OPP MSI exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of the thoracic cage

A

resiration, protection, pump for venous and lymphatic return and support structure for upper extremities

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2
Q

T1-T3 lcation of spinous process

A

at level of transverse process of its own

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3
Q

T4-T6 location of spinous process

A

halfway between 2 transverse processes

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4
Q

T7-T9 location of spinous process

A

level of transverse process of vertebrae below it

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5
Q

T10-T12

A

about the same level as it sown transverse process but not exactly equal

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6
Q

definition of true ribs

A

attach directly to the sternum via chostochondral cartilage

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7
Q

what ribs are true ribs

A

ribs 1-7

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8
Q

definition of false ribs

A

attach to sternum via synchondrose to the costochondral cartilage of rib 7

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9
Q

which ribs are false ribs

A

8-12

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10
Q

which ribs are floating ribs

A

11-12

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11
Q

definition of floating ribs

A

do NOT attach to the sternum AT ALL

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12
Q

which ribs are typical ribs

A

ribs 3-9 and sometimes 10

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13
Q

which ribs are atypical ribs

A

1,2, 11,12 and sometimes 10

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14
Q

What landmarks will typical ribs have

A

tubercle, head, neck, angle, and shaft

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15
Q

head of rib

A

articulates with corresponding and immediately superior vertebrae via demifacets

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16
Q

what part of the rib contains the costal groove

A

shaft

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17
Q

ribs _______ rotate at the ____________ joint

A

ribs 1-7 rotate at costotransverse joint

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18
Q

ribs __________glide at the ________joint

A

8-10, costotransverse joint

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19
Q

do ribs 11 and 12 articulate with the transverse process

A

NO!

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20
Q

rib 1 is what type of joint

A

synchodrosis (non-synovial)

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21
Q

ribs 2-7 are what type of joints

A

synovial articulations; plane gliding

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22
Q

why is rib 2 atypical

A

because of its large tuberosity for serratus anterior

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23
Q

why are ribs 11 and 12 atypical

A

articulate only with corresponding vertebrae and LACK tubercles

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24
Q

why is rib 1 atypical

A

has not rib angle

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25
Q

an elevated rib 1 can affect ___________-

A

lower brachial plexus

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26
Q

pump handle motion is primarily ribs

A

ribs 2-5

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27
Q

bucket handle motion is primarily ribs

A

6-10

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28
Q

caliper motion is primarily ribs

A

11 and 12

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29
Q

motion of pump handle motion is in what plane

A

sagittal plane

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30
Q

pump handle motion is BEST palpated at _____________

A

midclavicular line

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31
Q

the axis of motion for pump handle motion is

A

costovertebral-costotransverse line

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32
Q

pump handle motion

A

ribs move anterior and superior with inhalation

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33
Q

bucket handle motion

A

ribs move laterally and increase transverse diameter with inhalation

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34
Q

bucket handle motion is in what plane

A

coronal plane

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35
Q

where is bucket handle motion best palpated ?

A

mid-axillary line

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36
Q

axis of motion of bucket handle ribs is

A

costovertebral-costosternal line

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37
Q

caliper motion

A

ribs EXTERNALLY rotate with inhalation

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38
Q

what is the plane of motion for caliper motion

A

transverse plane

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39
Q

caliper motion is best palpated

A

3-5 cm lateral to transverse processes

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40
Q

axis of motion for caliper motion is

A

vertical line

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41
Q

what are the principle muscles involved in rib elevation

A

diaphragm, external intercostals, and intercondroal part of internal intercostals

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42
Q

what are the accessory muscles of inspiration

A

sternocleidomastiod, scalenes and serratus anterior, levatores costarum

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43
Q

what muscle is also active during FORCED inspiration

A

pectoralis minor

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44
Q

what structures are involved in quiet breathing

A

passive recoil from the lungs and diaphragm relaxation

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45
Q

during active breathing what muscles are active in expiration

A

internal and innermost intercostals and abdominal muscles

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46
Q

accessory muscles of expiration

A

serratus posterior inferior and external/internal obliques and transversus abdominus and transversus thoracis

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47
Q

characteristics of inhalation SD

A

elevates with ease, exhalation restruction, won’t move inferior with expiration

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48
Q

what is the key rib for inhalation SD

A

lower rib

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49
Q

exhalation SD

A

moves inferior with ease, inhalation restriction

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50
Q

key rib for exhalation SD

A

upper rib

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51
Q

sympathetic innervation comes from what spinal cord levels

A

T1-L2

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52
Q

parasympathetic innervation somes from

A

vagus and S2-S4

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53
Q

what is the definition of viscerosomatic reflex

A

a reflex, iritation, or disease of an internal organ results in reflex dysfunction of a segmentally related muscuoskeletal region, reflex is mediated from autonomic to somatic nerves

