Opioid Agonists (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Where do opiates originate from?

A

Papaver somniferum (opion /poppy juice)

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2
Q

When was morphine, codeine, and papaverine first discovered?

A

Morphine: 1803
Codeine: 1832
Papaverine: 1848

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3
Q

Opioids are all _________ substances

A

Exogenous

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4
Q

How did the term narcotic come about?

A

Greek for stupor, which has the potential to produce physical dependence

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the agonists-antagonists group?

A

Used to transition from pure agonist

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6
Q

List pure opioid agonists:

A
  • Morphine
  • Meperidine
  • Sufentanil
  • Fentanyl
  • Alfentanil
  • Remifentanil
  • Codeine
  • Hydromorphone
  • Oxymorphone
  • Oxycodone
  • Hydrocodone
  • Propoxyphene
  • Methadone
  • Tramadol
  • Heroin
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7
Q

List opioid Agonists-antagonists:

A
  • Pentazocine
  • Butorphanol
  • Nalbuphine
  • Nalorphine
  • Bremazocine
  • Dezocine
  • Meptazinol
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8
Q

List opioid antagonists:

A
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
  • Nalmefene
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9
Q

What chemical structure does morphine, codeine, and thebaine have?

A

Phenanthrenes

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10
Q

What chemical structure does Papaverine and Noscapine have?

A

Benzylisoquinoline

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11
Q

Where are agonist receptor sites for opioids located?

A

Pre and postsynaptic sites in CNS

Same receptors activated by endogenous ligands

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12
Q

What are the endogenous ligands that bind to opioid receptors?

A
  • Enkephalin
  • Endorphins
  • Dynorphins
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13
Q

What is the MOA of presynaptic opioid receptors?

A

Inhibition of Ach, dopamine, norepinephrine, and substance P

Increased K+ conductance, Ca2+ channel inactivation, decreased neurotransmission,

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14
Q

Where are opioid receptors found in the brain?

A
  • Periaqueductal grey
  • Locus Ceruleus
  • Rostral Ventral Medulla
  • Hypothalamus
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15
Q

Where are opioid receptors located in the SC?

A

Interneurons and primary afferent neurons in the dorsal horn (substantia gelatinosa)

Intense analgesia

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16
Q

Are there opioid receptors outside the CNS?

A

Yes, Sensory neurons and immune cells
(Intra-articular morphine after knee surgery)

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17
Q

Label:

A

A) Hypothalamus
B) Periaqueductal grey
C) Rostroventral Medulla

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18
Q

What are the main effects from M1 opioid receptor?

A
  • Analgesia (supraspinal/spinal)
  • Euphoria
  • Low abuse potential
  • Miosis
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypothermia
  • Urinary retention
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19
Q

What are the main effects from M2 opioid receptor?

A
  • Analgesia (spinal)
  • Depression of ventilation
  • Physical dependence
  • Constipation (marked)
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20
Q

What are agonists for Mu1 and Mu2 receptors?

A
  • Endorphins
  • Morphine
  • Synthetic opioids
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21
Q

What are antagonists for Mu1, Mu2, Kappa, and Delta receptors?

A
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
  • Nalmefene
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22
Q

What is the main effects of Kappa opioid receptor?

A
  • Analgesia (supraspinal/spinal)
  • Dysphoria, sedation
  • Low abuse potential
  • Miosis
  • Diuresis
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23
Q

What are agonists of Kappa opioid receptors?

A

Dysnorphins

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24
Q

What are the main effects of Delta opioid receptors?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Depression of ventilation
  • Physical dependence
  • Constipation (minimal)
  • Urinary retention
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25
Q

What are agonists of Delta opioid receptors?

A

Enkephalins

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26
Q

Which receptor produces physical dependence?

A

Mu2 and Delta

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27
Q

What is a CV system benefit of opioids?

A

Cardioprotective from myocardial ischemia

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28
Q

What are CV side effects of opioids?

A

↓ SNS tone in peripheral veins
* Decrease venous return, CO, BP
* orthostatic hypotension and syncope

↓HR/ Histamine release leading to ↓BP

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29
Q

Further CV depression (↓CO/BP) when giving opioids with _____ or _______.

A

N2O, Benzos

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30
Q

What are respiratory side effects of opioids?

