message being passed early on in the incident, if you already know you do not require any further resources consider asking the control room to inform Central 1 gatehouse they are no longer required, before they travel airside.

STAND DOWN message- Local authority do not use this term and only work to the STOP message. Please make every effort to communicate with the local authority OIC, via their orange RVP radio on channel 4, as early as possible during the incident to update them as necessary. If you STAND DOWN the incident then again make contact with the local authority OIC to advise them they are not required and can leave the RVP. This will also serve to clear the fire station of vehicles and personnel prior to your return.

Question 172

define prealarm

Answer 172

Phase 1 is the pre-alert stage.

This is where a single smoke detector head detects something in sufficient quantities to be of concern, if this is fleeting and the substance (perfume, vaping, smoke) disappears the head will re-set and not activate.

Question 173

define afa

Answer 173

Phase 2 is the alert stage.

This is where a single smoke detector head has picked up smoke which does not dissipate quickly and it goes into alert mode. The Control room is notified and the RFFS informed who will investigate.

You should be prepared to evacuate if this goes into evacuation mode.

Question 174

define afa - phase 3

Answer 174

Phase 3 is where 2 smoke detector heads, or a single heat detector head, or an air sampling unit, or a fire alarm call point is activated.

This will put the sector into evacuation mode and adjacent sectors into alert mode (red flashing lights in the centre of detector heads only)

In the sector in full evacuation mode the fire doors (if magnetically locked) will unlock or move to a position that speeds up evacuation, the fire alarm will sound, the voice message will sound, red lights will flash in the ceiling and some fire curtains will drop depending upon their location.

You can safely evacuate into an adjacent sector and remain there on alert (red lights flashing in centre of detector heads) until either the area is declared safe by the fire service or this sector is also put into evacuation, when the process repeats.

Under normal circumstances the terminal will not be evacuated in entirety.

Question 175

what does OPHT mean on protec panel

Answer 175

smoke detector activated

Question 176

what does HEAT mean on protec panel

Answer 176

heat detector activated

Question 177

what does BG mean on protec panel

Answer 177

alarm activated via break glass

Question 178

define manoeuvring area on the airfield

Answer 178

The Part of an Aerodrome provided for the takeoff and landing of Aircraft and for the movement of aircraft on the surface, excluding the apron and any part of the aerodrome provided for the maintenance of aircraft.

Question 179

define apron

Answer 179

A defined area on a land aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers, the loading and unloading of cargo, and for parking.

Question 180

define holding point on the airfield

Answer 180

– points on taxiways that you should not cross without ATC permission

Question 181

define stop bars on the airfield

Answer 181

A row of red lights at a holding point or elsewhere on the taxiway system. When illuminated these become points that you should not cross without ATC permission

Question 182

define cleared and graded area (airfield)

Answer 182

The part of a Runway Strip cleared of all obstacles except for minor specified items, intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft running off the runway.

Question 183

define runway strip

Answer 183

– An area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft running off the runway and to protect aircraft flying over it when taking off or landing.

Question 184

define ils critical area

Answer 184

– An area of defined dimensions extending about the ground antennae of precision instrument approach equipment within which the presence of vehicles or aircraft will cause unacceptable disturbance of the guidance signals

Question 185

are aprons part of the manoeuvring area?

Answer 185

no

Question 186

where does the manoeuvring area permit allow you to drive

Answer 186

The Manoeuvring Area Permit will allow you to operate on the perimeter track, taxiways, runway and grassed areas north of the aprons.

Question 187

where does the AOA airside driving permit allow you to drive

Answer 187

Your AOA Airside Driving Permit allows you to operate on the aprons and associated roadways and in the Maintenance Area only.
(east, central and west aprons and the maintenance areas only)

Question 188

how do you reports lighting faults on the airfield

Answer 188

All faults and/or unserviceabilities found will be reported to AGL via ATC or Airfield
Operations Supervisor. If faults or unserviceabilities are initially passed on verbally
they should be immediately followed up by a written or email report.

. If the unserviceability causes any part of the runway, movement area or apron(s) to
be unsafe for operations, the Airfield Operations Supervisor will close or restrict
access to the affected area, until the unserviceability is rectified.

Question 189

what is an OAN and what is it for

Answer 189

. Notification of major repair works will be promulgated via Operational Advice Notice
(OAN)

Question 190

what is the procedure when a door activation goes off in the maintenence area

Answer 190

• Ranger 1 will attend and investigate the alarm activation.
• Report their findings back to the control room
• If a door is found to be insecure then an attempt should be made to secure it and report back once secure. If it is not possible to secure the door then Ranger 4 is to remain in that location until further resource can be sent.
• In the event ranger 1 attends an alarm activation and it appears there has been forced entry then the control room should be immediately notified, and police assistance is to be requested.
In this event, ranger 1 is not to enter the building and remain at a safe distance and wait for the police to attend

Question 191

what times does runway inspection for AOS’s increase

Answer 191

During the periods of increased wildlife activity, being sunrise (45 minutes before
and 15 minutes after sunrise) and dusk (15 minutes before and 45 minutes after
sunset)

Question 192

what 3 categories do AOS’s label faults

Answer 192

• Monitor (no operational effect but potential to develop)
• Continue to Operate (non-urgent repair required, continue to operate)
• Immediate Closure (urgent repair required

Question 193

who should be notified in the event of a fault being categorised by the AOS as a closure

Answer 193

Head of Fire & Airfield Operations should be notified in the event of a fault being
categorised as an ‘Immediate closure – Urgent repair required’

Question 194

Time check(for this incident) rffs means?

Answer 194

Say what time it is right now

Question 195

what do the movement area checks focus on for ops and how often are they carried out

Answer 195

Inspections of the movement area primarily focusing on the presence of FOD, the status of visual aids, wildlife and current surface conditions, are carried out at least once every 4 hours.

Question 196

in what situations will ops carry out extra movement area inspections

Answer 196

During excessive weather events (excessive heat, freeze and thaw periods, following a significant storm, etc.) extra inspections of paved areas will be conducted to check for pavement failures and debris that could damage aircraft, or cause pilots to lose directional control.

