Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the paths of the neurovasculature through the orbital cavity?

A

Optic canal

  • Optic nerve
  • Ophthalmic artery

Superior orbital fissure

  • Oculomotor nerve
  • Trochlear nerve
  • Abducens nerve
  • Ophthalmic nerve (Va)
  • Superior ophthalmic vein

Inferior orbital fissure

  • Infraorbital nerve (branch of maxillary CN Vb)
  • Inferior ophthalmic vein
  • Sympathetic nerves
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2
Q

What is the vasculature of the eye?

A

Ophthalmic artery from the internal carotid supplies the eyeball.
The central retinal branch of the ophthalmic artery supplies the retina, occlusion will therefore cause blindness.

Drained by the superior and inferior ophthalmic veins, into the cavernous sinus.

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3
Q

What are the layers of the eyelid?

A

Skin and subcutaneous tissue (most superficial)

Orbicularis oculi

Orbital septum= tough sheet of fibrous tissue, blends with tarsal plates. Separates pre and post septal space.

Tarsal plates
Inferior tarsus- contains Meibomian glands slows evaporation of the eye’s tear film & prevents eyelids sticking together when closed

LPS
Superior tarsal muscle
Both open eyelids

Conjunctiva- contains goblet cells producing mucous layer of tear film.

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4
Q

What are the contents of the orbital cavity?

A
Eyeball
Peri-ocular fat
Extra-ocular muscles
Nerves and BV
Lacrimal apparatus
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5
Q

What are the actions of the extraocular muscles?

A

LPS- Elevates upper eyelid

SR- Elevates + adducts + medial rotation

IR- Depresses + adducts + lateral rotation

MR- Adducts

LR- Abducts Abducens nerve

SO- Depresses + abducts + medial rotation
Trochlear nerve

IO- Elevates + abducts + lateral rotation

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6
Q

Where is the visual cortex located?

A

Calcarine cortex of the occipital lobe.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of aqueous humour?

A

Secreted by the ciliary body from the anterior chamber.
Exerts a pressure to allow the eyeball to maintain its shape.
Provide nutrients and oxygen for ocular tissue including the avascular lens.
Removal of metabolic by-products from intraocular cells
Facilitating passage of light from intraocular cells

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8
Q

How is aqueous humour drained?

A

Through the iridocorneal angle (between cornea and iris) via the trabecular meshwork.

Then into the canal of Schlemm.

Any blockage of this pathway will increase IOP and can lead to glaucoma.
NB- Age related degeneration of the trabecular meshwork will lead to chronic open angle glaucoma.

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9
Q

What is the accommodation reflex?

A

Allows better focusing of images at closer distance.

Convergence
Change in lens thickness
Pupillary constriction

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10
Q

What is the uvea?

A

Most vascularised part of the body, found in the eye.
Pigmented layer of the eye consisting of three continuous segments- iris (anterior), ciliary body (intermediate) and choroid (posterior).
It is prone to infection- uveitis.

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11
Q

How do you classify uveitis?

A
  • Establish the location- which part of the uvea is affected?
  • Need to establish then whether the cause is infectious or non infectious.
  • Are there any keratic (cornea) precipitates present? Either granulomatous (e.g. in TB or sarcoidosis) or non granulomatous (appear more discrete).
  • Chronicity- is it acute? Recurrent (acute but >3 months apart) or chronic (<3 months apart)?

Examples of classified uveitis:

Idiopathic acute anterior uveitis with granulomatous KP
TB associated acute anterior uveitis with granulomatous KP

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12
Q

What are some causes of uveitis?

A

Mainly idiopathic.

Auto-immune: Sarcoidosis, SLE, MS, Behcets, Vogt koyangi Harada

Infectious-
Viral- HIV, CMV
Fungal- Candida
Protozoa- Toxoplasma
Bacteria- Syphyllis, TB 

Drug induced- Bisphosphonates, rifabutin, antivirals

Traumatic- sympathetic ophthalmia

Sometimes although classified as idiopathic, could be due to sarcoidosis which has not manifested yet elsewhere in the body. Need a biopsy to diagnose sarcoidosis and so if early presentation in the eye, lung biopsy would be -ve, we can’t do an eye biopsy so if we still suspect sarcoidosis we treat it as sarcoidosis although it is classified as idiopathic.

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13
Q

What symptoms does a Px with anterior uveitis present with?

A

Blurring of vision (due to cell and protein leaking)
Pain
Photophobia
Redness of eye

The symptoms present are due to inflammation of the iris, where blood vessels leak out WBC into the anterior chamber. Can see these cells floating when shining a white light into the eye, in a dark room. I.e similar to the beam of light from a projector where you can see dust particles.

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14
Q

What signs does a Px with anterior uveitis have?

A
Keratic precipitates
Cells in anterior chamber
Fibrillin in anterior chamber
Flare in anterior chamber (flare refers the beam of light you are shining through- which otherwise you wouldn’t see)
Cells in vitreous
Choroiditis lesions
Macular oedema 
Hypopyan- fibrin deposition 

The iris rests on the lens, so if inflamed the iris will scar and the posterior surface will stick to the lens- posterior synechiae. (Same can happen on anterior with the cornea)
If you don’t want this to stick you pull the iris away from the lens by dilating it, need to do quick since these strong adhesions are hard to overcome.

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15
Q

What causes keratic precipitates?

A

Macrophages and white cells try moving towards cooler temperatures, therefore move to the front of the eye.
Once inflammation subsides they are usually absorbed.

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16
Q

What are the differentials of anterior uveitis?

A

Acute glaucoma
Keratitis
Scleritis
Ocular trauma

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17
Q

What is intermediate uveitis?

A

Inflammation of ciliary body predominately- could still be inflammation in anterior or posterior aspect also.

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18
Q

What symptoms would a Px with intermediate/posterior uveitis present with?

A

Floaters- ciliary body inflamed-leaks WBC into the vitreous

Blurring of vision- Due to floaters or macular oedema due to inflammation.

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19
Q

IU treatment

A

Need oral steroids or systemic anti inflammatory

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20
Q

What signs would a Px with intermediate/posterior uveitis have?

A
Cells in vitreous
Snow balls (clumps of WBC in vitreous) often cause the symptom of floaters.
Snow banking (snowballs rest on macula)
Sheathing of BV 
Macular oedema
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21
Q

What is posterior uveitis?

A

Inflammation of the choroid predominantly.

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22
Q

What symptoms would a Px with posterior uveitis present with?

A

Blurred vision
Could be more drastic reduction in vision- since retina lies in front on the choroid therefore inflammation of the choroid will lead to inflammation of the retina.

NB toxoplasma treated with anti toxoplasma drugs then infalmmation.
TB uveitis need to be treated with anti-TB then steroids
CMV retinitis- Normal population have CMV but become infective when immunity is lower I.e. HIV, chemotherapy, steroids.
Sarcoidosis

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23
Q

How would you investigate uveitis?

A

First differentiate if infectious or non infectious.
FBC
U+Es
LFTs
Q Gold (+ve- have been exposed to tubercular antigen- treat with a 3 month course of anti-TB since it’s an immunological repsonse to the antigen rather than infectious response)
Treponemal antibody (syphyllis- can present in any way therefore test important for diagnosis)

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24
Q

Which special tests can you conduct to determine the cause of uveitis?

A
Sarcoidosis- XR + biopsy lung
SLE- anti dsDNA
MS- MRI. First presenting feature of MS can be optic neuritis or intermediate uveitis.
Behcets- HLA B51
Vogt Koyanagi Harada- HLA DR4/B27

Viral- Take sample for PCR
Fungal- Hx is useful and snowballs but should sample PCR.
Protozoa- IgG, IgM
Bacteria- For TB- IGRA Montoux, CXR
For syphyllis- treponemal antibodies.

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25
Q

How would you treat anterior uveitis?