A
  • Increase in resting PaCO2
  • Respiratory depression (Mu2)→ decreased rate with compensatory increase in VT
  • Cough suppression
    *
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31
Q

What happens with opioid OD?

A

Apnea, Miosis, hypoventilation, and coma

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32
Q

What med can antagonize ventilatory depression of opioids but doesnt antagonize analgesia?

A

Physostigmine: increases CNS levels of Ach

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33
Q

Which opioids is used for cough suppression?

A

*Codeine
*Dextromethorphan (no analgesia)

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34
Q

What can cause PaCO2 shift to the left/decreasing the level?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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35
Q

What can cause paCO2 shift to the right/increase?

A
  • Sleep (slightly)
  • Opiates
  • Anesthesia
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36
Q

What are CNS side effects of opioids?

A
  • Decrease CBF and maybe ICP
  • Myoclonus with large doses
  • Skeletal thoracic (chest wall)/ abd muscle rigidity
  • Sedation
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37
Q

Why do we need to be cautious when giving opioids to patients with head injuries?

A

Wakefulness, miosis, paCO2, BBB

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38
Q

When is skeletal muscle rigidity S/E severe?

A

With mechanical ventilation

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39
Q

How do you treat skeletal thoracic muscle rigidity from opioids?

A

Muscle relaxation or naloxone

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40
Q

What are potential GI side effects from opioids?

A
  • Spasm of biliary smooth muscle
  • Delayed gastric emptying and constipation
  • N/V: direct stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone, increase GI secretions and delayed emptying
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41
Q

Which opioids commonly cause Sphincter of Oddi spasms?

A
  • Fentanyl (99%)
  • Meperidine (61%)
  • Morphine (53%)
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42
Q

How are opioid induced biliary spasms (sphincter or Oddi spasm) treated?

A
  • Naloxone: 40mcg IV
  • Glucagon: 2mg IV→ give incrementally
  • Atropine: 0.2mg IV
  • Nalbuphine: 10mg IV
  • Nitroglycerin: 50mcg IV
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43
Q

What are potential S/E of opioids for GU, cutaneous, and placenta?

A

GU: urinary urgency

Cutaneous: Histamine release= flushing of face, neck, chest

Placenta: Neonate depression, dependence (chronic use)

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44
Q

The development of the requirement for increased drug doses (usually 2 to 3 weeks):

A

Tolerance

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45
Q

What is the time frame for tolerance development to morphine?

A

25 days

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46
Q

What happens as a result of downregulation of opioid receptors?

A

Need increased opioid dose to get the same effect

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47
Q

Why does downregulation occur?

A

Opioid receptors on the cell membrane surfaces become gradually desensitized by reduced transcription & subsequent decreases in numbers of opioid receptors.

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48
Q

_______________ can develop between all opioids.

A

Cross-tolerance

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49
Q

What is onset of Meperidine withdrawal symptoms?
Peak intensity?
Duration of withdrawal?

A

onset: 2-6 hours
peak: 6-12 hours
duration: 4-5 days

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50
Q

What is the onset of Fentanyl withdrawal?
Peak intensity?
Duration of withdrawal?

A

O: 2-6 hours
P: 6-12 hours
D: 4-5 days

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51
Q

What is the onset of Morphine withdrawal?
Peak withdrawal intensity?
Duration of withdrawal?

A

O: 6-18 hours
P: 36-72 hours
D: 7-10 days

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52
Q

What is the onset of Heroin withdrawal?
Peak withdrawal intensity?
Duration of withdrawal?

A

O: 6-18 hours
P: 36-72 hours
D: 7-10 days

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53
Q

What is the onset of Methadone withdrawal?
Peak withdrawal intensity?
Duration of withdrawal?

A

O: 24-48 hours
P: 3-21 days
D: 6-7 weeks

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54
Q

Studies have shown that higher doses of intra-op opioids cause ________ post op pain

A

Greater

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55
Q

What is the intra-op dose for morphine?

A

1-10mg IV

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56
Q

What is PostOp dose for Morphine?

A

5-20 mg

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57
Q

Onset, Peak, and duration of Morphine:

A

O: 10-20 min
P: IV (15-30 min) IM( 45-90 min)
D: 4-5 hours

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58
Q

What is the IntraOp/induction dose for Fentanyl?