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54
Q

T1-T4

A

thoracic region

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55
Q

chapman reflexes

A

anterior and posterior tender points that may be the result from viscerosomatic reflexes

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56
Q

5-6 right chapman reflex

A

liver

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57
Q

6 and 7 right chapman reflex

A

gallbladder and liver

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58
Q

5 and 6 left chapman reflex

A

stomach acid,

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59
Q

6 and 7 left chapman reflex

A

stomach peristalsis

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60
Q

T4 corresponds to

A

sternal angle or angle of louis

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61
Q

T9 corresponds to

A

xiphoid process

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62
Q

L3/L4 corresponds to

A

umbillicus

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63
Q

boundaries for thoracic inlet

A

manubrium, 1st rib, and T1

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64
Q

inhalation rib stretch

A

flex arms 90 degrees on inhalation, hold 4-5 seconds and bring arms down in exhalation

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65
Q

inhalation rib isometrics

A

press firmly on lower ribs, inhale, hold and continue hand pressure during exhalation

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66
Q

exhalation abdominal stretch

A

put hands on upper abdominals, push abdomen while exhalating, maintain hand pressure as you inhale, hold inhalation for 4-5 seconds

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67
Q

1st rib attachment

A

anterior (pump) and middle scalene (bucket)

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68
Q

2nd rib attachment

A

posterior scalene

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69
Q

ribs 3-5 attachment

A

pectoralis minor pump

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70
Q

ribs 6-10 attachment

A

serratus anterior bucket

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71
Q

ribs 11-12 attachment

A

lattisimus dorsi caliper

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72
Q

rib 12

A

quadratus lumborum caliper

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73
Q

who said this β€œIn all disease processes, there is hypersympathetic activity.”

A

Korr

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74
Q

what are the three main components of connective tissue

A

cells, ECM and muscles

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75
Q

ECM contains

A

ground substance PAG, fibers, arteries, veins, lymphatics, and nerve receptors and nerves

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76
Q

what are the four layers of fascia

A

pannicular, investing, visceral and meningeal

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77
Q

what fascial layer is associated with myofascia

A

investing or deep fascia

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78
Q

functions of fascia

A

structural support, compartmentalization, nutritional support, immunity,lymphatics, repair, sensorimotor, communication and helps regulate cell function

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79
Q

adaptability

A

ability to respond to the stresses to meed needs of the system

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80
Q

plasticity

A

ability to be formed and molded

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81
Q

elasticity

A

recoverability after stretching

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82
Q

viscosity

A

rate of deformation under load and capability to yield under stress

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83
Q

what are the four biophysical characteristics of connective tissue/fascia

A

adaptability, plasticity, elasticity, and viscosity

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84
Q

colloid

A

non preciptating suspensoin (ie starch)

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85
Q

solgel

A

colloids that have properties of both solids and liquids

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86
Q

type 1 collagen

A

most connective tissue

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87
Q

type 2 collagen

A

cartilage

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88
Q

type 3 collagen

A

reticular fibers

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89
Q

type 4 collagen

A

basal lamina

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90
Q

type 5 collagen

A

bone minderal matrix

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91
Q

how many known types of collagen

A

25

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92
Q

the membrane matrix contains

A

integrins

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93
Q

cytoskeleton contains

A

microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments

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94
Q

nuclear matrix contains

A

chormatin, histones, chromatin associated proteins

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95
Q

extracellular matrix contain

A

collagens lamins, fibronectins and proteolgycans

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96
Q

what are the three special properties of fascia

A

tensegrity, piezoelectric and non-neurologial communication

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97
Q

definition of tensegrity

A

architectural system in which structures stabilize themselves by balancing couteracting forces of compression and tension

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98
Q

mechanotranduction

A

mechanical force acting on a cell membrane causes opening of mechanosensitive pores and distortion of mechanosensitive proteins resulting in signal tranduction into cell and nucleus that causes the generation of a cellular response

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99
Q

what is the piezoelectric phenomenon

A

mechanical stress is transformed into electrical potentials and electrical potentials are transformed into mechanical motion

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100
Q

ELF frequency

A

less than 100 Hz

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101
Q

β€œliving matrix”

A

fascia acts as a giant liquid crystal which creates large coherent laser like vibrations secondary o molecular array oscillations