A

Topical steroids/subconjucntivals
Cycloplegics - relax ciliary body (reduce pain) and cause dilatation of pupil (stops posterior synechiae from forming).

Rarely infective therefore can start treatment whilst awaiting results.

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26
Q

Why would we use steroids to treat uveitis?

What are the common local and systemic side effects?

A

Put steroid in the eyes to reduce the inflammation and reduce any systemic side effects.

Local:
Raised pressure in the eye which can lead to glaucoma- therefore give drops to prevent this.
Cataracts- surgery to fix this- reluctant to do this on younger Px as they lose the accommodation reflex with an artificial lens.

Systemic:

Osteoporosis 
Indigestion- gastric ulcers which may bleeds therefore give PPI.
Immunosuppression
Hair loss
Hyperglycaemia
Weight gain 
High dose can lead to avascular necrosis of femur
Anxiety
HTN
Cushingoid features 

Immunosuppressants take time to work so use steroids in the mean time
These have less side effects than steroids

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27
Q

What are the complications of anterior uveitis?

A

Posterior synechiae

Pupillary membrane

Ocular HTN/glaucoma- three causes- (1) Steroid drops (2) Build up of cell debris from inflamed BV can block the trabecular mesh work and so the ‘draining system’ (3) Increase in pressure can cause the anterior surface of the iris to stick to the cornea causing peripheral anterior synechiae- blocking the angle and trabecular meshwork.

Hypotony- if ciliary body not working properly due to inflammation this causes a reduced pressure, as it can’t produce the aqueous humour.

Cataract

Cystoid macular oedema

Posterior subcapsular cataracts- breadcrumb appearance from steroids

More worried about a reduced pressure since can’t do much to fix it, OST you can do is give max steroid drops to reduce inflammation and encourage ciliary body to work.

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28
Q

What is sympathetic opthalmia?
How does it occur?
How would you treat it?

A

Usually a penetrating injury of one eye where the iris pigment leaks and mixes with the blood.
The body develops an immunity against the iris pigment, and so will attack the other eye since it also contains the iris pigment. The person is at risk of losing the sight in the non injured eye.

Treat with steroids and immunosuppressants.
The bulk of the antigens are in the injured eye and so although the disease will not be cured, the symptoms will be reduced if this eye is removed.

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29
Q

What are the complications of intermediate/posterior uveitis?

A

Cataracts
Floaters
Swelling of macular- cystoid macular oedema

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30
Q

How would you treat intermediate/posterior uveitis?

A

Local-
Periocular steroids
Intravitreal steroid implants

Systemic-
Pulse therapy
Oral steroids
Immunosuppressants instead of long term steroid use
Antibiotic/antifungal/antiviral if infectious cause.

NB toxoplasma treated with anti toxoplasma drugs first then treat the inflammation.
TB uveitis need to be treated with anti-TB first then steroids
CMV retinitis- Normal population have CMV but become infective when immunity is lower I.e. HIV, chemotherapy, steroids.

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31
Q

What are some examples of immunotherapy used to treat uveitis?

A

Calcineurin inhibitiors- tacrolimus, cyclosporin. SE- BP, deranged renal function.

Cytotoxic immunosuppressants- methotrexate, azathioprine. SE- Bone marrow suppression, lymphoma.

Biologics- Infliximab, rituximab. SE- Infections, autoimmune like syndromes.

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32
Q

Which structures lie behind the orbit?

A

The internal carotid.

If a person was stabbed in the eye don’t remove the apparatus.

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33
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

Born without the greater wing of the sphenoid.
Brain bulges out through this area.
Pulsatile proptosis

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34
Q

What is glaucoma?

What are some types of glaucoma?

A

Group of conditions characterised by progressive optic neuropathy with corresponding visual field defects.
With/without raised IOP.

Types include:
Primary open-angle glaucoma
Angle closure glaucoma
Secondary glaucoma (due to uveitis, trauma etc)
Congenital glaucoma
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35
Q

How does glaucoma affect vision?

A

Main cause of irreversible blindness worldwide.
Damage to optic nerve affects peripheral vision first then total sight loss (Tunnel vision) then end stage complete VF loss.
Night vision worsens.

In the early stages (before tunnel vision) the pupil responses are normal.

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36
Q

How does tunnel vision manifest in a Px life?

A

Falling over
Bumping into things
Use their head more to see things around
Night vision becomes worse

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37
Q

What is the pathophysiology in glaucoma?

A

(1)Increase in IOP-
When we measure pressure we measure the anterior chamber pressure. The ciliary body secretes aqueous humour which provides nutrition for the cornea and removes waste/toxins.
This drains from the trabecular meshwork. Problem in the draining system will increase the pressure.

(2) Poor blood/O2 supply to the nerve head therefore nerve fibres gradually die. This gives you the optic neuropathy and VF defects, which defines glaucoma. (Nerve fibres die usually as you grow older but higher with glaucoma)

NB- Loss of VF demonstrated by cupping. As nerve fibres die, the C:D increases and the BV don’t have much support so use the cup as their support.

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38
Q

What are the types of glaucoma?

A

Open or closed angle glaucoma. Each further divided into primary and secondary.

Open angle (More Common)- The angle between the iris and cornea remains wide open, slow blockage of trabecular meshwork over time.
Closed angle- Sudden block in trabecular meshwork, decreased size of angle between iris and cornea, sudden increase in IOP.
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39
Q

What are some risk factors for open angle glaucoma?

A
Raised IOP
Increasing age
African, Hispanic, Asian 
FHx
Myopia
Diabetes, heart disease, HTN
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40
Q

What happens in open angle glaucoma?

A

Gradual increase in resistance through the trabecular meshwork
à difficult for aqueous humour to flow through the meshwork to exit the eye, hence pressure slowly builds up within the eye
Increased pressure in the eye causes cupping of the optic disc – normally the optic cup is less than half the size of the optic disc; in increased intraocular pressure the indent is wider- cupping of the optic disc occurs

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41
Q

How does open angle glaucoma present?

How is it diagnosed?

A

Largely asymptomatic
Visual loss may occur but central vision is preserved until later in disease
Diagnosis via routine ophthalmic examination at optometrists
GPs may suspect if they visualise cupped discs during ophthalmoscopy

Diagnosis-

  • Ophthalmoscopy- cupped disc
  • Visual fields
  • Intraocular pressure- may or may not be elevated
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42
Q

How is open angle glaucoma managed?

A

First line- Prostaglandin analogue eye drop i.e. lantanoprost
Second line- beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop
More advanced consider surgery/laser

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43
Q

What are the risk factors for closed angle glaucoma?

A
Raised IOP
Age
Far East ethnicity/south East Asian 
FHx
Hypermetropia
Adrenergic medications
Anticholinergic medications 
Tricyclic antidepressants eg amitriptyline- anticholinergic effects
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44
Q

How does acute closed angle glaucoma occur?

A

The iris bulges forward and seals off the trabecular meshwork from the anterior chamber
This prevents aqueous humour from being able to drain away
This results in continual build up of pressure in the eye, esp in the posterior chamber, which causes pressure behind the iris and worsens the closure of the angle
OPHTHALMIC EMERGENCY!
Can lead to permanent vision loss

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45
Q

How does acute closed angle glaucoma present?

A
Appear generally unwell in themselves
Acute onset
Red eye
Blurred vision
Halos around lights
Associated headache
N&V

O/E- red eye, teary, hazy cornea, decreased VA, dilatation of affected pupil, fixed pupil size, firm eyeball on palpation

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46
Q

How is acute closed angle glaucoma managed?