A

1.5-3 mcg/kg IV 5 min before

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59
Q

What is the onset and duration of Fentanyl?

A

O: 30-60 seconds
D: 1-1.5 hours

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60
Q

What is the IntraOp dose for Sufentanil?

A

0.3-1 mcg/kg

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61
Q

What is the onset and duration of Sufentanil?

A

O: 30-60 sec
D: 1-1.5 hr

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62
Q

What is the continuous infusion rate for Sufentanil?

A

0.5-1 mcg/kg/hr

63
Q

What is the loading/IntraOp dose for Remifentanil?

A

Load: 0.5-1 mcg/kg over 1 min

64
Q

What is the onset and duration of Remifentanil?

A

O: 30-60 sec
D: 6-8min

65
Q

What is the rate of continuous infusion for Remifentanil?

A

0.125- 0.375 mcg/kg/min

66
Q

What is the postop dose for Meperidine and what is it used for?

A

12.5 mg (post op shivering)

67
Q

What is the onset and duration of meperidine?

A

O: 5-15 min
D: 2-4 hrs

68
Q

What is the IntraOp dose of Hydromorphone?

69
Q

What is the postop dose of hydromorphone?

70
Q

What is onset and duration of hydromorphone?

A

O: 5-15 min
D: 2-4 hrs

71
Q

What is IntraOp dose of naloxone?

72
Q

What is PostOp dose of Naloxone?

73
Q

What is onset and duration of Naloxone?

A

O: 1-5 min
D: 30 min

74
Q

What is the gold standard for opioids?

75
Q

What are the effects of Morphine?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Euphoria
  • Sedation
  • Nausea
  • Body warmth
  • Heaviness of extremities
  • Dry mouth
  • Pruritis
76
Q

What pain does morphine aim to eliminate?

What fibers would it be working on?

A

Relieves visceral, skeletal muscles, joints, and integumental dull, intermittent pain

C fibers

77
Q

What is the primary means of metabolism of morphine?

A

Hepatic 1st pass (25%)

Glucoronic acid conjugation in hepatic and extrahepatic sites

78
Q

Morphine accumulates rapidly in the __________, __________, and ___________ __________.

A

Kidneys, Liver, and Skeletal Muscles

79
Q

What are metabolites of morphine?

A
  • Morphine-3-glucuronide → 75-95% (inactive)
  • Morphine-6-glucuronide → Active analgesic
80
Q

What needs to be considered when giving morphine to patients with renal failure?

A

Prolonged depression of ventilation with renal failure

81
Q

Which group of people tend to have increased responses to morphine and slower speed of offset?

82
Q

What happens to serum concentration of morphine with increased age?

A

Plasma concentration of morphine increases progressively with advancing age

83
Q

What opioid receptors does meperidine (pethidine) activate?

A

Agonist at Mu and Kappa opioid receptors

potent agonist at alpha 2 receptors

84
Q

What are analogues of meperidine?

A
  • Fentanyl
  • Sufentanil
  • Alfentanil
  • Remifentanil
85
Q

What drugs is meperidine structurally similar to?

A

*Lidocaine: tertiary amine, ester group, & lipophilic phenyl group

*Atropine

86
Q

Meperidine is ____ as potent as Morphine

87
Q

What are the effects of meperidine?

A
  • Sedation
  • Euphoria
  • N/V
  • Depression of ventilation
88
Q

How is meperidine metabolized? Metabolites?

A

Hepatic first pass 80%
90% hepatic metabolism

Normeperidine (metabolite)

89
Q

Meperidine is ___% protein bound

A

60% (consideration for elderly population)

90
Q

What are symptoms of meperidine toxicity?

A
  • Delirium (confusion, hallucination)
  • Myoclonus
  • Seizures
91
Q

How is meperidine eliminated?

A

Renal (acidic urine can speed elimination)

92
Q

What is E1/2 time of meperidine? How does it change with renal failure?

A

3-5 hours
35 hours with renal failure

93
Q

What routes can meperidine be given?

A

IV, IM, Intrathecal

94
Q

What other drugs can be used for postop shivering?