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102
Q

___________are responsible for change of tissue viscosity from sol gel

A

arrrays

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103
Q

______allow for rapid intercommunication outside the nervous system

A

arrays

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104
Q

semiconduction

A

arrays allow for rapid intercommunication outside of NS

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105
Q

antenna

A

arrays receive energy from or send energy to external environment

106
Q

wolff’s law

A

every change in the function of a bone is follows by DEFINITE changes in internal architexture and external conformation in accordance with mathematical laws

107
Q

mechanical stress results in ________

A

bone remodeling

108
Q

compression is (electropositive or negative) and is associated with bone (formation or resorption)

A

eletronegative, bone formation

109
Q

tension is (electroposotive or negatie) and is associated with bone (formation or resportion)

A

positive resorption

110
Q

hooke’s law

A

stress applied to stretch or compress a body is proportional to the strain (chagne in length produce) so long as the limit of elasticity is not exceeded

111
Q

the body is designed to produce __________- and ________- responses to stress in an effort to maintain ______________

A

ordered and precise, homeostasis

112
Q

____________is the reactive component of fascia which handles the mechanical and internal stress it is the mediator of repiar, maintenance and healing

A

collagen

113
Q

_________________ of colagen allows it to respond to chagnes in mechanical stress and bioelectrical potentials inteligently

A

piezoelectric

114
Q

somatic dysfunction

A

impaired or alteredfunction of related components of the somatic system including sekeltal, arthrodial and myofascila elements related to vascular, lypmhatic and neural elements

115
Q

non-neurolgical communication definition

A

electrical communication through fascia outside of the nervous system

116
Q

what are the three true pelvic ligaments

A

anterior sacroiliac, interosseous, and posterior sacroiliac

117
Q

what are the three accessory ligaments

A

sacrotuberous, iliolumbar and sacrospinous ligaments

118
Q

the innominate consist of what three bones

A

ilium, ischium and pubic bones

119
Q

when the patient is supine you can check for

A

ASIS levelness, ASIS compression test, pubic tubercles and medial malleoli levelness

120
Q

when the patient is prone you can check for

A

iliac crests, PSIS levelness, iliolumbar ligaments, ischial tuberosities, sacrotuberous ligaments

121
Q

in a standing flexion test the motion restriction is when

A

PSIS moves cephalad

122
Q

in a standing flexion test where do you put your thumbs

A

UNDER the PSIS

123
Q

seated flexion test evaluates for

A

sacroiliac dysfunction

124
Q

seated flexion tests removes what as a factor

A

innomiates

125
Q

what are the three pelvic motions

A

sacral motions on ilium
ilial on sacrum
pubic motions

126
Q

what type of articulation is the pubic bone

A

fibrocartilagenous articulation

127
Q

what are the three pubic motions

A

caliper, torsional, superioinferior translator

128
Q

superior pubic shear

A

one pubic bone is displaced compared to the other

129
Q

etiology of superior pubic shear

A

tight rectus abdominus or trauma

130
Q

inferior pubic shear

A

ASIS level or inferior

PSIS level or superior

131
Q

etiology of inferior pubic shear

A

tight adducts or trauma

132
Q

pubic aDduction appears

A

bulding of pubic symphysis, tenderness and pt has urinary syptoms

133
Q

pubic abduction appears as

A

sulcus DEEPer than normal, tenderness, urinary symptoms

134
Q

anterior innominate rotation

A

ASIS inferior
PSIS superior
side of dysfunction as tight hamstring, sciatica and tissue changes at ILA (tight quads)

135
Q

Posterior innominate rotation

A

ASIS superior
PSIS inferior
groin pain, medial knee pain, tissue changes at sacrial sulci, tight hamstrings

136
Q

superior innomiate shear

A

ASIS-superior
PSIS superior, pelvic pain
etologiy-a fall to the butt

137
Q

inferior innominate shear

A
ASIS more inferior
PSIS more inferior
pubic ramus inferior
pelbic pain
rare
138
Q

innominate flare

A

ASIS is medial or lateral to its usual position, (ASIS to ASIS to umbilicus to pubic bone) greater laxiity of side of flare

139
Q

how many landmarks do you need to diagnose the pelvis

A

3

140
Q

two of the 3 land marks must be _______- to diagnose the pelvis

A

same side of body (ant or post)