A

Immediately admit- if there is a delay to admission do the following

  • Lie pt on their back w/o pillow
  • Give pilocarpine eyedrops
  • Give acetazolamide 500mg orally
  • Give analgesia and anti-emetic if required

In secondary care, various medical options to reduce IOP-

  • Pilocarpine
  • Oral or IV acetazolamide
  • Hyperosmotic agents eg glycerol or mannitol to increase osmotic gradient between the blood and fluid in the eye
  • Timolol- BB- reduces production of aqueous humour
  • Dorzolamide- CA inhibitor- reduced production of aqueous humour
  • Brimonidine- sympathomimetic- reduces production of aqueous humour & increased uveoscleral outflow

Definitive treatment-
-Laser iridotomy- makes hole in iris to allow aqueous humour to flow from posterior chamber into anterior chamber, relieving pressure that was pushing the iris against the cornea, allows fluid to drain

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47
Q

What are the risk factors for other forms of glaucoma?

A
Raised IOP
Trauma
Topical steroids
Ocular inflammation
Surgical/iatrogenic
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48
Q

What is the MOA of pilocarpine in glaucoma?

A

Acts on muscarinic receptors in sphincter muscles in iris and causes constriction of pupil
Therefore it is a miotic agent
Also causes ciliary muscle contraction
These 2 effects cause the pathway for the flow of aqueous humour from the ciliary body, around the iris and into the trabecular meshwork to open up

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49
Q

What is normal IOP range?

How do you measure IOP?

A

10-21mmHg

Goldmann Applanation Tonometry (GAT)- gold standard test
Special device mounted on slit lamp, makes contact with cornea and applies different pressures to the front of the cornea to get an accurate measurement

Non-contact tonometry- used by opticians
Shooting a puff of air at the cornea and measuring the corneal response to the air, less accurate, but gives helpful estimate for general screening purposes

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50
Q

Is there any screening for glaucoma?

A

No
But optometrist should examine;

  • Older age- >60 every 2 years, >70 every year (free through NHS)
  • FHx of glaucoma- people >40 with first-degree relative with open angle glaucoma have eye test annually (free through NHS)
  • People >40 of black African family origin- annual eye test (not through NHS)
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51
Q

How is glaucoma treated?

A

Incurable
Can aim to slow down the progression
Aim to reduce IOP, even normal tension glaucoma.
Can treat through medical therapy, surgery or laser treatment.

Medical therapy- B blockers Timalol.
Ocular surgeries
Lasers

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52
Q

How would you treat glaucoma medically?

A
  • Use Beta-blocker like Timolol
  • Mitotics like pilocarpine in angle closed glaucoma will pull the iris away from the trabecular meshwork to improve drainage of aqueous humour.
  • Prostaglandin analogue like Xalatan will reduce production of aqueous humour and help with drainage; only take one a day.
  • Alpha adrenergics like Alphagan will reduce production of aqueous humour.
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Adverse reaction to meds, eye drops. Stop the drops and find alternative.

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53
Q

How would you treat glaucoma with a laser?

A

Trabeculoplasty- Increases outflow of aqueous by encouraging pumping of trabecular.

-Cyclodiode- Destroys parts of the ciliary body. Used only to provide comfort in the blind eye by reducing IOP. Don’t use in healthy eye as can cause vision loss.

Goniotomy- Used in children

Peripheral Laser Iridotomy- Used in closed angle

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54
Q

How would you treat glaucoma surgically?

What are the associated complications?

A

Trabeculectomy- Making a different tract for the humour to drain by cutting through the eye. Under the top lid they’ll have a ‘bleb’- Px won’t notice.
Don’t use in young Px or uveitis since can scar easily and block the new channel.

Iritis
Blelbitis
Sudden increase/ decrease in IOP.

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55
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

-Red painful eye
-N+V (may be there first)
-Blurred vision due to cornea hazy
-Halo eyes (esp in subacute closed angle glaucoma where the angle opens and close intermittently)
-Corneal Oedema- blue haze around
-Fixed and oval pupil
Ciliary injection

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56
Q

How is acute angle closure glaucoma treated?

A
  • Give intraocular injections (subconjunctival) of acetozolamide- for quick reduction in IOP.
  • Keep them hydrated and check IOP in 30mins then again, should reduce pressure within 1hr.
  • Cornea should become clearer, now able to examine the eye.
  • Adjunct topical therapy

-Then laser peripheral iridotomy in both eyes, creates a hole in the eye to allow aqueous humour drainage.

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57
Q

How do you take a Hx of poor vision?

A

Onset?
Distance/near?
Do you wear glasses?
When did you have an eye test last?

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58
Q

Optical components

A

Cornea fixed at ~40 diopter
Lens (variable) ~20 dioptres
Axial length ~23mm (distance from cornea to retina)

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59
Q

What is refractive error?

What causes refractive error?

A

Deficiency in refraction leading to blurred vision.
Either due to physiological causes

-Normal cornea but anomalous axial length. (Most common cause in people who wear glasses)
-Anomalous cornea but normal axial length.
Or
Pathological including corneal transplant, rubbing eyes, as result of corneal ulcer etc.

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60
Q

What are the types of refractive error?

A

Myopia either normal cornea but longer axial length (common) or high power cornea but normal axial length.

Hypermetropia- opposite to myopia.

Astigmatism- rugby ball cornea, have two curves in the cornea 90 degrees to each other resulting in blurred vision. Each curve produces its own image. Usually have in both eyes, won’t know unless Px is assessed.

Acquired astigmatism I.e. in corneal transplant.

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61
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Natural decline in accommodation reflex, due to thickening and reduced elasticity of the lens.
Need for reading glasses

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62
Q

What are the RF for diabetic retinopathy?

A
Duration of diabetes
Poor glycaemic control 
Hypertension
Pregnancy
Smoking
Obesity 
Nephropathy
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63
Q

Is there any screening for diabetic retinopathy?

A

> 12yrs with diabetes gets annual screening.

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64
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind diabetic retinopathy?

A

Two mechanisms:

Leakage: Hyperglycaemia leads to loss of pericytes. Some exist in the capillary support system and so can lead to microaneurysm formation- early sign of diabetic retinopathy.

Occlusion of capillaries: Basement membrane thickens and endothelial cells undergo apoptosis due to hyperglycaemia. This, along with loss of pericytes and increased platelet aggregation leads to occlusion and ischaemia.

Retinal hypoxia upregulates VEGF.

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65
Q

What do microaneurysms/leakages cause?

What do occluded capillaries cause?

A

Microaneurysms/leakages: Lipid exudates, oedema, haemorrhages.

Occlusion of capillaries- ischaemia which can cause new vessel formation (not good as can rupture), irregular retinal veins/venous bleeding, cotton wool spots, intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA- valved branches of vessels which aim to perfuse areas of nil perfusion).

IRMA are patent and do not leak whereas neovascular vessels are leaky.

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66
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy classified?

A

Falls into either diabetic retinopathy:
Background diabetic retinopathy
Pre proliferative
Proliferative

(Will progress to the next stage if poor glycaemic control)

or

Diabetic maculopathy:
Focal macular oedema
Diffuse macular oedema
Ischaemic maculopathy
Clinically significant macular oedema (CSMO)

All changes are seen and diagnosed when observed via a slit lamp.

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67
Q

What are the signs of background diabetic retinopathy?

How is it managed?

A

Microaneurysm- saccular aneurysm
Dot and blot haemorrhages (retinal haemorrhages)
Hard exudates- lipid deposits due to leakage
Cotton wool spots (ischaemia of the nerve fibre layer)

Manage- Regular monitoring by an ophthalmologist.

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68
Q

What are the signs of preproliferave diabetic retinopathy?

How is it managed?

A

Progression from BR if poor glycaemic control, leading to ischaemia.
Leads to:
IRMA
Venous loop/bleeding
Cluster of large blot haemorrhages
Multiple cotton wool spots- in > 2-3 quadrants

Manage by follow up in 4 months.

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69
Q

What are the signs of proliferative retinopathy?

How is it managed?