Question 197

what format are ops surface conditions recorded in

Answer 197

Runway inspections will report the surface condition using the Global Reporting Format (GRF).

Question 198

In snow conditions what depth can the contaminated runway operate at?

Answer 198

13 millimetres according to the winter runway assessment procedure

Question 199

How long (distance) do large jets such as 747s and a380s need to take off

Answer 199

Approx 10,000 ft or 3, 300 metres

Question 200

What number would a runway facing west be

Answer 200

27

Question 201

What number would a runway facing east be

Answer 201

09

Question 202

What are the 4 main runway layouts

Answer 202

Single runway - engineers will orient the runway so aircraft can take advantage of prevailing winds
Parallel runways
Open v runways two runways that converge but don’t intersect
Intersecting runways

Question 203

Define the lights on runways and taxiways :
Blue
Green and white
Green and red
White or Amber

Answer 203

Blue lights differentiate taxiways from runways
Green and white flashing beacons indicate a civilian airport to landing aircraft
Green lights Mark the beginning of the runway whilst red lights mark the end.
White or Amber lights define the edges of the runway

Question 204

what does icao stand for

Answer 204

inernational civil aviation organisation

Question 205

who are responsible for when the beams on the airfield break? (mike, jcb, kilo)

Answer 205

P&G, it needs logging via magIT not maximo

Question 206

icao classification code c aircraft

name 6 aircraft types

Answer 206

737, a318, a319, a320, a321, q400

Question 207

icao classification code d aircraft

name 4 aircraft types

Answer 207

757, 767, a300, a310

Question 208

icao classification code e aircraft

name 6 aircraft types

Answer 208

744, 777, 787, a330, a340, a350

Question 209

icao classification code f aircraft

name 2 aircraft types

Answer 209

748, a380

Question 210

what are the two types of runways (approach)

Answer 210

non instrumental and instrumental

Visual Runways (non instrumental) and Nonprecision Instrument Runways, and Precision Instrument Runways (instrumental)

Question 211

what is a visual runway

Answer 211

A visual approach is an approach to a runway conducted under IFR but where the pilot proceeds by visual reference when cleared to do so. This means that the pilot must be visual before the Controller can clear the aircraft for the visual approach.

the pilot is navigating the aircraft based on visual cues and has full control of the aircraft with autopilot disengaged

Question 212

what is a nonprecision instrument runway

Question 213

what is a precision instrument runway

Answer 213

ema does not have a precision approach runway

Question 214

what are runway shoulders and what type does ema have?

Answer 214

runway 09/27 has paved shoulders at 7m wide

Question 215

what is a runway strip and how long is ema’s?

Answer 215

ema has a runway strip that is 300m wide

Question 216

what is a runway graded area?

Question 217

what is a runway end safety area?

Answer 217

an area a the end of a runway intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overshooting the runway and extends for a minimum of 90m

Question 218

what is a runway blast pad?

Answer 218

found at the end of each of the runways designed to prevent erosion caused by aircraft running their engines up to full power just before they start their take off run. theyre marked by yellow chevrons

Question 219

where is the touchdown zone on a runway

Answer 219

between 300m-500m along the runway but to allow for variations the first 900m is marked by paint and supplemented with lights

Question 220

what is a taxiway

Answer 220

it links the aprons with the runway designed for the taxing of aircraft before takeoff or after landing

Question 221

what is a rapid exit taxiway?

Answer 221

a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aircraft to turn off at higher speeds than other taxiways minimising runway occupancy times

Question 222

what are fillets

Answer 222

taxiways are widened at junctions or bends to allow for aircraft to manoeuvre as it follows the curve, these are known as fillets

Question 223

what nose distance should a code a-c aircraft be parked on stand

Answer 223

7.5m from the nose to the head of stand road, building, equipment area or other obstacle directly in front of the aircraft

Question 224

what nose distance should a code d-f aircraft be parked on stando

Answer 224

12m from the nose to the head of stand road, building, equipment area or other obstacle directly in front of the aircraft to allow for manoeuvring of larger tugs, dependent to an extent on the nose to nose gear dimensions

Question 225

what are the minimum clearance distances for an aircraft on stand and any other object or building

Answer 225

code a and b - 3m
code c - 4.5m
code d, e and f - 7.5m

Question 226

what is a notam

Answer 226

notice to airmen
it contains information essential to personel concerned with flight operations but not known far enough in advance to be promulgated by other means

Question 227

what is tora

Answer 227

takeoff run available
the length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off

Question 228

what is toda

Answer 228

take off distance available
the length of the tora plus the length of the clearway if provided

Question 229

what is asda?

Answer 229

accelerate stop distance available
the length of the tora plus the length of the stopway if provided

Question 230

what is lda

Answer 230

landing distance available
the length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft landing

Question 231

who are stop bars controlled by?

Answer 231

atc
all vehicles and aircraft must stop at an illuminated stopbar and can only proceed once it has been turned off

Question 232

what is atis

Answer 232

automatic terminal information service
its a continuous broadcasting of recorded aeronautical information such as current weather, active runways, available approaches and other info

Question 233

what does the AAIB class as a serious incident

Answer 233

an incident involving circumstancing indicating that an accident almost occurred e.g.

• a near collision requiring an avoidance manoeuvre or when an avoiding manoeuvre would have been appropriate to avoid a collision
• an aborted take off on a closed or engaged runway or a take off from such a runway with marginal separation from obstacles
• a landing or attempt on a closed or engaged runway
• all fires and smoke in the passenger compartment or cargo compartments or engine fires
• any event requiring emergency oxygen used by the flight crew
• aircraft structural failure or engine disintegration not classified as an accident
• any case of flight crew incapacitation during flight
• any fuel state that would require the declaration of an emergency by the pilot
• takeoff or landing incidents such as such as over or undershooting the runway
• system failures, weather phenomena, operation outside the approved flight envelope or toher occurances which could caused difficulties controlling the aircraft

Question 234

what is an asr

Answer 234

air safety report

Question 235

what does hot works involve?

