ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

3 causes of blepharitis

A

Meibomian gland dysfunction, seborrheic dermatitis, staphylococcal infection

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2
Q

How may blepharitis present?

A

Sx usually bilateral - gritty, uncomfortable and itchy eyelids with sticky scales, ± eyelid swelling/redness. Increased incidence of chalazion + stye.

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3
Q

How does a chalazion differ from a stye?

A

Stye - tender, swollen, red lump found at/near eyelash follicle caused by bacterial infection of follicle/oil gland
Chalazion - blocked meibomian oil gland above the eyelashes usually on the upper lid causing a firm painless lump

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4
Q

A 5 year old girl is referred to ophthalmology by her GP. She has presented with a right sided squint and leukocoria. Her mother is particularly worried as the childs grandfather commented that as a child he also had a similar episode which resulted in removal of his eye.

What is the likely diagnosis and what are your treatment options?

A

Retinoblastoma
Child with strabismus and leukocoria, also family history of ?retinoblastoma which required enucleation.

Treatment options are better now - chemotherapy, external beam radiotherapy/ophthalmic plaque brachytherapy, cryotherapy and transpupillary thermotherapy. Enucleation is reserved for very large tumours or complex cases whereby sight cannot be saved.

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5
Q

a 67 year old gentleman presents to eye casualty with a blistering and inflamed rash around his eye which he says came up a day after he had experienced pain and tingling in that area.

O/E he has a L sided unilateral vesicular rash which is well demarcated down the midline of the face and across his cheekbone, his eye is slightly red but visual acuity is preserved.

What is the likely diagnosis? How is this managed?

A

Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus

Rash onset <72h ago start PO antivirals for 7-10/7, may require IV antivirals if severe/immunocompromise. urgent ophthalmology r/v if ocular involvement.

Risk factors - age and immunosuppression. Reactivation of VZV in the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve (V1) leads to a vesicular rash in the area supplied by that nerve, can also cause ocular sx - redness, discharge, photophobia, altered vision.

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6
Q

The F1 assessing a man with ?herpes zoster opthalmicus documents ‘Hutchinson’s sign positive’. What is the significance of this?

A

vesicles on the tip/side of the nose indicates nasociliary involvement and implies high risk of ocular involvement - urgent ophtho r/v if ocular involvement.

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7
Q

Complications of herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

A

Ocular - conjunctivitis, keratitis, anterior uveitis, episcleritis.
Ptosis
Post-herpetic neuralgia

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8
Q

A 7 year old boy presents to eye casualty with a swollen and red eyelid, he refuses to move his eyes as this makes the pain much worse however his mother reports that on the way here he was unable to get to the car by himself as ‘the cars were blurry’. Observations are all normal except for temp 38.4, which mom says he has had all week due to a ‘cold’.

What is the likely diagnosis? What is your initial mx?

A

Orbital cellulitis
swollen and red eyelid, pain worse on eye movements, ?reduced visual acuity though NFA, pyrexia and ?recent URTI (source of infection?)

Admit to hospital, ophtho and ENT review, CT orbit with contrast to assess posterior spread (unable to assess visual acuity, and seems to be decreasing), bloods (FBC - raised WCC; raised CRP; blood culture), IV ceftriaxone

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9
Q

A 7 year old boy presents to eye casualty with a swollen and red eyelid, he reports no pain and ophtho examination is normal. Observations are all normal except for temp 37.7, as he has been getting over a recent cold.

What is the likely diagnosis? What is your initial mx?

A

Preseptal cellulitis - his only presentation is an erythematous swollen eyelid he has no ocular involvement - eye white, normal visual acuity and eye movements, and he is systemically well (fever <38)

urgent referral to secondary care, PO amoxicillin 7/7 and safety net red flag signs.

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10
Q

How may squints be classified?

A

Concomitant (non-paralytic) - imbalance of EOM, similar squint Angle in all directions of gaze
Paralytic - paralysis of EOM
Convergent (esotropia) - most common, one eye turned in, can have no cause or be hypermetropia
Divergent (exotropia) - tend to be seen in older children, intermittent

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11
Q

How do you screen for a squint?