A

This is a more serious form of retinopathy. As a result of progression from preproliferative if poor glycaemic control and/or other vascular problems present.

New vessels form either on the disc (NVD) or elsewhere (NVE).
May have pre-retinal haemorrhages.
Advance disease may have retinal detachment.

Manage with panretinal photocoagulation treatment within 2 weeks.

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70
Q

What is diabetic maculopathy?

A

The macula provides us with our central vision.
In diabetic maculopathy, the macula sustains damage, often from diabetic macula oedema- BV next to macula leak protein/fluid.

If this causes retina to harden or exudates become large next to the fovea this is termed CSMO.

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71
Q

What is focal macular oedema?

How is it managed?

A

Focal
Well-circumscribed areas of leakage, with oedema.
Full/partial rings of exudates often surrounding microaneurysm

Treat with focal laser- takes 3 months to take effect.

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72
Q

What is diffuse macular oedema?

How is it treated?

A

Diffuse retinal thickness with cystoid oedema (diffuse swelling)

Treat with grid laser.

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73
Q

What is ischaemic maculopathy?

How is it managed?

A

Reduced visual acuity
Normal clinical appearance
Macular ischaemia on fundus fluorescent angiogram.

Treat through observation

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74
Q

What is clinically significant macular oedema (CSMO)?

How is it treated?

A

Retinal thickening at or within 500 microns of the centre of the macula.
Hard exudates at or within 500 microns of the centre of the macula if associated with adjacent retinal thickening
Retinal thickness of >1disc area, any part of which is within 1DD of the centre of the macula.

Treat with Anti-VEGF

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75
Q

What is mixed maculopathy?

A

Combination of diffuse and ischaemic maculopathy.

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76
Q

What is central involving maculopathy?

How would you treat it?

A

Thickening involving the fovea centre >400 micron and visual acuity 6/9
Treatment: Anti VEGF therapies,
IV Iluvien (implants) for persistent DMO which is not cured by Anti-VEGF.

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77
Q

What are some complications of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Maculopathy is the most common cause of blindness in diabetes. T1DM is more likely to present with proliferative change. T2DM is more likely to present with maculopathy.

Common complications-

  • Retinopathy.
  • Iridopathy (ischaemic changes of iris- minor iris transillumination defects).
  • Unstable refraction.
  • Orbital infection
  • Ocular ischaemic syndrome

Less common include recurrent stye, ocular nerve palsies etc.

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78
Q

How would you manage diabetic retinopathies primarily? (Prevention>Cure)

A
  • Good glycaemic control
  • BP control
  • Reduce cholesterol
  • Stop smoking
  • Weight loss
  • Exercise
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79
Q

Give an overview of management of the different diabetic retinopathy types.

A
  • Background: Annual screening , Systemic disease with 9-12 months hospital FU.
  • Pre Proliferative: 4-6/12 FU
  • Proliferative/Active : Pan Retinal Photocoagulation(PRP) within 2/52
  • Proliferative- once stable: 4-6/12 FU
  • Proliferative with DMO: Macular laser to treat maculopathy first- otherwise can lose vision then PRP.
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80
Q

Give an overview of management of the different types of diabetic maculopathy.

A
  • Focal: Focal laser, FU 3-4/12
  • Diffuse: Grid laser, FU 3-4/12
  • Central involving: > 400 micron Anti VEGF
  • Ischaemic : observe
  • Persistent maculopathy: IV fluocinolone (Iluvein)
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81
Q

What is a vitreous haemorrhage and how would you treat it?

What is rubeosis and how would you treat it?

A

VH- Bleeding of normal, diseased or new BV into the vitreous humour leading to sudden onset painless vision loss.
PRP same day or 2/52 later- until vision is cleared.
If persistent: vitrectomy+ endolaser+ anti VEGF.

R- Severe ischaemia leads to neovascularisation; where new vessels can grow over the iris- appears red and if trabecular meshwork is blocked on its course then can cause glaucoma.
Urgent PRP
Rubeotic glaucoma: PRP/ANTI VEGF,IOP reduction, Cyclodiode
If causes VH- VITI+ Endolaser

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82
Q

How would you take a Hx of Red Eye?

A
Vision loss- corenal ulceration, glacuma, iritis
Pain- amount of pain; severe- scleritis, minimal- conjunctivitis
Discharge- can indicate bacterial
Onset (sudden/gradual)
Duration
Other Symptoms?
Itching?
Grittiness?
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83
Q

How would you examine a red eye?

A
  • Snellen chart- Even if in A&E; need to assess VA
  • Ophthalmoscope (blue light to examine the anterior chamber)
  • Magnifying Aid
  • Fluorescein drops to look for corneal abrasions- will pass over normal cornea but will get ‘stuck’ at defects
  • Use slit lamps
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84
Q

What is bacterial conjunctivitis?

How is it managed?

A

Mild discomfort
Purulent discharge
Starts off with one eye so ask in the Hx.
Good VA

Manage by taking a swab and treat with chloramphenicol (ointment/eyedrops) QDS for 1 wk.

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85
Q

What is viral conjunctivitis?

How is it managed?

A
Gritty/mild discomfort
Associated cold/cough
Watery discharge
Duration of several weeks
Corneal involvement can be very painful
Diffuse bilateral red eye
Preauricular LN sometimes

Manage- Self limiting
Can take a viral swab and treat with lubricants, Abx to avoid secondary bacterial infection.
Steroid eye drops if cornea involved.
Bilateral redness

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86
Q

What is Chlamydial conjunctivitis?

How is it managed?

A

Mucopurulent discharge
More chronic- lasting weeks
Associated STI symptoms
O/E conjunctival injection, follicles (transparent collection of lymphocytes)

Manage- With chlamydial swab, referral to GUM, topical Abx and systemic azithromycin/tetracycline.

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87
Q

What is allergic conjunctivitis?

How is it managed?

A

Hx of atopy, itching and redness
Diffuse injection
Chemosis (swollen conjunctivae)
Papillae- oedema in conjunctiva under the eyelid (cobblestone like)

Manage- Topical/oral antihistamines. If severe then topical steroids.

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88
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatrum?

How is it managed?

A

Conjunctivitis of <1 month old.
Gonorrhoeal/chlamydial- passed through the delivery and can result in corneal disease/blindness.

Manage- Need urgent viral/bacterial/chlamydial swabs
Treat with topical Abx drops, admit under paediatrics and may require systemic treatment-depending on the cause.

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89
Q

What is episcleritis?

How is it managed?

A
Localised area of inflammation of episclera
Acute onset
Discharge
Area of irritation
Sector of redness
Minimal discomfort
Bright red eye but no associated pain
Foreign body sensation
Watering eye
Associated with IBD and RA

Usually self limiting- resolves within 7-10 days, can prescribe lubricant drops for comfort or NSAIDs.
If recurrent then consider inflammatory screen.

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90
Q

What is scleritis?

How is it managed?

A
Inflammation of the sclera.
Very painful
Reduced VA
Photophobia 
Global tenderness on palpation
Diffuse redness
Px may wake up with it, unable to move the eye.
Associated with:
SLE
RA
IBD
Sarcoidosis
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Manage- Need immediate referral. Inflammatory screen looking for RA, Wegners, sarcoidosis etc.
Treat with NSAIDs, oral prednisolone or immunosuppressants if have a systemic disease.

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91
Q

What is keratitis?
What are the causes?
What is the most common type?

A

Inflammation of the cornea

Causes:
Viral- HPV
Bacterial- Staph, pseudomonas
Fungal infection- Candida, aspergillus
Contact lens acute red eye (CLARE)

Common type is Herpes simplex keratitis (HSV).

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92
Q

What are the types of corneal ulcers?

A

Bacterial
Viral- Herpes Simplex Keraitis, Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus, Adenovirus

Other infections including fungal, acanthamoeba

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93
Q

How would you take a Hx for a corneal ulcer?