Answer 235

-flame cutting apparatus
-oxyacetylene welding apparatus
- electric welding apparatus
-electric welding apparatus
-blow lamps
-grinding equipment
-any other equipment producing flame, intense heat, sparks or bitumen boilers

Question 236

what is information tango etc from ATC to an aircraft?

Answer 236

This is a simple versioning system used in ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service). ATIS messages contain information about the weather at the airport, runways in use etc. This information is transmitted on a dedicated radio frequency and repeated in a loop. The ATIS messages are updated frequently as the weather or operations at the airport change. Every time a new ATIS message is generated, the letter is changed.

Example of an ATIS message:

This is Schiphol arrival information Kilo, main landing runway 18Right. Transition level 50. Two zero zero degrees, one one knots. Visibility 10 kilometres. Few 1300 feet, scattered 1800 feet, broken 2000 feet. Temperature 15, dewpoint 13. QNH 995 hectopascal. No significant change. Contact Approach and Arrival callsign only. End of information Kilo.

Question 237

what is pvd

Answer 237

para visual display equipment
it tunes itself to the localiser of the runway and is used to ensure that aircraft remain on the runway centre line

Question 238

how is surface wind measured?

Answer 238

in velocity which means the direction and speed are always quoted together

Question 239

define wind direction

Answer 239

from which the wind is blowing

Question 240

how is wind in general measured?

Answer 240

in knots

Question 241

what is wind shear?

Answer 241

a change in wind velocity with a change in height and it can be caused by thunderstorms, temperature inversions or strong wind blowing over a surface obstruction

Question 242

what is a dew point

Answer 242

the temperature at which air is holding the maximum amount of water vapour possible without condensing into water droplets

Question 243

what is metar

Answer 243

aviation routine weather report - an actual observation of weather at an aerodrome

Question 244

what is taf

Answer 244

terminal aerodrome forecast - a statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an airport for a specified period

Question 245

cloud cover abbreviations

Answer 245

skc - sky clear
few - few clouds, 1-2 oktas cover
sct - scattered 3-4 oktas cover
bkn - broken 5 - 7 oktas cover
ovc - overcast 8 oktas

example cloud report - sct012 - scattered cloud at 1200ft

Question 246

what is an instrument landing approach and when is it used over visual

Answer 246

if the weather is less than visual flight rules (VFR) prescribe, pilots must use instrument flight rules (IFR). In other words, pilots operate aircraft by referencing the instruments rather than visual reference

Instrument approaches allow an instrument-rated pilot to transition from the flight to the approach in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and then to the landing.

Question 247

what is VFR

Answer 247

VFR stands for “Visual Flight Rules.” This means that a VFR-rated pilot must follow specific guidelines when flying using visual references. A pilot holding a Private Pilot License (PPL) must fly in VFR conditions

This means you will fly using visual references. For instance, you’ll look for landmarks, highways, bodies of water, etc. Pilots are also on the lookout for other aircraft so they can see and avoid them. VFR pilots are dependent upon the weather. Therefore, they must actively watch for any sudden changes that could present low visibility or other dangerous situations. VFR flying is for fair weather days only. VFR pilots must be able to see clearly for 3 statute miles. Also, in most cases, they must remain 500 feet below clouds or 1,000 feet above clouds

Question 248

what is ifr

Answer 248

IFR stands for “Instrument Flight Rules” and allows a pilot who is Instrument Rated (IR) to operate an aircraft by relying almost solely on instruments. Once a pilot holds a PPL, the next step is to be Instrument Rated (IR). This allows the pilot to fly IFR. Every aspect of flying is impacted by these ratings, such as flight planning, taking off, navigation, weather tracking, flight following, radar, and landing.

IFR pilots rely on Air Traffic Control (ATC) for instructions. They file IFR flight plans and rely on their instruments for navigation.

Question 249

what is a Category 1 (CAT 1)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category I

Answer 249

A precision Instrument Approach and Landing with a Decisions Height not lower than 200 feet and with either a visibility not less than 800m, or runway visual range (IRVR) not less than 550m

Question 250

what is a Category 2 (CAT 2)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category 2

Answer 250

A precision Instrument Approach and landing with a Decision Height lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range not less than 300m.

Question 251

what is a Category 3a (CAT 3a)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category 3a

Answer 251

A precision Instrument Approach and landing with either a Decision Height lower than 100ft, or with no decision height and a runway
visual range not less than 175m.

Question 252

what is a Category 3b (CAT 3b)
Operation/Precision Approach Runway, Category 3b

Answer 252

A precision Instrument Approach and landing with either a decision height lower than 50ft, or with no decision height and a runway visual
range less than 175m but not less than 50m.

Question 253

what is the Manoeuvring Area

Answer 253

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding the apron.

Question 254

what is the movement area

Answer 254

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and aprons.

Question 255

what is a taxiway holding position

Answer 255

A designated position intended for traffic control at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles may be required to hold until further cleared to proceed when so instructed by ATC.

Question 256

what code runway does ema have and what does it mean

Answer 256

code 4e runway
an Aerodrome with a reference code 4E can accommodate aircraft with a “Reference Field Length” of 1800m and above and a wingspan up to 65m.

Question 257

what code is taxiway alpha?

Answer 257

code e

Question 258

what code is taxiway golf?

Answer 258

code e

Question 259

what code is taxiway hotel?

Answer 259

code e

Question 260

what code is taxiway sierra?

Answer 260

code d

Question 261

what code is taxiway mike?

Answer 261

code e

Question 262

what code is taxiway whiskey?

Answer 262

code e

Question 263

what code is designator foxtrot?

Answer 263

code e

Question 264

what code are juliet and bravo?

Answer 264

bravo is code e but Juliet taxiway is code E leading off Alpha on to west apron. From junction with Bravo reduces (south) to code D taxilane.

Question 265

what code is kilo? (into rolls royce)

Answer 265

C (Max G650 aircraft)

Question 266

what code is november?

Answer 266

E reducing to C south of
stand 43

Question 267

what code is Quebec?

Answer 267

d

Question 268

what code is romeo?

Answer 268

c

Question 269

what code is charlie?