141
Q

a positive seated flexion indicates

A

sacroilliac dysfunction

142
Q

what does the ASIS compression test tell you

A

side of dysfunction

143
Q

conventional medicine is based on __________ and involves care that is

A

biochemical and physical properties

interventional, symptomatic and emergency

144
Q

complementary or alternative medicine (CAM) is based on ________ that involves

A

alternative paradigms

holistic, interdimensional root cause

145
Q

clinical horizon is

A

the point at which disease is detected

146
Q

chiropractic, naturopathy, oriental medicine, homeopathy, ayurvedic herbals, nutritional supplemenets are examples of

A

alternative medicine

147
Q

exercise, weights, aerobics, stretching, and water therapy are examples of

A

traditional physical therapy

148
Q

massage, rolfing, trigger point myotherapy, alexander technqiue, felden krais, watsu yoga, tai chi, pilates, and qi gong are examples of

A

alternatie PT

149
Q

psychotherapies

A

guided imagery, visualization, neurofeedback, somatoemotional release, energy psychology

150
Q

what are the 8 categoreis of CAM

A
1 alternative systems
2 botanicals
3 energy medicine
4 manipulative medicine
5 movement therapies
6 mind body interactions
7 pharmocoligic
8 diet/ nutritional/ lifestyle changes
151
Q

osteopathy is what category of CAM

A

alternative system

152
Q

chiropracty is in what categori of CAM

A

alternative system

153
Q

naturopathy and homeopathy is in what categroy of CAM

A

alternative system

154
Q

oriental medicine is in what category of CAM

A

alternative systems

155
Q

ayurveda is in what category of CAM

A

ayurveda

156
Q

what are the two categories of botanicals

A

herbalism and essential oils

157
Q

OMT is an example of what type of CAM

A

energy medicine

158
Q

acupuncture is an example of what type of CAM

A

energy medicine

159
Q

meridian regulation

A

energy medicine

160
Q

qi gong

A

energy medicine

161
Q

reiki

A

energy medicine

162
Q

therapeutic touch and healing

A

energy medicine

163
Q

jin shin

A

energy medicine

164
Q

chakra therapies

A

energy medicine

165
Q

magnetic therapies

A

energy medicine

166
Q

polarity therapies

A

energy medicine

167
Q

zero balancing

A

energy medicine

168
Q

tenscam

A

energy medicine

169
Q

acoustic therapies

A

energy medicine

170
Q

color therapies

A

energy medicine

171
Q

omt

A

manipulation and therapeutic bodywork

172
Q

craniosacral theray

A

manipulation

173
Q

therapeutic massage

A

manipulation

174
Q

chiropractic

A

manipulation

175
Q

trigger point myotherapy

A

manipulation

176
Q

rolfing

A

manipulation

177
Q

reflexology

A

manipulation

178
Q

alexander technique

A

movement therapy

179
Q

pilates, yoga, tai chi, watsue, and dance therapy

A

movement therapy

180
Q

biofeedback

A

mind body therapy

181
Q

hypnosis

A

mind body therapy

182
Q

guided imagery

A

mind body therapy

183
Q

energy psycyology

A

mind body therapies

184
Q

shamanism

A

mind body therapy

185
Q

meditation

A

mind body therapy

186
Q

prayer

A

mind body therapy

187
Q

chelation therap

A

pharmacologic

188
Q

prolotherapy

A

pharmocologic

189
Q

platelet rich plasma

A

pharmocologic

190
Q

orthomolecular medicine

A

nutrition CAM

191
Q

first ostepathic class

A

1892

192
Q

first chiropractic class

A

1896

193
Q

What are the three main types of chiropracty

A

straight, mixers and netowrk spinal analysis

194
Q

______________founded first naturapthic scull

A

benedict lust

195
Q

3 principles of naturopathic philsophy

A
body is self helaing
symptoms a sign body is striving to rid toxins and return homeostasis
holistic apporach (mind body spirit)
196
Q

homeopathy

A

treating like with like

197
Q

who is the founder of homeopathy

A

samuel hanemann

198
Q

law of similars

A

prescribing minute doses of a substance that causes similar sypmtoms of disease

199
Q

law of cure

A

remedies from top to bottom, inside to out, major to minor organs

200
Q

oriental medicine includes

A

traditional chinese medicine, 5 elements and french energetics

201
Q

what are the five elements involved in oriental medicine

A

wood, water, fire, earth and metal

202
Q

ayurveda

A

developed in india β€œscience of life”

203
Q

what are the 5 elements of ayurveda

A

ether, air, fire, water, earth

204
Q

kapha

A

water and earth

205
Q

pitta

A

fire and water

206
Q

vata

A

air and ether

207
Q

pancha karma

A

emetics, purgative, enema, nasal administration of medication, purification f blood