How will it present on examination?

A
Pain and photophobia
Contact lenses
Facial cold sores
Rash/vesicles
Recent injury/abrasions
May have vision loss

Presents with:

  • Conjunctival injection
  • Abrasion
  • Hypopyon- pus in the anterior chamber
  • Will see on fluroscein
94
Q

How would a bacterial corneal ulcer present?

How is it managed?

A

Infiltrate hypopyon.

Treat intensively with hourly drops of fluroquinolones; need a few days of therapy.

If more severe- use dual therapy Abx. Take samples via a corneal scrape for MCS.

95
Q

How does a HSK corneal ulcer present?

How is it managed?

A

Can occur as the first manifestation or as a recurrent.

Px presents with:
Painful red eye
Photophobia
Vesicles around the eye
FB sensation
Watering eye
Reduced VA (can be subtle or significant)
A hazy cornea or cream opacity (suggests stromal keratitis)
Reduced corneal sensation

These are dendritic ulcers due to coldsore virus.
Can observe on slit lamp also take a viral swab for PCR.

96
Q

How is HSK managed?

A

Local anaesthetic applied with a cotton bud.
Acyclovir topical/oral.
Any ulceration should be treated prophylactically with chloramphenicol Abx.
Any stromal keratitis may require steroid treatment.

In the case of stromal keratitis, where scarring has occurred Px may require a corneal transplant.

97
Q

What are fungal and acanthamoeba corneal ulcers?

A

These are less common corneal ulceration but more common in contact lens wears.
Acanthameoba- Swimming, showering in contact lenses- water could be contaminated or sleeping in contact lenses.

Trauma to the cornea creates a point of access for organisms.

Manage with intensive anti-fungal/anti-amoebic drops.

98
Q

What is a corneal abrasion?

What are the causes of corneal abrasion?

A

These are partial thickness injuries of the cornea following a history of minor trauma i.e. scratch, grit, contact lenses etc.

Painful
Watering
Red
Blurred vision
Photophobia
Foreign body sensation
Hx of foreign body or contact lenses 
Causes:
Contact lenses
Foreign body
Fingernails
Eyelashes
Entropian
99
Q

How is a corneal abrasion investigated?

How is it managed?

A

Observe with fluorescein staining- will appear yellow, can look at more significant ones with slit lamp.

Mx-
Topical Abx; chloramphenicol eye drops.
Lubricating eye drops.
Px to return after 1 week to observe progress.
Uncomplicated cases resolve within 2-3 days.

100
Q

What are complications of contact lenses?

A
Bacterial keratitis
Other types of keratitis
Corneal abrasion
Contact kens associated red eye (CLARE)
3 and 9 O clock staining
Inferior closure stain
101
Q

What is blepharitis?

A

Chronic inflammation of eyelids.
Dry eye, grittiness, redness.

Can get anterior- Affecting the base of the eyelashes, either due to seborrheic keratosis or staph blepharitis caused by s.epidermidis or s.aureus.

Can get posterior- Inflammation of the Meibomian glands.
May also get a mixed image.

Commonly associated with seborrheic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome and rosacea.

102
Q

How is blepharitis managed?

A

Good eyelid hygeine- using cotton buds to remove crustiness.
Apply pressure with warm compress over Meibomian glands to express them.

If these unsuccessful then use chloramphenicol Abx.
Artificial tear drops for relief of symptoms, when necessary
Steroid eye drops for inflammatory side, used very sparingly

103
Q

What is a subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A
  • Red eye
  • Comfortable
  • Well demarcated subconjunctival blood
  • No affect on vision

Check BP and clotting. Ask about coughing, weight lifting, constipation, HTN, trauma etc.
Not dangerous- will resolve itself without treatment. Can give lubricating drops if foreign body sensation.

104
Q

What is Pterygia and Pingueuculum?

A

Fibrovascular growth of the conjunctiva. Pterygia is where the growth is over the cornea so can impair. Pingueuculum is an elevated bump/patch which does not grow over the cornea so does not need resecting.
This can become inflamed and irritated, become gritty with discomfort.

Surgically remove if onto the cornea, otherwise use lubricants.

105
Q

What is a Snellen Chart?

A

Used to measure visual acuity.
Numerator is the distance the Px is away from the chart- 6m
Denominator is the distance a person with normal vision would be able to see. 6/6 or 20/20 is ‘perfect vision’.
E.g. VA= 6/12 ^-2
Add a -x or +x to the denominator for when the Px can’t get through an entire line.

106
Q

What is the LogMar chart?

A

More standardised compared to the Snellen chart. Each line has a value of 0.1 and each letter a value of 0.02.
VA= the score of the line they read + the score of the letters they can’t read on the line. E.g. if a person reads to the line worth 0.6, but can only read 3/5 letters then VA= 0.6 + (2*0.02)= 0.64.

107
Q

What types of preferential looking based tests exist?

A

These are useful in children, Px with cognitive impairments or non English speakers.
Examiner will look through a small pinhole in the card to objectively observe where the Px chooses to look.

  • Keeler Preferential Looking Cards
  • Cardiff Acuity Cards
  • Kay Pictures
  • LogMAR Keeler Book
108
Q

What are Keeler Preferential Looking Cards?

A

Look towards a sheet which has group of stripes which eventually get finer.
Use from age 8wks to 12months.
Test 38cm away.

109
Q

What are Cardiff Acuity Cards?

A

Picture located at either the top, middle of bottom of the card.
Age 3-18 months,
Test 50cm-1m away.

110
Q

What are Kay pictures?

A

LogMAR- group of pictures and if Px can’t articulate the answer then match with cards infront of them.
2-4yrs.
Test at 3m

Pictures can be crowded (objects around it) or uncrowded.

111
Q

What are LogMAR Keeler Book?

A

Letter based with matching cards.
Crowded and uncrowded.
4+yrs.
Test at 3m.

112
Q

How would you test low visual acuity, where VA tests are not useful?

A
  • Counting fingers
  • Hand movements
  • Perception of light- check if retina functioning.
  • If not responding to any then mark as No Perception of Light (NPL)
113
Q

What is the purpose of the cover test?

A

Cover test will differentiate between a manifest and latent deviation.

Cover-uncover test shows manifest deviation: A squint present when both eyes are open, Px is alert and looking at their target.

Alternate cover test shows a latent deviation: A squint most people have, slight imbalance, but when the Px is alert then can’t tell.

Also looking at their compensatory head posture, ptosis, nystagmus, unequal pupils etc.

114
Q

What is strabismus?

A

Strabismus is the medical term for a squint.
Either horizontal or vertical.

Esotropia- Inward
Exotropia- Outward
Hypertropia- Upward
Hypotropia- Downward

115
Q

What are the RF for developing strabismus?

A
FHx
LMBW
Maternal smoking
Hypertropia
Downs syndrome
Disease affecting nerve/muscles
Premature birth
Cataract
Head injury
116
Q

What are the RF for adult strabismus?

A
Eye or blood vessel damage
Loss of vision
Eye tumour or brain tumour
Graves’ disease
Stroke
Various muscle and nerve disorders
117
Q

How would strabismus present in thyroid eye disease?

A

TED- Commonly IR and MR affected, therefore get hypotropia and esotropia.

118
Q

What is the difference between amblyopia and strabismus?

A

Strabismus refers to a turn in the eye- squint.

Amblyopia refers to a reduced vision, where strabismus is a common cause. (Lazy eye)

119
Q

When does the vision develop?

A

The visual system is immature at birth, where the fovea develops fully at 4-6 months. Up until the age of 7 yrs the visual cortex is plastic- so any correction of a strabismus should be completed before this.

The axial length is shorter than that of an adult.

120
Q

What is amblyopia?

A
A unilateral (usually) reduction in visual acuity where ocular disease or obvious structural abnormality is not present. 
This is treatable in children.
121
Q

What are the causes of amblyopia?