Answer 269

d

Question 270

what code is tango?

Answer 270

c

Question 271

what code is uniform?

Answer 271

e

Question 272

what code is delta?

Answer 272

d

Question 273

what code is victor?

Answer 273

F (Bespoke limited to
Max span 68.4m M

Question 274

In the event that Taxiway Alpha, to the north of the Central or East Apron is/has to be closed what alternative through routes can be taken for difference code aircraft? (code c and code d)

Answer 274

Taxi lanes Quebec, Charlie, Romeo on the central apron can be used as a through route for code C aircraft and Uniform, Delta and Victor on the east apron can be used as a through route for code D aircraft

Question 275

what category ILS system does ema have?

Answer 275

Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) - ILS systems are provided for both runways. Runway 27 is equipped with a CAT IIIB system, and runway 09 is equipped with a CAT I system.

Question 276

where is holding point alpha 4?

Answer 276

between tango and uniform

Question 277

where is holding point alpha 5?

Answer 277

next to romeo

Question 278

where is holding point alpha 6?

Answer 278

between november and quebec

Question 279

where is holding point alpha 7?

Answer 279

between kilo and mike

Question 280

where is holding point alpha 8?

Answer 280

next to kilo

Question 281

where is holding point alpha 9?

Answer 281

between alpha 10 and juliet

Question 282

where is holding point alpha 10?

Answer 282

between foxtrot and golf

Question 283

how many crew does fire cat 9 require?

Answer 283

Category 9 requires a minimum crew of twelve personnel

Question 284

what is the procedure for upgrading fire cat?

Answer 284

any requests for category 9 or higher (Aeroplane dimensions having an overall length of 61m up to but not including 76m and a maximum fuselage width of 7m) public transport aircraft movements should be directed to the Operations Control Room on 01332 852973 who will request category upgrade with RFFS, requests for upgrade must have a minimum of 12 hours’ notice. The Station Manager will advise Control Room of any change in category when it is
established.

Question 285

which stands on the central apron are self manoeuvring?

Answer 285

Stands 21, 23 and 24 are self-manoeuvring and Stand 31 is self-manoeuvring for aircraft up to JS41 dimensions

Question 286

what stands on the north edge are nose in push back

Answer 286

Stands 20 and 22 are nose in pushback

Question 287

what stand is self manoeuvring on the east apron?

Answer 287

70r

Question 288

what are the parking restrictions for an airstart?

Answer 288

There are no parking restrictions on aircraft requiring an ‘air start’, however ‘cross-bleeds’
will not be allowed until the aircraft is on the taxiway

Inbound aircraft with unserviceable APU’s and /or requiring an “air start” on departure
will not be restricted in terms of parking stands. However, on any stand that adjoins a rear of stand road single engine starts should be used, with second engine start / cross-bleed on the taxiway

Question 289

What stands on the november apron can push simultaneously

Answer 289

stands 40 and, either 44 or 45.
Aircraft pushed from stand 40 are to push back onto the taxi lane facing north abeam stand 41 and then be pulled forward to abeam stand 40.

Question 290

what are the rules for code e aircraft leaving the apron? (not pushback rule)

Answer 290

Code E Aircraft may only push back to face West from stand 73L and can only
leave the Apron via Uniform

Question 291

what are the pushback rules for the 777 on st 73LW?

Answer 291

keep stands 70L-76R vacant during
the Code E pushback / taxi-away manoeuvre. Vehicles and staff on foot must
not enter these stands when the B777-200F is departing the apron under its own power. Once the aircraft is established on the Alpha taxiway normal operations may resume on stands 70L-76R.

Question 292

what stands can be occupied when the 777 is arriving but not on pushback

Answer 292

Stands 70L, 75R, 75 and 76R may be used if a B777 is parked on stand 73L, but
must be vacant for pushback

Question 293

what stands can be occupied when the 747 is arriving but not on pushback?

Answer 293

up to stand 80 can be occupied on arrival but 78-85 but be vacant on pushback

st 86 can be occupied on arrival and pushback

Question 294

what code aircraft can taxi into maintenance north?

Answer 294

Aircraft up to and including code C can taxi into the Maintenance Area North, via holding
point M4. all aircraft must be under positive marshall control and obstacle marshall/wing-walker(s) should be used as required.

Question 295

what code aircraft can taxi from the maintenance north?

Answer 295

Code C aircraft departing from Maintenance Area North, should in all instances be towed
up onto the Mike Taxiway, via holding point M4, subject to clearance from ATC. Engines
can be started only when the aircraft is on the Mike taxiway facing north. Code B or
below can self-manoeuvre up to holding point M4 with onward clearance from ATC.

Question 296

what code aircraft can taxi to and from maintenance south?

Answer 296

Code C aircraft can taxi to and from Maintenance Area South via holding point M5, (ATC onward clearance required from M5 for departing aircraft).

Question 297

can code d aircraft taxi into and out of the maintenance area?

Answer 297

Code D aircraft must be towed into the Maintenance Area from an apron stand, departing Code D aircraft should likewise, be towed to a nominated apron parking stand

Question 298

what is the max size aircraft that can self manoeuvre on the washbay

Answer 298

Aircraft parking on the washbay permitted to self-manoeuvre off (twin engine only, up to
Gulfstream 5)

Question 299

what are the rules for the west apron fingers?

Answer 299

• All aircraft must be towed-on and towed-off these stands.
• An engine shutdown and start up should only take place on Juliet for
  aircraft up to and including code D). Any above code D aircraft, utilising either
  stand 200 or 201 should start or shutdown engines with the aircraft positioned
  on taxiway Bravo
• No engine runs or engine start/shutdowns should take place whilst the aircraft is on
  stands 200-203
• No refuelling to take place on stands 200-203.
• No cargo unloading/loading to take place on stands 200-203.
• Minor aircraft line maintenance can be performed on stands 200-203.

Question 300

what situation is a follow me car available?

Answer 300

LVP3s

Question 301

at what point can you approach a parked aircraft thats just arrived on stand

Answer 301

Marshallers are to ensure that no personnel or vehicles approach an aircraft which has just arrived onto stand until the anti-collision lights have gone out, it has been chocked and the engines have run down.