A

Corneal reflection test - shine light from 30cm away to see if light reflects symmetrically on each pupil
Cover test - cover one eye at a time, observe movement of the uncovered eye, cover other eye and repeat.

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12
Q

On performing a corneal reflection test, the light reflects centrally in the right pupil, and temporally on the left pupil. What type of squint would this indicate?

A

Left sided esotropia

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13
Q

On performing a corneal reflection test, the light reflects centrally in the left pupil, and nasally on the right pupil. What type of squint would this indicate?

A

Right sided exotropia

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14
Q

On performing a corneal reflection test, the light reflects centrally in the left pupil, and inferiorly on the right pupil. What type of squint would this indicate?

A

right sided hypertropia

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15
Q

Interpret these cover test results:
R side covered = L eye fixed
L side covered = R eye moves medially

A

R exotropia
R eye moves = heterotropia. Moves medially = exotropia
L eye in normal alignment as remains fixed

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16
Q

Interpret these cover test results:
R side covered = L eye moves laterally
L side covered = R eye fixed

A

L esotropia

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17
Q

If the uncovered eye moves to take up fixation during a cover test it is a manifest or latent squint?

A

Manifest

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18
Q

If the covered eye moves as it is uncovered during a cover-uncover test is it a manifest or latent squint?

A

Latent

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19
Q

How are squints managed?

A

3 O’s - optical, orthoptics and operation

  • Optical - correct refractive errors with spectacles, exclude abnormalities e.g. retinoblastoma, cataract, optic atrophy.
  • orthoptics - patch the good eye to encourage use of the eye that squints and prevent amblyopia.
  • operation - correct alignment, good cosmetic results.
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20
Q

Good prognostic factors in squints

A

early detection (poorer results >7y/o), disciplined amblyopia treatment, optimal glasses.

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21
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

AKA lazy eye; visual acuity is reduced in one eye due to abnormal visual pathway development that result in subnormal binocular and stereo-vision, causes include squint/refractive error/cataract.

In strabismic amblyopia the brain learns to suppress the deviated image so the visual pathway does not develop normally and they rely on their ‘good eye’.

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22
Q

On examining a patients pupils, you find that on shining light into the:
- L pupil - L and R constrict
- R pupil - L constricts, R remains fixed.
On swinging light test, when the light is swung from the left pupil to the right pupil, the right dilates.
What is this finding called and list possible causes.

A

RAPD (or Marcus Gunn pupil) in the right eye
L direct and consensual intact
R direct absent, consensual intact

Optic neuritis (?MS), optic atrophy, detached retina or ischaemic retinal disease

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23
Q

On examining a patients pupils, you find that on shining light into the:
- L pupil - L remains fixed, R constricts
- R pupil - L remains fixed, R constricts.
What is this finding and list possible causes.

A

Efferent pupillary defect i.e. a 3rd nerve palsy
Causes can be divided by the presence of ‘down and out’ eye and ptosis accompanying the fixed pupil:
- Fixed pupil only - ?compression (tumour, aneurysm, CST)
- pupil is often spared in vascular causes (diabetes, htn)
- painful CN3 palsy is posterior communicating artery aneurysm until proven otherwise.
Other causes of fixed dilated pupil - mydriatics, trauma (affecting iris), glaucoma, coning.

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24
Q

A 25 year old woman comes to the GP concerned about her near vision - she has noticed when reading her vision is blurry for a few seconds when she starts to read her book but her optician notes no refractive error.

O/E her R pupil is dilated and is very poorly reactive to light (very slow to constrict, but when it does remains so for a long time), her accommodation reflex is also poor but not as markedly as her light reflexes.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Holmes-Adie pupil - slowly reactive to accommodation but very poor reactivity to light. Usually presents in a young woman with new onset blurred near vision and dilated pupil.

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25
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome and what causes it?