A

Alpha 2 agonists (clonidine)

95
Q

What are side effects of Meperidine?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Mydriasis
  • Dry mouth
    • inotropy
  • Serotonin Syndrome (MAOIs and TCAs)
  • Impaired ventilation
  • Crosses placenta
96
Q

_______ is 75-125X more potent than Morphine

97
Q

What is onset for Fentanyl?

A

6.4 minutes

98
Q

What is the primary spot for first pass metabolism for Fentanyl?

A

75% lung first pass

99
Q

What do the lungs act as for Fentanyl?

A

Reservoir for fentanyl and for extraction of fentanyl

100
Q

What is the metabolite of fentanyl?

A

Norfentanyl

101
Q

How is Fentanyl metabolized and excreted?

A

Metabolized CYP3A
Excreted by kidneys

102
Q

What is the Vd for Fentanyl?

A

Large Vd (High lipid solubillity)
* IV→ less than 5 min 80% is gone

103
Q

Can you give fentanyl to someone with liver cirrhosis?

A

Yes, Not an issue because of lung first pass effect.

104
Q

How does Fentanyl context-sensitive half time compare to Alfentanil, Sufentanil, and Remifentanil?

A

Fentanyl context sensitive half time is greater than all of these→ this is d/t saturation of inactive tissue

Other drugs do not go into tissues as much as fentanyl because the other drugs are less lipid soluble compared to fentanyl

105
Q

What is the fentanyl dose for analgesia?

A

1-2 mcg/kg IV

106
Q

What is the fentanyl dose for adjunct with inhaled anesthetics?

A

2- 20 mcg/kg IV

107
Q

What is Fentanyl dose if giving solo for surgical anesthesia?

A

50-150 mcg/kg IV

108
Q

What is intrathecal fentanyl dose?

109
Q

What is oral fentanyl dose?

A

5-20 mcg/kg
* rapid dissolving film or lozenge (peds)

*2-8 y/o: 15-20 mcg/kg PO 45 min prior

110
Q

1mg PO Fentanyl = ___ mg IV Morphine

111
Q

What is transdermal dose of Fentanyl?

A

75-100 mcg (18 hours steady delivery)

112
Q

What are CV side effects of Fentanyl?

A

Large doses→ No histamine release, Depressed carotid sinus baroreceptor relfex

No bradycardia
Decreased BP/CO

113
Q

What are other general side effects of Fentanyl?

A
  • Seizure like activity
  • SSEP and EEG (> 30mcg/kg IV)
  • Modest increase in ICP (6-9mmHg)
114
Q

What drugs are synergistic with Fentanyl?

A
  • Benzos
  • Propofol

Decrease doses requirement

115
Q

When did Sufentanil first come about? Sufentanil is _____ - ____ times more potent than Fentanyl

A

1974

5-12 times more potent than fent

116
Q

What are pharmacokinetics of Sufentanil?

A
  • 60% lung first pass uptake
  • 92.5% protein binding
  • Smaller Vd than fentanyl (larger Vd than alfentanil)
  • Hepatic metabolism
  • Renal and fecal excretion
  • shorter context sensitive 1/2 time
117
Q

What plasma protein does Sufentanil bind to?

A

alpha-1 acid glycoprotein

118
Q

Sufentanil doses for Analgesia, Induction, IntraOp, and Infusion:

A
  • Analgesia: 0.1 to 0.4 mcg/kg IV
  • Induction: 18.9 mcg/kg IV
  • Intraop: 0.3 to 1 mcg/kg IV
  • Infusion: 0.5 to 1 mcg/kg/hr IV
119
Q

What are side effects of Sufentanil?

A
  • Bradycardia (decreased CO)
  • Rigidity (chest wall and abd muscles)
120
Q

You have 250mcg/5mL vial of Sufentanil.
How many mcg in 1 mL?
How many mcg in 2mL?
If you dilute 2Ml in a 20mL syringe, what is final concentration?

A
  • 50mcg/mL
  • 100mcg/2mL
  • 5mcg/mL
121
Q

When did Alfentanyl come out?

Alfentanil is ____ less potent than Fentanyl

A

1976

1/5th

122
Q

What is the onset of Alfentanil?