Question 302

what times are ground runs not permitted?

Answer 302

Engine ground runs will not be approved between 23:00 and 06:00 hour’s local time unless the aircraft concerned is required for an EMA service departing at or before 07:00 hours local time, the same day.

if an aircraft isnt departing or is departing on a positioning flight or the run is for maintenance work it is not permitted under any circumstances

Question 303

bravo/juliet taxiway high power engine run rules

Answer 303

Facing west on the Bravo taxiway with the nose of the aircraft abeam stand 105.

ii. Facing east on the Bravo taxiway with the nose of the aircraft at holding point Bravo.

iii. Facing south on the Juliet taxi lane with the nose of the aircraft abeam stand 124.

iv. Facing north on the Juliet taxi lane with the nose of the aircraft at holding point
Juliet.

Question 304

delta taxiway high power engine run rules

Answer 304

i. Facing west on the Delta taxiway with the nose abeam the Uniform centreline.

ii. Facing East on the Delta taxiway with the nose abeam stand 79.

Wind 360 – 060 do not use east apron
ii. Wind 060 – 120 use either east or west apron
iii. Wind 120 – 150 do not use east apron
iv. Wind 150 – 240 do not use west apron
v. Wind 240 – 270 do not use east apron
vi. Wind 270 – 310 use either east or west apron
vii. Wind 310 – 360 do not use west apron

Question 305

what is the maximum size aircraft that can do a high power engine run on finger 60

Answer 305

cessna 406

Question 306

if ain aircraft goes tech on the walking stands can they do maintenance on it?

Answer 306

To meet the demands of increasing air transport movements and to achieve optimum usage of prime stands i.e. those nearest to the terminal, the priority for stand usage is given to arriving/departing aircraft.
b. When maintenance is undertaken on an aircraft on any apron, which could inhibit its
removal from stand, the flexibility for allocating that particular stand to an
arriving/departing aircraft is reduced. To avoid this, no such line maintenance (as
described) is to be started without the prior permission of Airfield Operations Supervisor on 07880 787543

Question 307

whats is a POA course

Answer 307

to ensure the safety of new employees or to
refresh existing personnel, it is a requirement that all personnel applying for an Airside
Security ID requiring access to ‘outside airside areas’ (zones - 4, 5, 6 or 7) of the CP
must undergo an Airside Safety Briefing,
1.2 The briefing will be entitled “Passport to Operate Airside”, the understanding of which will be delivered in the form of a classroom presentation and measured by the completion of a multiple-choice test.
1.3 The candidate will only receive a Passport to Operate Airside (POA) certificate upon successful completion.

Question 308

what parts of an aircraft must be manned when passengers are boarding or disembarking

Answer 308

Crossings must be manned, aircraft wings manned or using barriers, rear of aircraft managed to prevent egress onto any road or manoeuvring area

Question 309

what is the speed limit for vehicles on the central head of stand roads and crossing points

Answer 309

Vehicles speeds are reduced to a maximum of 5 mph at pedestrian road crossing points and along the entire length of the Central and Central-West apron ‘head of stand’ roadways.
5mph limits are also in force in the following areas:
Central apron roadway, at the head of Stand 7
In the North West corner of the central apron.
West apron abeam stands 123 and 100.
Inside any building (i.e. inbound or outbound baggage dock).

Question 310

which stands are walking stands?

Answer 310

Inbound passengers may walk to the arrivals hall when disembarking from front stands 08 to 11 and from eastern stands 04 to 07, subject to adherence with the requirements detailed above. Stand 12 is a walk-in for domestic passengers only. International passengers must be coached unless special dispensation is given by the Airfield Operations Supervisor.

Question 311

what kinds of passengers need to see borderforce for diverts/offloads?

Answer 311

common and international passengers

If passengers are off loaded into an airside area until they depart on a new or repaired aircraft
they will not need to be seen by Border Force.
1.3 If passengers are off-loaded into a landside area they must be seen and processed by the Border
Force in the Immigration Hall.
1.4 The above also applies to any inbound diverts which originate from outside the UK or Common
Travel Area where passengers are off-loaded at EMA.
1.5 Any passenger who is airside awaiting an international departure which fails to depart (even if
the passenger hasn’t left the embarkation lounge), must be presented to the BF control in International Arrivals. This includes any passenger airside who may have missed the flight departure. On these occasions, the handling agents are responsible for ensuring any Duty-Free items are returned back to the WDF store.
1.6 In the event of a medical emergency for an outbound flight that may result in the passenger being taken to hospital or choosing not to fly, the handling agent is responsible to notifying BF.
1.7 In the event of a medical emergency for an inbound flight that may result in the passenger being taken to hospital, the handling agent is responsible for notifying BF, who may attend the flight to check the passengers documentation

Question 312

what is the procedure for reporting accidents,
incidents, safety occurrences and near miss events airside?

Answer 312

Accidents and Safety Occurrences must be reported without delay to Operations
Control Room (OCR) on 01332 852973.
1.2 If Emergency assistance is required call Ext. 3333 or 01332 818555 giving details of:
- the name and company of the caller
- location
- a description of what happened
- what immediate assistance is required
1.3 The OCR will mobilise the Airfield Operations Supervisor (AOS) to attend the scene
and assess the situation. Should further assistance be required, the AOS should make
the request via the appropriate channels to ensure that a delay in response is not
incurred.
1.4 Airfield Operations maintain operational authority of the scene, until relieved by the
Rescue and Fire Fighting Service (RFFS) or external emergency services.
1.5 All persons involved, witnesses, vehicles, plant, and equipment should not normally
be moved until the AOS is in attendance. However, if in the judgement of the senior
person present or the Officer in Charge of the RFFS their removal is necessary in the
interests of safety or to affect a rescue, this may be done. The scene should be
digitally photographed before being disturbed

Question 313

what is the AOS’s procedure (not the control rooms) when desling with safety occurances, near misses etc

Answer 313

The scene will be digitally photographed to assist with the investigation.
Any incident that causes an injury or any damage to aircraft, vehicle or
equipment, the driver’s Airside Driving Permit (ADP), Marshalling Permit or Passport to Operate Airside (POA) will be withdrawn immediately by the AOS, pending investigation, irrespective of the apparent cause.
Witness Statements will be requested and must be competed using the form
in Appendix 1.
All companies involved in an airside incident should investigate the circumstances leading to the accident or safety occurrence and provide a full written report to the AOS, within 10 days.
The AOS will log all information internally, complete the investigation, and
provide a conclusion, which may include actions or recommendations.
major accidents may be subject to investigation by outside agencies such as the Air Accident Investigation Board or the Police.
All information, pictures, statements and reports plus the results of any investigations as detailed in this manual will be anonymised and made available to assist this process.
Details of any injury will be recorded electronically on Safeport
https://magairports.cammanagementsolutions.co.uk/
In the event the incident that may result in a claim being made against the
airport, the AOS must advise the Airfield Operations Duty Manager (AODM)
who must advise maginsurance@manairport.co.uk

Question 314

who operates the three fuel farms at ema and who do they supply?

Answer 314

There are three fuel farms on site at EMA, operated and managed by North Air Refuelling Services Limited; Valero Limited (through the Texaco brand) and Donington Aviation.
4.2.2 North Air and Valero are the suppliers and distributors of fuel to the scheduled, inclusive tour, cargo and the majority of visiting general aviation aircraft at EMA.

Question 315

what is the vehicle speed limit on the aprons and roadways

Answer 315

There is a maximum speed limit of 15 miles per hour (mph) on the aprons and associated
roadways. On roads with pedestrian crossings, this limit is reduced to 5mph (equivalent to walking pace).

Question 316

in lvp3s can vehicles use the uncontrolled crossings?

Answer 316

in lvp3s the uncontrolled crossings will only be available with the prior permission, and under the control of, Airfield Operations who will be in RT with ATC.

Question 317

what is the apron link road at ema

Answer 317

The apron link road joins the central apron to the west apron and routes across the
November taxi lane and the Mike taxiway and Kilo taxilane.

Question 318

is the apron link road a controlled or uncontrolled crossing

Answer 318

controlled and Drivers using this crossing must hold a valid EMA ‘M’ or ‘R’ ADP

Question 319

can the link road be used in lvps

Answer 319

The link road is not to be used during
these periods, except essential vehicles under escort by Airfield Operations/Security

Question 320

what are the three types of driving permits airside?

Answer 320

• The airside roads and aprons (‘A’ permit)
• The manoeuvring area excluding runways (‘M’ permit)
• The manoeuvring area including runways (‘R’ permit)

Question 321

where can you drive with an a permit

Answer 321

The ‘A’ permit allows the driver to operate on
airside roads and aprons, which include the uncontrolled taxiway crossings.

Question 322

where can you drive with an m permit

Answer 322

The ‘M’ permit allows a driver to operate on the manoeuvring area excluding the runway.
In order to obtain an ‘M’ permit, the driver must have successfully completed a
Radiotelephony (R/T) course and R/T assessment, including a practical element held by EMA Air Traffic Control.

Question 323

where can you drive with an r permit

Answer 323

The ‘R’ permit allows a driver to operate on the EMA runway.

Question 324

what is a code D2 driving offense?

Answer 324

12 points

Any driving offence causing personal injury, serious damage to equipment or
infrastructure, or damage to an aircraft.

Question 325

what is a code D3 driving offense?

Answer 325

6 points

careless driving

Question 326

what is a code D4 driving offense?

Answer 326

12 points

Causing aircraft to take avoiding action

Question 327

what is a code D5 driving offense?

Answer 327

3 points

Dangerous/insecure load

Question 328

what is a code D6 driving offense?

Answer 328

6 points

Driving a vehicle in the wrong direction on the head of stand road (Central Apron)

Question 329

what is a code D10 driving offense?

Answer 329

6 points

Driving between aircraft and Marshaller

Question 330

what is a code D16 driving offense?

Answer 330

4 points

Failing to exercise due care and attention

Question 331

what is a code D27 driving offense?

Answer 331

12 points

Mobile Telephone used whilst driving

Question 332

what is a code D6 driving offense?

Question 333

how are birds reported on the airfield?

Answer 333

Any wildlife reporting by ATC will be communicated directly to the operational AOS via radiotelephony or the control room on extension 2973, who will then re-communicate this information to the AOS. Reporting of wildlife activity by a third party is to be done via the control room on telephone number 01332 852973, the control room will
then re-communicate this information to the AOS at the earliest opportunity without delay

Question 334

what fire cat does rffs provide as standard

Answer 334

EMA provides category 7 (Aeroplane dimensions having an overall length of 39m up to but not including 49m and a maximum fuselage width of 5m) & category 8 on Remission (Aeroplane dimensions having an overall length of 49m up to but not including 61m and a maximum fuselage width of 7m)

Question 335

how many personnel are required for fire cat 9

Answer 335

Cat 9 min. 12 personnel with 3 appropriately qualified supervisory staff on duty

Question 336

how many personnel are required for fire cat 8

Answer 336

Cat 8 min. 09 personnel with 3 appropriately qualified supervisory staff on duty

Question 337

how many personnel are required for fire cat 7

Answer 337

Cat 7 min. 09 personnel with 3 appropriately qualified supervisory staff on duty

Question 338

what should someone do if they receive a bomb threat?

Answer 338

In the event that a member of staff receives a bomb threat they must try to write down and
remember as many details as possible.
2.2 Immediately telephone the Control Room’s emergency number (extension 3333 or 01332
818555) to inform them that a bomb threat has been received. Give the following information:
a. Your name and where you work
b. How the threat was received i.e. phone call or email
c. Your present location and a contact telephone number
2.3 Relay the details of the threat and include (if known):
Where the bomb is?
When it is going to explode?
What it looks like?
Why the caller is doing this?
Who is making the threat?
2.4 The Control Room or Airport Duty Manager (ADM) may ask you to complete a form to provide
further details of the threat. Ensure that this is done as promptly as possible.

Question 339

what information should be passed to the control room when reporting a first aid or ambulance request

Answer 339

Nature of injury/illness (please give as much detail as possible including nature, severity)
Is the casualty conscious and/or breathing? is breathing laboured
medical history of the patient, name and dob of patient
Location of casualty (please be as exact as possible and include flight number if on board aircraft)
Who is currently with the casualty? (staff, first aider etc.)
Name and company of person calling 3333
Telephone number to contacted if further details are required

Question 340

what should the control room do if refueling on stand with passengers on board is requested

Answer 340

The Operations Control Room, ext. 2973, is to be informed by the Handling Agent if it is
intended to conduct aircraft fuelling operations with passengers on board. Although not required, EMA RFFS will attend if requested to do so. Requests for this service should be made through The Operations Control Room who will ring ext2999.

Question 341

what types of aircraft can carry explosives 1.1-1.3

Answer 341

Explosives in Divisions 1.1 to 1.3 may only be carried on dedicated cargo aircraft;

Question 342

what arrangements do explosives division 1.4 need?

Answer 342

Explosives in Division 1.4 do not require any special precautions on the ground for their handling or for the remote parking of an aircraft carrying them, no matter what quantity is involved.

Question 343

what area do explosives division 1.1, 1.2 and 1.3 park and when can they be loaded and unloaded

Answer 343

They can be parked on west apron stands but for un/loading they need to be parked on DG 1,2 or 3 The loading, unloading and transiting of Dangerous Goods in these areas is only permitted between the hours of 06:00 and 18:00 local time (05:00z-17:00z).

Question 344

what are ravps

Answer 344

Reduced Aerodrome Visibility Procedures

Question 345

who do you inform when in LVPS

Answer 345

AOS and Rangers
RFFS via Tannoy then written in the log book
Airport Duty Manager so that preparations can be made for any possible delays/cancellations/diverts

Question 346

why do planes have winglets

Answer 346

Winglets on a plane help reduce vortexes that form due to the difference in pressure between air above and below the wing. This helps stabilize the plane and improves the efficiency of the design, helping the plane burn less fuel.

Question 347

what runway approaches are available when in LVPs

Answer 347

CAT II/III approaches are available on Runway 27 or LTS CAT I approaches are
available on Runway 09,

Question 348

what runway approaches are not available when in ravps

Answer 348

Should a condition arise whereby the airfield requires safeguarding in poor visibility but
neither CAT II/III approaches nor LTS CAT I approaches are available, the term Reduced
Aerodrome Visibility Procedures shall be used to describe such safeguarding operations.

Question 349

who is the only one able to declare lvps/ravps

Answer 349

ATC will be the single point of contact for determining the current status of LVPs/ RAVPs

Question 350

when are lvps declared

Answer 350

When Met or IRVR visibility falls to 1500m and/or the cloud ceiling lowers to 300ft

Question 351

who can use the uncontrolled crossings in lvps?

Answer 351

Drivers using uncontrolled crossings must have sufficient visibility to ensure that their
vehicle can safely proceed without endangering themselves, other vehicles or any aircraft that may be manoeuvring or about to manoeuvre, otherwise an escort from a member of the Airfield Operations Team (AOS or Airfield Security Rangers) must be requested.

Question 352

who can use the controlled crossings in lvps?

Answer 352

The controlled taxiway crossing that links the Central and West Aprons, crossing the
November and Mike taxiways and the crossing at Kilo taxiway are closed to all traffic,
except essential vehicles escorted by a member of the Airfield Operations Team (AOS or Airfield Security Rangers) from ‘West Link November’ to West Link Kilo 2’.

Question 353

can you do engine runs or ground movements in lvps?

Answer 353

no

Question 354

in lvp3s when a follow me car has been requested, where do aircraft wait

Answer 354

For arriving aircraft on Runway 27, the lead vehicle will wait at the appropriate stopbar, Alpha 10 or Alpha 9, until the vehicle is seen by the pilot, and then lead the aircraft to stand. For Runway 09, the vehicle will wait at A3

Question 355

when are lvp3s in force?

Answer 355

when visibility drops to 300m or below

Question 356

who can use the uncontrolled crossings in lvp3s

Answer 356

When LVP3’s are in force (usually when visibility is below 300m) uncontrolled crossings are closed to regular vehicles and vehicles may only use the uncontrolled crossings on the Central and West Apron with the prior permission of & under the control of a member of the Airfield Operations Team (AOS or Airfield Security Rangers) who will be in radio contact with ATC

Question 357

who is responsible for clearing the walkways from stands on the central of ice/snow?

Answer 357

AOS

walkways will be de-iced or snow cleared in the order of standard departure/arrival time.

Question 358

define strong winds

Answer 358

• Strong Wind - Mean speed 24+ kts

Question 359

define gale force winds

Answer 359

• Gale Force Wind - Mean speed 34+ kts

Question 360

define severe gale force winds

Answer 360

• Severe Gale Force Wind - Mean speed 44+ kts

Question 361

define storm force winds

Answer 361

• Storm Force Wind - Mean speed 52+ kts

Question 362

define violent storm force winds

Answer 362

• Violent Storm Force Wind - Mean speed 60+ kts

Question 363

in high winds a handling agent requests to park into wind, what is the procedure?

Answer 363

Parked aircraft may sustain damage to control surfaces or may risk ground-swinging (‘weathercocking’) in strong wind conditions. It will be for airlines and aircraft engineers to determine whether it is desirable to park any particular aircraft facing into wind.
the relevant operator must contact perations/Fire Control on ext. 2973. Aircraft must not be re-positioned without approval from the Airfield Operations Supervisor who will consider any possibility of impact on taxiway strips and adjacent stands be suspected.
Permission to park non-standard will be given by the AOS.
Aircraft will not normally be allowed to park non-standard under their own power but will require to be re-positioned by a tug after arrival and disembarkation. Likewise, aircraft parked non-standard into wind will not normally be permitted to self-manoeuvre off stand due to the hazards posed by jet blast, particularly on pier-served/contact stands.
ATC will be advised before this happens

Question 364

where is the only place aircrafts can be washed with detergent

Answer 364

Detergents and other cleaning chemicals can cause pollution of watercourses. Washing of aircraft using detergents is therefore only permitted on the aircraft wash-down point, as runoff from this area is discharged via the airports drainage system to the foul sewer for treatment.

the washpoint is washbay finger 63

Question 365

what is the largest aircraft that can go on the washpan?