A

Partial ptosis, miosis ± anhidrosis/apparent enophthalmos.
Caused by damage to sympathetic trunk by - pancoast tumour, MS, stroke, CST, cluster headache, carotid artery dissection/aneurysm, Syringomyelia, thyroidectomy, congenital (heterochromia)

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26
Q

What is Argyll-Robertson pupil

A

Pupil that accommodates but does not react (ARP = ARP PRA - accommodation reflex present, pupillary reflex absent). Small irregular pupils which accommodate but do not react to light.
Causes - syphilis, diabetes

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27
Q

A patient visits the GP for a regular check up as he is hypertensive and diabetic, for which he is on medication. While there he says he was glad to have this appointment, as 2 days ago he lost sight in one eye and while it is now back to normal it did worry him at the time.

What is the likely diagnosis and what is your immediate management?

A

Amaurosis fugax - he has diabetes and hypertension so is quite a risk of stroke, and transient monocular loss of vision is highly suspicious of a TIA.

He should be referred to TIA clinic to be seen within 24h and started on 300mg aspirin daily immediately.

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28
Q

What is the neuroanatomical lesion underlying bitemporal hemianopia? List the differentials and how you may differentiate

A

Optic chiasm lesion affecting fibres from nasal halves of both retinas
Craniopharyngioma - inferior quadrant defect worse
Pituitary tumour - superior quadrant defect is worse

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29
Q

A patient attends eye casualty complaining of vision loss. O/E he has a right homonymous hemianopia.

Where in the optic pathway would you expect this lesion? list your differential diagnoses.

A

left optic tract lesion

Causes - stroke (MCA/PCA), intracranial SOL or haemorrhage

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30
Q

What would your differential ddx be for a patient presenting with transient monocular loss of vision?

A

Amaurosis fugax/TIA
Migraine
less common - RICP, glaucoma, other causes of ischaemic optic neuropathy e.g. GCA

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31
Q

What would your differential ddx be for a patient presenting with persistent (>24h) monocular loss of vision?

A

CRAO/CRVO, vitreous haemorrhage
retinal detachment
optic neuritis
painful - acute glaucoma, endophthalmitis, uveitis
trauma - blowout #, corneal abrasion, lens dislocation, lid injury, foreign body, hyphaema.

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32
Q

A patient with homonymous hemianopia is found to have macular sparing. What dx would this imply and explain the underlying anatomy of this.

A

Posterior cerebral artery stroke affecting the occipital lobe. Macula receives dual blood supply from MCA and PCA so blockage of PCA, macula is preserved by MCA supply

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33
Q

What is your differential dx list for a patient presenting with red eye

A
Episcleritis
Scleritis
Anterior uveitis
Conjunctivitis
Acute angle closure Glaucoma
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Endophthalmitis
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34
Q

Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhage

A

High blood pressure, anticoagulation (check INR), trauma, intense coughing bouts

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35
Q

A 40 year old woman visits the GP with a red eye. She reports no pain, though it is slightly uncomfortable and watering. O/E visual acuity and pupillary reflexes all intact, the conjunctiva is red, with some engorged vessels, but no ulceration or obvious defect, no cysts or discharge noted on the eyelashes.

What is the most likely diagnosis? How would you manage the patient?

A

Episcleritis

scleritis - would be painful, may see gradual decrease in visual acuity, conjunctivitis - no hx/evidence of discharge, recent virus, eyelid swelling or itchiness.

Mx - advise it is self-limiting, can take artificial tears ± an oral NSAID if she finds it helpful, safety net - gets worse or does not resolve in next few days go to eye clinic.

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36
Q

How would you differentiate episcleritis and scleritis?

A

Apply phenylephrine drops to the eye - blanches episcleral and conjunctival vessels, but not the deeper scleral vessels so if redness improves it is likely episcleritis.

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37
Q

A 42 year old woman presents to the GP with a 5 day history of red eye that is increasingly painful - it now feels like someone is ‘piercing into it’.

O/E she has oedematous conjunctiva with inflamed vessels . Visual acuity is normal, visual fields NFA as patient reports pain being worse on ocular movement.
What is the likely dx and what is your plan?

A

Scleritis

Refer for urgent assessment by ophthalmologist,
she will most likely receive systemic NSAIDs

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38
Q

A 28 year old male presents to A+E with a 6hr history of a painful red eye. O/E there is marked circumlimbal redness, visual acuity is reduced, pupils are small and poorly reactive, patient is markedly photophobic.
What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Anterior uveitis

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39
Q

What is your immediate management of ?anterior uveitis?

