OPP FINAL Flashcards
muscle hypertonicity, contraction, spasm can be caused by direct irritation of what is ______ the muscle
overlying
A kidney stone may cause the _____ to become hypertonic and result in a positive Thomas Test
psoas
Appendicitis may cause the ______ to become hypertonic and result in a positive Thomas Test
psoas
what is the indication of HVLA
a distinct, solid barrier
what is the goal of counterstrain
to decrease gamma gain
what does the spencer technique utilize
muscle energy, articular, lymphatic/myofascial release
lumbar spine will side bend _____ the long leg side and rotate _______ the short leg side
toward; toward
what is the most commonly used form of contraction in muscle energy
isometric contraction
what is the first part of a physical examination
watching the patient move
What does isometric contraction used in muscle energy do?
Tenses golgi tendon organs causing areflecx inhibition of the muscle allowing for an increase in muscle length
Translation to the right = sidebending to the ______
Left
Where is the anterior Chapman’s point for the pancreas
7th intercostal space near sternum on the right side
When you think of pancrease thing
Amylase, lipase, blood glucose
A tight piriformis would lead to reduced
Hip internal rotation
Where is the coracoid process
1” inferiorly from the most distal articulation of the clavicle
What does the terrible triad consist of
ACL, MCL, medial meniscus
What zones are more susceptible to somatic dysfunction
Transition zones
A ____ ______ for leg length difference may help prevent osteoarthritis in a patient
Heel lift
A posterior talus indicates
Decreased plantar flexion
An anterior talus indicates
Decreased dorsiflexion
If a muscle is torn, should you stretch it
No
What does TART stand for
Tissue texture changes
Asymmetry
Restriction of motion
Tenderness
What kind of reflex is localized somatic stimulu producing patterns of reflect response in segment ally related somatic structures
Somatosomatic reflex
What kind of reflex is seen when a rib somatic dysfunction From an innominate dysfunction occurs
Somatosomatic reflex
What kind of reflex is localized somatic stimulation producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures
Somatovisceral
What kind of reflex is involved in an asthma attack is triggered when working on a thoracic spine
Somatovisceral
What kind of reflex is localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex reasons in segmentally related somatic structures
Viscerosomatic
What kind of reflex is involved in a gall bladder disease affecting musculature
Viscerosomatic
What type of reflex is localized visceral stimuli productions patterns of reflexresponse in segmentally related visceral structures
Viscerovisceral reflex
What type of reflex is involved when pancreatitis triggers vomiting
Viscerovisceral
What are the 5 osteopathic models
Biomechanical Neurological Respiratory/circulatory Metabolic/nutritional Behavioral
Orientation of superior facet cervical
BUM
Orientation of superior Facet thoracic
BUL
Orientation of superior facet Lumbar
BM
Orientation of Inferior facet cervical
AIL
Orientation of inferior facet thoraccic
AIM
Orientation of inferior facets Laumbar
AL
Psoas syndrome is typically associated with what kind of somatic dysfunction
Non-neutral type II
Where is psoas dysfunction typically located
L1-L2
Psoas syndrome causes sacral somatic dysfunction of which axis
Oblique (usually side of lumbar side bending)
Psoas syndrome: pelvic shift is to the __________ side of the greatest psoas syndrome
Opposite
Psoas syndrome: hypertonicity of the piriformis muscle ________ to the side of greatest psoas spasm
Contralateral
Psoas syndrome: sciatic nerve irritation occurs on the _____ of the piriformis spasm
Side
Where does the psoas insert on
Lesser trochanter of the femur
Psoas syndrome: gluteal muscular and posterior thigh pain does not go past the ______ on the side of the piriformis muscle spasm
Knee
HVLA is an example of what kind of OMT
Direct/passive
Muscle energy is an example of what kind of OMT
Direct/active
Counterstrain is what kind of OMT
Indirect/passive
Balanced Ligamentous technique is an example of what kind of OMT
Indirect/passive
Facilitated positional release (FPR) is what kind of OMT
Indirect/passive
What is the setup for a direct technique
Engage the barrier
In an indirect technique, you want to ________ the dysfunction
Exaggerate
Examples of indirect techniques
Counterstrain FPR BLT Functional technique Mayofascial release Cranial Still technique
Examples of direct tecchniques
Soft tissue Articulately Muscle energy HVLA Springing Myofascial Cranial Still
What is petrissage
Pinching
What does counterstrain work on
Muscle spindle in parallel
What does muscle energy work on?