A
  • Strabismus
  • Anisometropia- difference in refractive errors between the eyes.
  • High bilateral refractive error
  • Stimulus deprivation- blockage in vision i.e. ptosis, congenital cataract etc
  • High Astigmatism
122
Q

What is the difference between concomitant and inconcomitant strabismus?
What are some causes of concomitant?

A

Inconcomitant is where the size and angle of squint is different in different positions of gaze, i.e. nerve palsy.

Concomitant is where the angle and size of the squint is the same in different positions of gaze i.e. in children. These can be ‘fully accommodative’ where they are resolved by correcting the refractive error. Or they can be ‘intermittent distance’ where the squint changes with distance i.e. goes as move closer to stimulus.

Concomitant causes include refractive error, FHx, premature, developmental delay or idiopathic.

123
Q

How would you investigate strabismus/amblyopia?

A

Orthoptic tests-
VA, CT, OM (ocular motility).

Cycloplegic tests-
Dilate the pupils and relax the accommodation reflex using cycloplegics to objectively assess refractive error.

Eye health-
Need to ensure not due to fundus or media pathology inc cataract or retinal tumour.

If unusual or any red flags refer for imaging and bloods.

124
Q

What is the importance of cover tests in the diagnosis of strabismus?

A

Cover test (single cover test) will detect manifest strabismus
Ask pt to focus on a target
Cover one eye and look at the other
If there is no shift in fixation of the uncovered eye, the patient has normal alignment = orthotropic
If there is a shift in fixation in the uncovered eye, then the patient has heterotropia
Exotropia: the eye is outwards at rest, and moves nasally when the opposite eye is covered
Esotropia: the eye is inwards at rest (nasal direction), and moves temporally when the opposite eye is covered
Hypertropia: the eye is upwards at rest and moves inferiorly when the opposite eye is covered
Hypotropia: the eye is downwards at rest and moves superiorly when the opposite eye is covered

Cover-uncover test (alternating cover test) will detect if a latent strabismus
If the above single cover test demonstrates no tropia
Cover one eye for 1-2 seconds, then quickly remove the occlude to restore binocular vision
The eye that was covered is observed (rather than the uncovered eye as in single cover test) for refixation movement
If a phoria is present, this eye will shift back to being orthotropia to re-establish sensory fusion with the other eye
Exophoria: the covered eye moves nasally when uncovered
Esophoria: the covered eye moves temporally when uncovered
Hyperphoria: moves inferiorly
Hypophoria: moves superiorly

125
Q

How would you manage strabismus or amblyopia?

A

Correct the refractive error- will show results within 18-20wks.

If no improvement then patch the good eye to encourage bad eye to correct itself- possible due to cortical plasticity.

If still poor then surgery- although can recur it is good for confidence and prevention of long term mental health issues.

126
Q

What does the presence of both amblyopia and strabismus in childhood suggest?

A
  • Retinoblastoma: If missed can cause blindness, loss of eye, death
  • Congenital cataract: If missed can cause blindness

To rule these out- all children are examined for red reflex at birth
If dark or white- something is blocking the light, refer to Ophthalmology immediately.

127
Q

What are the types of diplopia?

A

Monocular- ghosting/shadowing of image due to uncorrected refracted error or cataracts. Usually comes from one eye.

Binocular- Either horizontal or vertical diplopia depending on if the eyes are misaligned horizontally or vertically. Very debilitating and confusing for a Px. Increase risk of falling, illegal to drive.

Tilt diplopia- mix of horizontal and vertical misalignment or due to torsion diplopia.

128
Q

Why don’t children get diplopia?

A

The visual plasticity allows for the brain to suppress parts of the retina which would accept the information that would otherwise confuse the brain and cause diplopia. Therefore children won’t get diplopia, it is a symptom of adults with previously straight eyes.

NB Manage diplopia with prisms.

129
Q

What are the features of a CNIII palsy?

A

CNIII has the superior and inferior branches. S- LPS, SR. I- IR, MR, IO.

Partial/complete ptosis
Eye depressed and abducted
Dilated and unreactive pupils
Oblique diplopia under the ptosis.

130
Q

What are the causes of CNIII palsy?

A
Microvascular- diabetes, HTN
PCA aneurysm
SOL
Trauma
Demyelinating disease
GCS
131
Q

How would you investigate and manage a CNIII palsy?

A

Orthoptic tests-
VA, CT, OM, pupils

General- bloods, BP, MRI/CT, biopsy (if suspecting GCA).

  • Treat underlying cause, microvascular will recover at least partially 6-9 months.
  • Prisms to treat amblyopia in <8yrs.
  • Strabismus surgery just to alleviate non-recovering diplopia. Mainly improves appearance.
  • Can reduce residual diplopia with occlusive contact lens.
132
Q

What does a painful, unilateral CNIII palsy suggest?

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm- emergency neurological referral!

133
Q

What are the features of CNIV palsy?

A

Controls SO
Prone to damage due to longer cause.

-Vertical diplopia
-Hypertropia
-Head tilt to unaffected side
usually vertical diplopia.
-Torsion

134
Q

What are the causes of CNIV palsy?

A
  • Back of head trauma (<45yrs usually)
  • Microvascular (DM, HTN)
  • MS
  • SOL
  • Congenital
135
Q

How would you investigate and manage a CNIV palsy?

A

Orthoptic test-
VA, CT, OM, pupils
General- Image if unusual i.e young but no head injury.

Treat by monitoring recovery, temporary prism or surgery.

136
Q

What are the features of a CNVI palsy?

A

Lateral rectus.
Susceptible to increased ICP, runs over sharp bony edge, therefore if bilateral CNVI palsy think raised ICP.

  • Esodeviation- larger in distance
  • Face turn to affected side
  • Horizontal diplopia- greater in distance and towards affected side
  • Limited abduction
137
Q

What are the causes of a CNVI palsy?

A
  • Raised ICP
  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Microvascular
  • SOL
  • Demyelinating disease
  • Infection
138
Q

How would you investigate and manage CNVI palsy?

A

Orthoptic tests-
VA, CT, OM, pupils, CV (colour vision since this would be an early sign of raised ICP), PCT.
General tests-
BP, bloods, CT/MRI

  • Treat underlying cause
  • Monitor recovery (Microvascular disease is 6-9 months)
  • Prisms
  • Surgery to align and reduce diplopia
139
Q

What is a CNVI palsy + disc swelling/papilledema suggestive of?

A

Increased ICP

Need emergency neurological imaging

140
Q

How is a CNVI palsy managed?

A

Most microvascular palsies and childhood post-viral palsies resolve spontaneously so offer prisms or occlusion for large incomitant deviations

If stable & symptomatic for >6 months, consider surgery

141
Q

What is Duanes sydnrome?

A
Congenital
Problem in the development of CNVI
Px unable to adduct and abduct properly
Adopts a head tilt to compensate
Cannot be treated
Patching is irrelevant
142
Q

What is thyroid eye disease?

A

Idiopathic autoimmune disorder, commonly associated with Graves.

Two phases;
Active/inflammatory- initial stage, oedema of extraocular muscles and orbital fat- pushing the eye out (proptosis).
Inactive/fibrotic- changes unlikely.

Affects females more than males.

143
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of thyroid eye disease?

A

Symptoms-

  • Gritty or watery eyes
  • Puffy eyelids
  • Ocular pressure or pain
  • Angry looking eyes
  • Bulging eyes
  • Diplopia
  • Visual loss
  • Field loss
  • Dyschromatopsia- colour vision problems
  • Depression

Signs-

  • Proptosis- unilateral reflecting the asymmetric muscle involvement
  • Lid lag on downgaze (von Graefe sign)
  • Lid oedema
  • Increased IOP- glaucoma may result from decreased episcleral venous outflow, because of restrictive myopathy.
  • Strabismus
  • Optic nerve compression may occur with seemingly mild proptosis – often without visible optic nerve oedema

Document visual acuity, colour vision, presence/ absence of a relative afferent pupillary defect during each visit.