A

Urgent ophtho r/v for rx:
cyclopegics (atropine, cyclopentolate) - dilate eye to relieve pain and prevent flare and synechiae formation
corticosteroid eye drops (pred/dexa)

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40
Q

What might you expect to see on slit lamp examination of anterior uveitis?

A

Aqueous flare (protein and leucocytes exudates into ant chamber - absent ?post uveitis)
Keratic precipitates
Advanced disease - posterior synechiae

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41
Q

Complications of anterior uveitis

A

Glaucoma, cataracts, retinal detachment, macular oedema and degeneration

42
Q

How would you expect acute angle closure glaucoma to present?

A

Acute painful red eye with reduced visual acuity happens over a matter of hours-day.

  • Pain may be ocular/headache, so severe can cause N+V systemic upset.
  • Sx worse with mydriasis e.g. watching TV in dark room. O/E fixed semi dilated pupil
  • May report haloes around lights
43
Q

What would you expect to find in a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma O/E?

A

Red, hard eye
Unreactive, semi-dilated pupil that may be oval shaped
Hazy cornea
Decreased visual acuity

44
Q

What is your immediate management plan for AACG?

A

Urgent ophthalmology referral/review for gonioscopy
Medical rx - reduce aqueous secretions with acetazolamide, induce pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine
Once initially controlled surgical or laser iridectomy.

45
Q

Outline the pathophysiological mechanism of AACG

A

Contact between the peripheral iris and trabecular meshwork causes obstruction of aqueous outflow through Schlemms canal (either by mechanical obstruction, or by damage/degeneration of meshwork) causing raised intraocular pressure leading to glaucomatous optic neuropathy.

46
Q

Risk factors for AACG

A

Asian, female, hypermetropic (shallow anterior chamber), advancing age

47
Q

A 13 year old boy comes to the GP complaining of itchy, red and watery eyes. This has been happening most days for the last few months, though he has had such symptoms last year around the same time. What is the likely dx and what rx would you offer?

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

Antihistamine eye drops such as antazoline or PO loratadine if other symptoms/no relief.

48
Q

A 19 year old girl attends the GP due to itchy red eyes. She woke up yesterday to find her eyelids ‘stuck together’, and since then has had itchy gritty eyes. What is the likely diagnosis and what rx would you offer?

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis

Rx chloramphenicol eye drops (fusidic acid if pregnant)
Advise it is self-limiting in 1-2 weeks, practice good eye hygiene (don’t share towels, no eye makeup or contact lenses).

49
Q

Why should contact lens wearers presenting with a red painful eye be reviewed by ophthalmology rather than treated in primary care?

A

Risk of microbial keratitis - need a slit lamp to distinguish between microbial keratitis and conjunctivitis.

50
Q

How might a corneal ulcer present?

A

History of trauma or contact lens use, red painful watery eye, blurred vision, photophobic, foreign body sensation.

51
Q

How would you manage a corneal ulcer in primary care?

A

You wouldn’t - urgent (same day) ophthalmology referral
Slit lamp assessment, analgesia ± lubricating eye drops, , antibiotic eye drops (e.g. chloramphenicol) or antiviral if HSV keratitis, check healing 1 week later.

52
Q

How might HSV keratitis present/appear O/E?

A

Red, painful, watering eye with photophobia and blurred vision
Hx of eye/mouth/genital ulcers (HSV1)
O/E dendritic ulcer pathognomonic

53
Q

Causes of painFUL loss of vision

A
an ACUTE emerGency
Anterior uveitis
Corneal Ulcer
Trauma
Endophthalmitis
acute angle closure Glaucoma
54
Q

Causes of painLESS loss of vision

A
C3POs RIVAL
Central retinal a. occlusion
Central retinal v. occlusion
CVA
Posterior vitreous detachment
optic neuritis
retinal detachment
ischaemic optic neuropathy
vitreous haemorrhage
amaurosis fugax - TIA + GCA
lens dislocation
55
Q

How does GCA present?

A

Patient over 60 with a 1 month history of headache ± tender scalp, jaw claudication, visual disturbance (multiple episodes amaurosis fugax precede monocular blindness), pulsatile tender temporal artery, features of PMR (morning stiffness proximities limbs, mild polyarthropathy, low grade fever, anorexia, night sweats)

56
Q

How is a ?GCA investigated and managed?

A

Urgent rheum/ophtho review
Bloods - FBC, ESR, temporal artery bx (but this is done after commencing rx)
High dose PO prednisolone

57
Q

How does optic neuritis present?

A

unilateral painless loss of vision over hours to days
red desaturation
painful eye movements
RAPD

58
Q

What are the causes of optic neuritis and how is it managed?

A

MS, DM, syphilis

High dose steroids - 72h IV Methylpred, followed by PO prednisolone for weeks.

59
Q

How does central retinal vein occlusion present?

A

Sudden onset painless loss of vision in one eye

O/E - stormy sunset - retinal haemorrhage, dilated tortuous vessels.

60
Q

Risk factors for central retinal vein occlusion?

A
Htn
Glaucoma
Polycythaemia
Diabetes
Increasing age
61
Q

Management of central retinal vein occlusion?

A

Treat sequelae - macular oedema - intravitreal anti-VEGF, corticosteroid implants, photocoagulation for neovascularisation, mx risk factors.

62
Q

How does central retinal artery occlusion present?

A

Sudden painless loss of vision in one eye happens within seconds, RAPD, O/E cherry red spot at macula on pale retina.

63
Q

Mx of central retinal a occlusion and prognosis

A

Seen within 100 minutes = eye massage to dislodge blockage, surgical and medical rx to reduce IOP but rarely works. Poor prognosis.
Mx risk factors to prevent it happening in other eyes.

64
Q

Causes of vitreous haemorrhage

A

Diabetes, bleeding disorders, anticoagulation, retinal neovascularisation/tear/detachment/trauma

65
Q

Sx of vitreous haemorrhage

A

Sudden painless loss of vision in one eye, dark spots/floaters.

66
Q

Typical causes of gradual loss of vision?

A
Cataracts
ARMD
Glaucoma
Diabetic Retinopathy
Htn
Optic atrophy
Slow retinal detachment
67
Q

How is ARMD classified?

A

Dry - 90%

Wet - 10%

68
Q

How does dry ARMD look on fundoscopy?

A

Drusen - yellow round spots in Bruchs membrane
Geographic atrophy
Retinal depigmentation

69
Q

How does wet ARMD develop?

A

Choroidal neovascularisation between RPE and Bruchs membrane predisposes to exudate + haemorrhage which promotes more rapidly progressive loss of vision

70
Q

How does ARMD present?

A

Progressive central vision loss
Scotoma
Metamorphopsia/micropsia
Trouble adapting to changing light conditions, night vision affected early.

71
Q

How would you investigate ARMD?

A

Ophthalmology referral, slit lamp examination (pigment, exudative or haemorrhage change), OCT, ?wet = fluorescein angiography

72
Q

Mx of ARMD

A

Smoking cessation, give Amsler grid for home, OT and other support, low vision aids, visual acuity <6/12 with both eyes open inform DVLA
Early dry - AREDS2 formula - vit C, E, zinc, b-carotene (NOT IN SMOKERS), exogenous antioxidants
wet - intravitreal anti-VEGF

73
Q

What is primary open angle glaucoma?

A

An optic neuropathy associated with raised IOP, open angle as the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork which offers a functional increased resistance to aqueous outflow raising IOP.

74
Q

Risk factors for primary open angle glaucoma

A

genetics (1st degree relative), myopia, black, htn, DM, corticosteroids

75
Q

How does primary open angle glaucoma present? Including on fundoscopy

A

Usually asymptomatic picked up at routine optician appt who informs GP for referral to ophthalmology
Peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, optic disc cupping
O/E - optic disc cupping/pallor/haemorrhage, bayonetting of vessels, cup notching

76
Q

What investigations are used to diagnose primary open angle glaucoma?

A
Slit lamp examination
Gonioscopy
Automated perimetry
Applanation tonometry
Central corneal thickness
77
Q

How is primary open angle glaucoma managed?

A

Follow up at least annually

Eye drops to reduce IOP - 1st line PGA, 2nd b-blocker/CAinhibitor/sympathomimetic

78
Q

What is a cataract?

A

Opacity in the lens which reduces light reaching the retina and thus reducing visual acuity

79
Q

Causes/risk factors for cataracts?

A
aging
genetics - childhood cataract
Smoking
diabetes mellitus
long term steroids
hypocalcaemia
trauma
high alcohol intake
80
Q

Symptoms and signs of cataracts

A

Gradual onset progressive loss of vision, faded colour vision, glare and halos around lights
Defect of red reflex

81
Q

How is a cataract diagnosed?

A

Usually on strength of hx and O/E

Normal fundoscopy, visualised on slit lamp

82
Q

Name the 3 main types of cataracts

A

Nuclear - old age, sclerosis of lens causes changes in colour vision and myopia
Cortical cataracts - opacifications look like spokes on wheel, vision often unaffected
Posterior subcapsular - younger pt and those on steroids, glare when looking at lights, rapidly progressive

83
Q

How are cataracts managed?

A

Control risk factors, surgery - phacoemulsification and intraocular lens implant

84
Q

Complications of cataract surgery

A

Posterior capsule opacification
Endophthalmitis
Retinal detachment

85
Q

Define retinal detachment

A

Separation of the outer RPE from inner neurosensory retina which can be caused by traction from scarred vitreous + retina, leakage of fluid into the sub retinal space (exudative), or tears/breaks in retina from trauma/myopia/congenital defect

86
Q

How does a detached retina present?

A

4 F’s
Fall in visual acuity - painless, may be curtain like
Flashes
Floaters
Field loss - indicates location of detachment (sup field loss inf detachment)

87
Q

What determines the prognosis of a retinal detachment?

A

Time to definitive treatment
Site and extent of detachment (macula involved = even if repaired may not fully recover central vision)
Nature of underlying pathology

88
Q

Differential dx for retinal detachment

A

Posterior vitreous detachment
vitreous haemorrhage
retinal a occlusion
migraine

89
Q

Mx of retinal detachment

A

Vitrectomy
Other surgeries - scleral buckling, pneumatic retinopexy, cryotherapy
2-6 weeks to recover

90
Q

How does retinitis pigmentosa usually present?

A
Inherited disorder (can be autosomal or x-linked, dominant or recessive) more commonly seen in males
Night blindness -> daytime peripheral visual field loss causing 'tunnel vision'
91
Q

What does Retinitis pigmentosa look like on fundoscopy?

A

Black bone spicule shaped pigmentation in peripheral retina and mottling of RPE.

92
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy classified?

A

Non-proliferative (mild/mod/severe) or proliferative

93
Q

How would mild NPDR appear on fundoscopy?

A

1+ microaneurysms

94
Q

How would moderate NPDR appear on fundoscopy?

A

Microaneurysms + blot haemorrhages/cotton wool spots/hard exudates/venous beading/IRMAs

95
Q

How would severe NPDR appear on fundoscopy?

A

4-2-1 rule
Microaneurysms and blot haemorrhages in 4 quadrants
Venous beading in 2 quadrants
IRMAs in 1 quadrant

96
Q

How is proliferative diabetic retinopathy identified?

A

neovascularisation or vitreous haemorrhage

97
Q

How often should type 1 and type 2 diabetics be screened for retinopathy?

A

Annually with fundus photography

98
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy managed?

A

Preproliferative - good control of diabetes/htn, rx anaemia and renal disease, stop smoking
Proliferative/maculopathy - panretinal photocoagulation
Diabetic Macular Oedema - intravitreal anti-VEGF

99
Q

layers of the eye - exterior to interior

A

sclera and cornea
choroid (innermost layer = bruchs), iris, ciliary body
retina - outer retinal pigment epithelium, inner neural retina

100
Q

conditions associated with episcleritis and scleritis

A
polyarteritis nodosa
SLE
RA
ankylosing spondylitis
IBD