Golgi tendon to change muscle tension
Nociceptors
T/F Stiill technique goes from indirect to direct
True
Lateral epicondylitis is also referred to as
Tennis elbow
Medial epicondylitis is also referred to as
Golfers elbow
Counterstrain point for subscapularis
Extension, IR, and slight abduction of humerus
Counter Strain points for levator scapulae
IR of arm/shoulder traction with slight abduction
counterstrain points of supraspinatus
flex arm/shoulder 45 degrees
abduct arm/shoulder 45 degrees
ER arm/shoulder
counter strain points of infraspinatus
flex arm/shoulder 150 degrees
IR srm/shoulder
abduct arm/shoulder
what do you do for tennis elbow
- flex wrist and pronate forearem
- grasp point of olecranon between your thumb and index finger
- compress your forearm between your two hands
- extend elbow
what happens during pronation
distal radius crosses over ulna
proximal radius glides posteriorly
what happens during supination
distal radius moves posterolaterally and proximal radial head moves anterior
what is the most common dysfunction leading to loss of forearm supination
posterior radial head
the head of the radius follows
pronation=posterior
supination=anteriror
what happens to the ulna abducts
olecranon glides medially
radius glides distally
wrist is pushed into increased adduction
what happens when the ulna adducts
olecranon glides laterally
radius glides proximally
wrist is pulled into abducted position
what are the upper extremity sympathetics nerve roots
T2-T8
what are the nerve roots of the brachial plexusa
C5-8, T1
where do the nerve roots of the brachial plexus pass
between middle and anterior scalene
what is in the neurovascular bundle to the upper extremity
subclavian artery/vein
brachial plexus
sympathetic nerve plexus
what are the common entrapment sites for thoracic outlet syndrome
scalene triangle
costoclavicular space
cubcoracoid space
what is adsons test
when neck is extended turned toward affected side
(entrapment scalene triangle)
anterior/middle scalene
brachial plexus, sublcavian artery
what is costoclavicular (Halsted) maneuver
exaggerated military posture
(entrapment: copstoclavicular space()
1st rib clavicle
brachial plexus, subclavian artery/vein
what is Wright’s (hypoerabduction) manuever
shoulder ER
abduction beyond 90 degrees
compression below insertion of pec minor
(entrapment: subcoracoid space)
what is east test
shoulders abducted and ER, elbows flexed at 90 degrees, open and close hands repeatedly
what is the most commonly torn rotator cuff muscle
supraspinatus
what is the action of the supraspinatus
abduction
what is the action of the infraspinatus
external rotation
what is the action of the teres minor
ER
what is the action of the subscapularis
IR
what are the phases of shoulder abduction
0-90 deltoid, supraspinatus
90-150 trapezius
150-180 erector spinae muscles on opposite side
what is the movement sequence of shoulder abduction
supraspinatus
deltoid
trapezoid
erector spinae
what is the ROM ratio glenohumeral to scapulothoracic
2:1
where does humeral dislocation usually occur
anteriorly and inferiorly
at what location would a fractured humerus lead to impaired extension of the wrist
mid-shaft fracture
contents of the carpal tunnel
FDS, FDP, FPL, median nerve
what are the tests for carpal tunnel
phalen, prayer, tinel, provocation
what are the symptoms of carpal tunnel
pain, anesthesia, paresthesia
what ligaments are involved with DeQuervain tenosynovitis
EPB, APL
what is an indication of DeQuervain tenosynovitis
swelling around anatomical snuff box; confirm with Finkelstein’s test
what are the special shoulder tests
apleys scratch test (shoudler ROM)
apprehension test (anterior shoulder instability)
cozen test (tennis elbow)
Drop arm test (supraspinatus tear)
What does the empty can test, test
supraspinatus
Finkelstein’s Test / Eichoff’s Modification
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis
Phalen/Reverse Phalen Test
and tinel test
Diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Neer
Suprinspinatus Impingement
Yergason Test
Tear of Transverse Humeral Ligament
Dislocation of Biceps Tendon in Bicipital Groove
Allen Test
Radial and ulnar artery patency
Straight Leg Raising (SLR) Test
Herniated Lumbar Disc (L1-L5, S1)
what is the normal Q angle
10-12 degrees
where does the mcl attach
medial meniscus
what is the attachment of an acl
anterior tibial
pronation of the foot cuases the distal fibula to move
posteriorly
supinaiton of the foot causes the distal fibula to move
anteriorly
what is the acronym for anterior fibula hjead
DEA (dorsiflexed, everted, externally rotated=anterior)
what is acronym for posterior fibular head
PIP (plantar, inverted, IR,=posterior)
which way does the talus rotate in a fallen arch
anteriorly
which ways do the navicular and cuboid rotate in fallen arches
medial and lateral, respectively
which degree of ankle sprain is the worst
3rd
what are the lateral ankle stabilizers
ATF
Calcaneofibular
posterior talofibular
what is most commonly injured ligament in an inversion ankle sprain
anterior tibiofibular
most common type I sprain
ATF
most common type II sprain
ATF and CF
most common type III sprain
ATF, CF, and PTF
what muscle is being treated in a medial ankle counterstrain point
anteriro tibalis
what muscle is being treated in a lateral ankle counterstrain point
fibularis, longus, brevis, or tertious