144
Q

How is thyroid eye disease investigated?

A

General health
Ocular health
Hx- Fhx, SMOKING, occupation, hyper/hypothyroid, compliance to meds, which meds and how often they take them, symptoms, old images

Examination- VA, istihara colour vision assessment, exophthalmometry, orbital tension, assess lid lag, lid retraction, corneal exposure- ulcer?

Orthoptic assessment- field of binocular single vision, field of uniocular fixation, Hess chart, visual field study, take pictures

TFTs, antibody screen, MRI (preferred).

145
Q

How is thyroid eye disease managed?

A
Optimise endocrine control
STOP SMOKING
Avoid radioiodine
Lubricants
Ocular hypotensives
Radiotherapy
Surgery- orbital decompression firstly, strabismus surgery, lid surgery (upper/ lower retractions- in the fibrotic stage)

Clinical activity score- done when you first see them and when you see them again to see improvements/ decline.
> or including 4= benefit from immunosuppression
<4= risks outweigh the benefits of immunosuppression
Immunosuppression options:
IV or oral corticosteroids if active inflammation coexists with moderate or severe TED

Pain- painful oppressive feeling on or behind globe, pain on attempted up/ down/ side gaze
Redness- of eyelids or conjunctiva
Swelling- of lids, chemosis, swollen caruncle, increase in proptosis of >2mm in 1-3 months
Impaired function- decrease in eye movements of 5 degrees in 1-3 months, or decrease in VA on Snellens or 1 or more lines in 1-3 months

146
Q

What is Ocular Myasthenia Gravis (OMG)?

A

Autoimmune disease of NMJ, where muscles fatigue easily after movement, therefore Px feel best in the morning and worse at the end of the day.

Usually presents with ocular MG before developing generalised MG.

147
Q

What are the features of OMG?

A
  • Ptosis- (variable and fatiguing between and within eyes) unilateral/bilateral. LPS very susceptible to fatigue.
  • Strabismus (variable)
  • Diplopia- changes with their strabismus
  • Accommodation fatigue- difficulty reading

Can mimic any neve palsy, where the presentation is constantly changing.

148
Q

How would you investigate OMG?

A

Ice and rest test- Apply ice to the eye lid for 5 minutes and notice a loss of the ptosis.

Orthoptic-
Sustained elevation upgaze- Can’t look up for more than 60 seconds.
Cognas lid twitch- Eye lid twitches when looking up.
Repeat examinations may show variable results.

General-
Diagnose with AchR antibody and electrophysiology testing.

149
Q

How would you manage OMG?

A

Address the symptoms i.e. prisms for diplopia.

Medical- Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (pyridostigmine) combined with immunosuppressive drugs (steroids, rituximab azathioprine etc).
Thymectomy may be useful.
Crisis- IV IG or plasmapheresis.

150
Q

How would a SOL present in the eyes?

What are the potential causes of a SOL in the orbit?

A
  • Unilateral proptosis
  • Ocular and orbital pain

Causes include:

  • Orbital tumour; optic nerve glioma, schwannoma, sarcoma
  • Retrobulbar haemorrhage
  • Orbital pseudotumor
151
Q

How would you manage a SOL in the orbit?

A
Temporary prisms (Fresnel prisms)
Incorporated prisms

Occlusion; patches, occlusive contact lenses

Surgery-
Resection- remove part of the muscle to strengthen/tighten it.
Recession- move the muscle forward to weaken it.

152
Q

Pupils-

A

swinging tests

153
Q

Afferent defects

A

Optic nerve compromise
Othe clues

CAuses; optic neuritis, trauma, demyelination, galucoma, tumours, retinal abnormality,

154
Q

TORCH

A

TORCH nifecions can cause cataract in children.

keyhole pupil- read up

155
Q

What is cataracts?

What are the different types of cataracts?

A

Loss of transparency in the lens, caused by either a disruption to the configuration of lens fibres, epithelia or capsule. Leading to gradual decrease in vision affecting everyday life, glare etc.
Nuclear- Affecting the nucleus of the lens- Px will become myopic.
Subcapsular- Beneath the capsule- granule/plaque appearance- Px near vision will be affected.
Cortical- Affecting the cortex of the lens- Px will present with astigmatism worse in the dark.

156
Q

What are the causes of cataracts?

What are the RF?

A

Common after age 40yrs.
In younger Px can occur earlier if; trauma (penetration of eye or blunt trauma), eye disease (high myopia, glaucoma), systemic disease (DM, neurofibromatosis type 2), drugs (steroids).

RF- FHx, steroid use, smoking, prolonged UV light exposure, increasing age, diabetes, hypocalcaemia.

157
Q

How is cataracts diagnosed?

A

Symptoms will be suggestive of cataracts.
Ophthalmoscope will show poor red reflex.
Reduced visual acuity.
Ophthalmoscope will show opacity in the lens.
Slit lamp confirms this and rules out any other causes.

158
Q

How is cataracts managed?

A

Consider cataract surgery when the Px daily activities are affected i.e. driving, looking at bright lights, watching TV etc.

Phacoemulsification-
Most common technique in the UK.
Local anaesthetic.
The old lens is broken down into small pieces with ultra sound.
These are then removed and replaced with a new artificial lens, which has been corrected to the Px prescription. Although the Px will have their prescription they will have still lost the accommodation reflex.

Extracapsular cataract extraction- removal of the diseased nucleus and aspiration of the lens cortex, capsule left in situ and new rigid lens inserted, bigger incision required

159
Q

What are the risks and benefits of cataract surgery?

A

Improved visual acuity
Improved cloudiness
Improved colour vision

Most common post op complication- Posterior capsular opacification. Remaining lens epithelia will replicate so that the opaque membrane leads to decreased visual acuity, blurred vision, or glare. It occurs gradually months or years after surgery. It can be corrected by laser treatment.
Also-
Corneal decompensation — due to corneal oedema.
Cystoid macular oedema — inflammatory fluid in the centre of the retina.
Detached retina — may occur weeks or months after surgery.
Dislocation of the implant lens.

160
Q

What is blepharitis?

A

Chronic, intermittent inflammation of the eyelid (anterior) or Meibomian glands (posterior).
Usually at middle age.
Burning, itching, erythema and crusting of the eyelids, worse in the mornings.
Associated with acne rosacea, seborrheic dermatitis and dry eye syndrome.

Clinical diagnosis, may be familial.

161
Q

How is blepharitis managed?

A

Eyelid hygiene is very important. Px should initially clean eyelids BD but can do OD when symptoms settle.
Should apply warm compress on eyelids- prone to styes an chalazion.
Avoid eye makeup.
If ineffective; prescribe topical steroids for anterior blepharitis and oral steroids for posterior blepharitis.

162
Q

What is a pituitary macroadenoma?
How is it investigated
How is it managed?

A
Sellar mass
Pituitary gland not seen separately
Suprasellar extension- optic chiasm
Rarely parasellar
Clinically: Bitemporal hemianopia
Imaging: MRI best
Surgery: Trans sphenoidal
163
Q

What are the differentials of a PCA infarct?

A

Px presents with homonymous heminaopia.
Abscess- acutely unwell
Metastasis- especially with a Hx of cancer

164
Q

What is age related macular degeneration?

How does it commonly present?

A

Changes to the macula (centre of retina)
Without any pathological cause
>50yrs

Central vision is affected
Vision is more blurred
May have dark spots which get progressively bigger
Straight lines appear curved/distorted
Colours appear darker/less vivid than previously.

165
Q

What are the changes associated with age related macular degeneration?

A

Drusen- collections of lipid beneath the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) and within Bruch’s membrane

Some drusen can be normal. Normal drusen are small <63 micrometres and hard.