208
Q

wuwei

A

no action out of harmony with nature

209
Q

definition of energy

A

ability to do work

210
Q

forms of energy include

A

kineitc, potential chemical, electromagnetic, heat elastic gravity and others

211
Q

first law of thermodynamics

A

energy cannot be created or destroyed

212
Q

bioenergetics

A

study on how endogenous and exogenous energy sources forms influence and control living systems and their environment

213
Q

bioenergy

A

energy produced endogenously by living systems

214
Q

bioelectromagnetics

A

study of interaction between electromagnetic fields and biological living systems

215
Q

bioelectromagnetism

A

inherent ability of living cells, tissues, and organisms to produce and emit electrical,magnetic fields and the response of cells to electromagnetic fields

216
Q

sources of bioenergy

A
heart
blood circulation
brain activity
biochemical reactions
electrical conduction through the neuromusculoskeletal system
217
Q

energy medicine

A

system of diagnosis and treatment that utilize biophsyical principles and energetics

218
Q

______________ said all medicine is energy medicine the energetic perspective hodls key to the future of the entire medical enterprise

A

oschman

219
Q

OMT that uses energy medicine

A

dynamic strain-vector release
neurofascial release
bioelectric fascial activation and release

220
Q

biofield

A

extremely week complex electromagnetic field of the organism

221
Q

biofield therapy

A

any therapeutic modality that interacts and changes the biofield and its manifestations

222
Q

bone growth occurs at

A

7 hz

223
Q

nerve regeneration

A

2 hz

224
Q

ligament healing

A

10hz

225
Q

sacralization of L5

A

fusion of L5 to S1

226
Q

lubarization of S1

A

s1 failed to fuse to sacrum

227
Q

ferguson angle

A

An angle between the line of inclination of the lumbosacral junction and a line parallel to the floor.
The angle should ideally be between 25 and 35 degrees.

228
Q

sacral plexus

A

contains both motor and sensory in the pelvis and lower extremity

229
Q

sacral parasympathetics level

A

s2-s4

230
Q

ganglion impar

A

where the right and left sympathetic chain joins the rest on the anterior surface of the coccyx

231
Q

superior transvser sacral axes

A

respiratory and craniosacrlal motion at s2

232
Q

middle transverse sacral axis

A

postural motion at s2 (sacroiliac axis)

233
Q

inferior transerse sacral axis

A

innominate rotation at s3

234
Q

flexion and extension of sacrum occur about what axis

A

middle transverse axis

235
Q

rotation of sacrum occurs at the

A

vertical axis

236
Q

side bending of the sacrum occurs at the

A

AP axis

237
Q

what does the spring test test for

A

forward torsions

238
Q

where is the heel of your hand in a spring test

A

lumbarsacral junction

239
Q

good spring means

A

negative test

240
Q

a positive spring tests means

A

backward torsion, uni/bilateral sacral extension

241
Q

a negative spring test means

A

forward torsion or unibilateral sacral flexion

242
Q

forward torsions include

A

left on left or right on right

243
Q

left on left

A

right deep
posterior left ILA
positive seated flexion right
spring neg

244
Q

right on right

A

deep left
posterior right ILA
seated flexion postivie left
spring neg

245
Q

backward torsions include

A

left on right or right on left

246
Q

left on right

A

right deep
left post ILA
seated flextion positive left
spring pos

247
Q

right on left

A

left deep
posteiror ILA right
seated flexion positive left
spring pos

248
Q

left unilateral sacral flexion

A

left deep
left post ila
left seated flexion
spring neg

249
Q

right unillateral sacral flexion

A

right deep
right post ila
right seated flexion
spring neg

250
Q

left unilateral extension

A

right deep
right post ila
seated pos left
spring pos

251
Q

right unilateral extension

A

deep left
posterior ILA L
seated flexion right
spring pos

252
Q

if Bilateral flexed

A

motion decreased bilaterally, sacrum flexes but is restricted in extension, seated flexion test positive bilaterally, spring negative

253
Q

bilaterally extended

A

motion decreased bilaterally
sarum extends but is restricted in flexion
spring pos

254
Q

what axis is respiration

A

superior transverse

255
Q

what axis is craniosacral motion

A

superior transverse

256
Q

what axis is at sacral body

A

s2

257
Q

what axis is ilial rotation

A

inferior transverse

258
Q

what ais is posture flexion and extension

A

middle trnasverse

259
Q

motion decreased, retricted in extension, bilateral positive seated and spring neg

A

bilateral sacral flexion

260
Q

motion decreased, restricted in flexion, positive spring, bilateral positive seated

A

bilateral sacral extension