A

1.4 minutes (greater than fentanyl and sufentanil)

123
Q

Pharmacokinetics of Alfentanil:

A
  • Cirrhosis: prolongs elimination half-time
  • 90% nonionized at normal pH (Lower lipid solubility
  • Higher protein binding: same with sufentanil
  • Metabolite: noralfentanil (hepatic P450 3A4)
124
Q

What are uses and doses for Alfentanil?

A
  • Induction laryngoscopy: 15-30mcg/kg IV
  • Induction alone: 150-300 mcg/kg IV
  • Maintenance: 25-150 mcg/kg/hr IV with inhaled anesthetics
125
Q

When should Alfentanil be avoided?

A

Parkinsons disease: causes acute dystonia (muscle rigidity compartment)

126
Q

Remifentanil is _____ times as potent as Alfentanil

127
Q

What is the structure of Remifentanil? What is the action/on/off set?

A

Ester Structure: Hydrolysis by nonspecific plasma and tissue esterases

  • Brief action, rapid onset and offset (15 mins)
  • Precise and rapid titratable effect
  • Lack of accumulation
  • Rapid recovery when discontinued
128
Q

Remifentanil causes synergistic depression of ventilation when given with _________.

129
Q

What is the peak effect of Remifentanil?

A

30-60 second

130
Q

What is the clearance of Remifentanil?

A

3L/min (8x more rapid than Alfentanil)

131
Q

What is the primary metabolism of Remifentanil?

A

Non-specific tissue esterases

132
Q

What is elimination 1/2 time of Remifentanil?

A

6.3 minutes

133
Q

When is plasma steady state with infusion of remifentanil reached?

A

10 minutes

134
Q

What is the induction and maintenance dose for Remifentanil?

A

Induction: 0.5- 1mcg/kg IV over 30-60 sec

Maintenance: 0.25-1mcg/kg IV OR 0.005- 2 mcg/kg/min IV

135
Q

What should you do before stopping Remifentanil infusion?

A

Give longer acting opioid

136
Q

_________ is not recommended for spinal or epidural use: probably d/t its rapid metabolism

A

Remifentanil

137
Q

What are side effects of Remifentanil?

A
  • Seizure like activity
  • N/V
  • Depression of ventilation
  • Decreased BP and HR
  • Hyperalgesia d/t previous acute exposure to large opioid doses
  • Tolerance
138
Q

What year did hydromorphone start being used?

A

Morphine derivative- 1926

139
Q

Hydromorphone is ____ times more potent than __________.

A

5x more potent than morphine

140
Q

What is the dose of hydromorphone? How often?

A

0.5 mg IV (1-4 mg total)
Re-dose every 4 hours

141
Q

Does hydromorphone cause histamine release?

142
Q

What routes can codeine be given?

A

PO/IM (no IV–caused histamine induced hypotension)

143
Q

What is E 1/2 time for codeine?

A

3-3.5 hours

144
Q

Where is codeine metabolized?

145
Q

What is the dose of codeine for cough suppressant and analgesia?

A

Cough: 15mgs
Analgesia: 60mgs (120 mgs= 10mgs of morphine)

146
Q

What are side effects of codeine?

A
  • Physical dependence
  • Minimal sedation
  • N/V
  • Constipation
  • Dizziness
147
Q

________ is 5-10x less potent than morphine

148
Q

What receptors does tramadol work on? What is the dose? What are adverse interactions?

A

Mu with weak Kappa and delta
3 mg/kg
Interacts with Coumadin

149
Q

Which opioid has the highest Vd?

A

Fentanyl (335)
Meperidine (305)
Morphine (224)
Sufentanil (123)
Remifentanil (30)
Alfentanil (27)

150
Q

Which opioid has the shortest E1/2 time?

A

Remifentanil (0.17-0.33h)
Alfentanil (1.4-1.5h)
Morphine (1.7-3.3)
Sufentanil (2.2-4.6)
Meperidine (3-5)
Fentanyl (3.1-6.6)

151
Q

Which opioid has the shortest effect site (from blood to brain) equilibration time?

A

Remifentanil (1.1 min)
Alfentanil (1.4 min)
Sufentanil (6.2 min)
Fentanyl (6.8 min)

152
Q

Which opioid has the slowest clearance?

A

Alfentanil

153
Q

Other opioid trend to know: