Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

Does ARMD present with an RAPD?

A

No

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2
Q

What signs will be present of fundoscopy in dry ARMD?

A

Hyper/hypopigmentation of retina

Deposition of drusen

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3
Q

What is the investigations of choice for wet ARMD?

A

Fundus fluorescene angiogram

OCT

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4
Q

What is the treatment for wet ARMD?

A

Anti-VEGF

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5
Q

What 4 conditions cause a gradual visual loss?

A

Cataract
ARMD
Chronic open angle glaucoma
Diabetic retinopathy

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6
Q

What signs will be seen on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion?

A

Pale swollen retina

Cherry-red spot on macula

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7
Q

What is the treatment for central retinal artery occlusion?

A

Ocular massage
Paper bag breathing - CO2 mediated arteriodilation
IV diamox (CA inhibitor)
Anterior chamber paracentesis

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8
Q

What signs will be seen on fundoscopy for central retinal vein occlusion?

A

Flame haemorrhage
Tortuous vessels
Swollen optic disc
Cotton wool spots

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9
Q

Does RAPD develop in central retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion?

A

Yes

Yes

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10
Q

What is ischaemic optic atrophy?

A

A cause of moderate to severe visual loss
Associated with 40-60s, hypermetropes, smokers.
Swollen optic disc with hyperaemia

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11
Q

What is the treatment for retinal detachment?

A

Retinal tears can be lasered

“Full-blown” detachment can utilise vitrectomy

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12
Q

What are 3 causes of painless, sudden visual loss?

A

Vasular occlusion (CRVO, CRAO, ischamic optic atrophy, amaurosis fugax)
Retinal detachment
Vitreous haemorrhage

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13
Q

What are 3 causes of painful, sudden visual loss?

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma
Optic neuritis
Giant cell arteritis

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14
Q

Is RAPD present in optic neuritis?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What is the treatment for optic nueritis?

A

Steroids

Beta-interferon

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16
Q

What is the treatment of giant cell arteritis?

A

2 years of steroids

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17
Q

What visual loss would a left sided parietal lesion cause?

A

Right inferior quadrantanopia

18
Q

What would a visual loss would a right sided temporal lesion cause?

A

Left superior quadrantanopia.

19
Q

Where would a brain lesion allow for sparing of the central vision?

A

If the lesion is in the visual cortex (cortical blindness)

20
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

How can the location, and therefore the underlying cause, of Horner’s be identified?

A

Disruption to sympathetic innervation of half of the face - leads to unilateral ptosis, anhidrosis and miosis.

Determined by extent of anhidrosis:

  • head, arm, trunk - central lesion i.e. stroke, syringomyelia
  • face alone - pre-ganglionic i.e. pancoast, cervical rib
  • none - post-ganglionic i.e. carotid pathology
21
Q

What is a unique cause of CNIII palsy?

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

22
Q

What is a unique cause of CNIV palsy?

A

Congenital

Trauma

23
Q

What is a unique cause of CNVI palsy?

A

Raised ICP

24
Q

How may scleritis be differentiated from episcleritis?

A

Localised injection in both

  • episcleritis blanches with phenylephrine, or mild ocular pressure
  • scleritis does not blanch with phenylephrine (injection is a deeper, purple-ish colour)

Scleritis is associated with connective tissue disease, episcleritis is not.

Pain is worse and deep with scleritis. Only mild or no pain in episcleritis.

25
What is the management for episcleritis?
Self-limiting Topical lubricants NSAIDs
26
What is the management for scleritis?
Oral NSAIDs Systemic steroids Immunosuppression if necrotic
27
What are the signs and symptoms of anterior uveitis/iritis?
``` Dull pain Photophobia Lacrimation Circumcorneal injection Hypopyon Small, fixed pupil ```
28
What is the treatment for anterior uveitis/iritis?
Topical steroids | Topical mydriatic - cyclopentolate, atropine
29
What are the symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma?
Unilateral eye pain and headache Red eye Cupping Hazy cornea
30
How do you measure intra-ocular pressure?
Tonometry
31
What is the initial management of acute angle closure glaucoma?
1. Pilocarpine - miotic (constricting) agent. 2. Acetazolamide (Diamox) - CA inhibitor, IV or oral. 3. Mannitol/Glycerol - hyperosmotic agent. 4. Timolol - beta-blocker. 5. Brimonidine - sympathomimetic agent.
32
What is the initial management of open angle glaucoma?
1. Prostaglandin eyedrops - latanoprost, first line. 2. Second line drugs: i. Beta-blockers - timolol. ii. CA inhibitors - dorzolamide. iii. Sympathomimetics - brimonidine.
33
A patient has blurry vision and photophobia. On examination, a small, fixed, oval pupil with ciliary flush is observed. What is the likely diagnosis?
Anterior uveitis
34
What are side effects of lantoprost drops?
Eye lash growth, eyelid and iris hyperpigmentation.
35
What is the definitive management of open angle glaucoma?
Trabeculectomy - surgery that opens a hole in the meshwork.
36
What is the definitive management of acute angle closure glaucoma?
Laser iridotomy - makes a hole in iris, allowing drainage into posterior chamber.
37
What is the management for a dendritic keratic ulcer?
Herpes simplex keratitis - topical aciclovir
38
What is Hutchinson's sign?
Shingles affecting tip of nose - strong risk factor for ocular involvement of HZV infection
39
What is the strongest risk factor for ARMD?
Smoking
40
What is the treatment for allergic conjunctivitis?
Topical antihistamines
41
What is Argyll-Robertson pupil? | What are the 2 causes?
A pupil that is not reactive to light but does accommodate. | Syphilis and diabetes mellitus