Answer 365

The maximum size of aircraft which can be accommodated on the pan is a Boeing 767-200W (which may only access the maintenance area under tow)

Question 366

when aircraft need the washbay to wash their aircraft who holds the key to the water supply

Answer 366

the key must be collected (and signed for) from Airfield Operations (07880 787543)

Question 367

where can engine core washes be done

Answer 367

Engine core washes can only be completed on the Aircraft Washbay. Engine washes are not
permitted during periods of inclement weather (where the temperature is at or is forecast to reach freezing point). For the clarification, a dry engine run (where no fuel is ignited) following an engine wash does not require an engine run permit.
‘Enclosed’ engine core washes are not permitted on central apron stands that have a rear of stand road running behind them as this type of engine wash requires a ‘dry’ engine run throughout, necessitating the aircraft anti-collision lights to be turned on. In addition, an idle engine run may be required post wash. Preferred stands to be used for enclosed engine washes are those on the central west apron and the north edge of the central apron.

Question 368

what other hazardous spills should be reported to rffs via local and tannoy

Answer 368

Operators are to ensure that spills of any chemicals which are deemed to be hazardous are reported immediately to Operations (Fire) Control. Examples of such chemicals include but are not limited to de-icer, anti-icer, fuel, oil, paint. Spills of other wastes which must also be reported are toilet waste, detergent, dispersant, AdBlu.

The EMA RFFS have specific
procedures for dealing with such incidents.

Spills of toilet waste must be contained to prevent emission to surface water drains and
removed to the discharge point known as the ‘mono-muncher’ in the Mitie-operated waste
compound as soon as possible. Toilet waste must not be washed into the surface water drains.

Question 369

can aircraft in the maintenance area be de-iced?

Answer 369

no, If aircraft are in a maintenance area and need to be de-iced, they must be pulled to the
central apron.

Question 370

what is the procedure when billing advises an aircraft cannot leave and hasnt paid its bill

Answer 370

advise ATC that the aircraft is not to be given permission to leave/move from its location
inform the ADM of the situation and inform the adm again if the aircraft tries to leave
handover to other CROs not to let the aircraft leave EMA

Question 371

What is England’s only inland freeport

Answer 371

East midlands airport

Question 372

How do you find about abiut serviceability when giving information for standbys

Answer 372

Atis

Question 373

gate 1 is at

Answer 373

stand 8

Question 374

gate 2 is at

Answer 374

stand 9 (opposite domestic doors)

Question 375

gate 3 is at

Answer 375

stand 10

Question 376

what is a cat 1 responder

Answer 376

responders who are the main organisations involved in emergency response at a
local level (for example, Police, Fire, Ambulance and Councils)

Question 377

what are cat 2 responders

Answer 377

category 2 responders
(for example, utilities companies and transport companies). EMA is a category 2 responder.

Question 378

what is the AODM responsible for in an emergency

Answer 378

The AODM undertakes the role of Aerodrome Coordinator of Disabled Aircraft Removal
Operations.

Question 379

what is the AOS responsible for in an emergency

Answer 379

The AOS is responsible for the efficient management of the ESRVP

Question 380

what are the rangers responsible for in an emergency?

Answer 380

providing escorts for the emergency
services from the ESRVP to the incident site

Question 381

what is the ADM responsible for in an emergency

Answer 381

a. to oversee the incident at an operational level (with the exception of the incident site itself). This will involve internal and external
briefings and communications
b. The ADM will also monitor other affected flights and assist where appropriate with
delays and diversions.
c. The ADM is responsible for the management of the Control Room and ensuring that they have activated the relevant emergency procedures during an incident.
d. The ADM will lead the Duty Management Team.

Question 382

what is security responsible for during an emergency?

Answer 382

a. The main responsibility of Security during an aircraft incident is to assist the Police to
set up and facilitate the SRC
b. During an aircraft incident requiring a FFRC Security will also be responsible for
derestricting the East Lounge and ensuring that the integrity of the Critical Part is
protected.

Question 383

what is passenger services responsible for in an emergency?

Answer 383

a. Passenger Services are responsible for the PEMs procedure through the provision of a
Passenger Evacuation Management Team.
b. Additionally, Passenger Services undertake the role of Airport Manager in the FFRC.

Question 384

what is airfield engineering responsible for in an emergency?

Answer 384

In the event of an incident occurring on the runway or airfield, Airfield Engineering are
responsible for ensuring that the navaids and airfield lighting have not been damaged.
They will also provide advice where necessary on the safety implications of any damage
which has been incurred.
b. Airfield Engineering will also provide the AAIB with voice and radar recordings and any
other information as required.

Question 385

what is the difference between a precision approach radar and an ILS

Answer 385

A PAR approach is typically equivalent to a Cat 1 ILS approach. It’s the control part that is very different. You can only have 1 PAR approach ongoing per controller, where you can stack up aircraft on ILS approaches as long as you have the separation. Also, a PAR requires no equipment in the cockpit other than a radio. The controller on the ground interprets the radar display and gives the pilot headings to steer and glidepath corrections.

Most civilian airports no longer have precision approach radars. Although in the north east Teesside and Humberside still do.

Question 386

what does VOR stand for

Answer 386

Very High frequency Omnidirectional beacon

Question 387

what is ndb and what is it used for

Answer 387

Non-directional beacon

flight training

Question 388

what part of a plane is the fuselage

Answer 388

The fuselage is the body of the airplane. It holds the passengers, pilots, and cargo

Question 389

what is controlled airspace

Answer 389

Airspace is controlled where air traffic control services are provided. Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace is controlled.

Question 390

what is uncontrolled airspace

Answer 390

Airspace is uncontrolled if air traffic control does not exercise control of aircraft within the airspace area. Class G airspace is uncontrolled.