Large and greater numbers of drusen can be early sign of macular degeneration

RPE abnormalities- areas of hypo/ hyperpigmentation

Atrophy of RPE

Degeneration of photoreceptors

Neovascular (exudative) AMD- new blood vessels in choroid, easily bleed, leak, resulting in distortion & scarring of retina

166
Q

What are the types of age related macula degeneration?

A

90%- Dry ARMD
Treatment involves reducing progression of disease. I.e. smoking cessation, healthy eating, visual rehabilitation, vitamins etc.

10%- Wet ARMD
This is harder to treat.
VEGF promotes the synthesis of new BV from the choroid to the retina. These can leak and bleed.
Treat with intravitreal anti-VEGF injections.

167
Q

What are the 4 main layers of the macula?

A
  • Choroid layer at the bottom, provide the blood supply to the macula
  • Bruch’s membrane
  • Retinal pigment epithelium
  • Photoreceptors (at the top)
168
Q

What are the RF for age related macular degeneration?

A
  • White/Chinese
  • FHx
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Increasing age
  • Smoking
169
Q

How does age related macular degeneration present?

A

Gradual loss of central vision
Reduced VA
Straight lines appear more crooked/wavy

Wet- Acute reduction of vision within 2-3 days. Within 2-3yrs complete vision loss. Often progresses to bilateral disease.

170
Q

How is age related macular degeneration investigated?

A

Snellen chart- reduced acuity

  • Scrotoma- central patch of vision loss
  • Amsler grid test- distortion of straight lines
  • Fundoscopy- Drusen
  • Slit lamp
  • Optical coherence tomography- cross-sectional views of layers of retina, to diagnose wet AMD
  • Fluorescein angiography- to see neovascularisation- wet AMD diagnosis if optical coherence tomography didn’t exclude it
171
Q

How is age related macular degeneration managed?

A
Dry-
No treatment
Achieve good BP control
Stop smoking
Take vitamins

Wet-
Anti-VEGF i.e. ranibizumab, bevacizumab, pegaptanib- injected directly into vitreous chamber once a month.
Should see improvement within ~3 months.

172
Q

What are the RF for central retinal vein occlusion?

A
HTN
Diabetes
Hyperlipidaemia
Glaucoma
>45yrs usually due to CRV thrombosis
<45yrs usually due to thrombophilia 
Smoking
Systemic disease i.e SLE
173
Q

What happens when the CRV is occluded?

A

Pooling of blood in the retina
Macula oedema and retinal haemorrhage
Retinal tissue is damaged leading to vision loss
Leads to increased release of VEGF

174
Q

How is a CRV occlusion classified?

A

Ischaemic-

  • Reduced VA
  • RAPD
  • Cotton wool spots
  • Multiple intra-retinal bleeds
  • Thunder fundus

Non ischaemic

175
Q

How does CRV occlusion present?

A

Painless loss of vision.

Fundoscopy shows;

  • Blot and flame haemorrhages
  • Macula oedema
  • Optic disc oedema
176
Q

How is a RV occlusion managed?

A

Identify any RF present and manage these.
Identify any sight threatening conditions and manage these i.e. glaucoma, macular oedema, avoid neovascularisation.
Photocoagulation
Intravitreal steroids
Anti-VEGF

177
Q

What does the central retinal artery supply?

A

The inner retinal surface and the optic nerve.

178
Q

What are the causes of CRA occlusion?

A

Atherosclerosis

GCA- Vasculitis causes a reduced blood flow.

179
Q

What are the RF for developing CRA occlusion?

A
Atherosclerosis-
Age
FHx
Smoking
Alcohol
HTN
DM
Poor diet
Inactivity
Obesity

GCA-
Age> 50
Females
Px with GCA or PMR

180
Q

How does CRA occlusion present?

A

-Sudden painless loss of vision
-Relative afferent pupillary defect:
Pupils of affected eye constricts more consensually (when the unaffected eye is tested) compared to direct stimulation. This is due to the ischaemic nature of the affected retina.

Fundoscopy
The retina has a reduced perfusion so is more paler, the macula of the retina exposes the choroid beneath-> pale retina and cherry red spots.

181
Q

How is CRA occlusion managed?

A

Immediate referral to Ophthalmology

Giant cell arteritis- ESR, temporal artery biopsy, high dose steroids

If symptoms suggest occlusion within 24 hrs, attempt to dislodge the embolus by:
Firm ocular massage through closed eyelids for 15 mins
Stat crushed acetazolamide 500mg PO and beta blocker
Offer anterior chamber paracentesis
Inhaling carbogen to dilate the artery
Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate to dilate the artery

Long term mx-
Treating reversible risk factors
Secondary prevention of CVD

182
Q

What is anterior ischaemic optic neuritis?

A

Infarction of the optic nerve head.
Arteritic cause (GCA)
Non arteritic cause
Sudden loss of vision

183
Q

What are the RF for developing anterior ischaemic optic neuritis?

A

Male
Systemic arteriopathy
40-60yrs
Disc vessel crowding (disc w/o a cup, small hypermetropic discs, disc drusen)

184
Q

How is non-arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuritis managed?

A
  • No effective treatment
  • Review all vascular RF & exclude GCA
  • Re-check clinical findings, particularly fields- expect 3 lines of VA improvement in 30% pts

AION is unlikely to recur in the same eye after nerve fibre atrophy relieves disc vessel congestion.

Review in 6 months, discharge if stable.

185
Q

What is retinal detachment?

A

Separation of the inner neurosensory retina from the underlying RPE
Vitreous fluid accumulates in the subretinal space
The outer retina relies on the blood vessels of the choroid for blood supply

186
Q

What are the RF for retinal detachment?

A
Increase age
FHx
Myopia
Cataracts
Trauma
Posterior vitreous detachment
Diabetic retinopathy
Retinal malignancy
187
Q

How does a retinal detachment present?

A

New floaters
New flashing lights
Reduction in VF, sudden onset and progressive
Reduced visual acuity, blurred vision, distorted vision
Curtain like shadow appearing over the vision

188
Q

How is a retinal detachment managed?

A

Reattach retina and reduce traction or pressure that may cause it to detach again.

  • Vitrectomy- removing relevant parts of vitreous body and replacing with oil or gas. More commonly used.
  • Scleral buckling- using a silicone buckle to put pressure on the sclera so that the outer eye indents to bring the choroid inwards and in contact with the detached retina
  • Pneumatic retinopexy- injecting a gas bubble into the vitreous body and positioning the pt so that the gas bubble creates pressure that flattens the retina against the choroid and close the detachment

Repair retina tear-
Laser therapy
Cryotherapy

189
Q

What are common causes of eyelid lumps?

A
Stye
Meibomian cyst
Malignant; BCC, SCC, Bowens disease
Epidermoid cysts
Vascular lesion i.e. haemangioma
Xanthelasma
Pigmented naevi
Eyelid neurofibroma
190
Q

What are the features of orbital disease?

A
Although different aetiology, affect a confined space so gives rise to unspecific symptoms.
Proptosis
Pain
Diplopia
Reduced vision
191
Q

What are the 7P’s of taking a good Hx of orbital disease?

A

1) Proptosis?
2) Progression?- Seconds (Haemorrhage), hrs-days (inflammation), wks-months (malignancy), months-yrs (benign)
3) Pain?
4) Perceptive visual change?- Colour, diplopia, blurred, refractive error change
5) Palpable mass?
6) PMH? Thyroid disease, malignancy, GCA, trauma, sinusitis
7) Periorbital abnormalities- including sensory- paraesthesia, numbness, facial weakness, redness, tenderness, watering, lid anomalies

192
Q

What are the main causes of diseases affecting the orbit?

A
Thyroid eye disease
Orbital cellulitis
Idiopathic inflammation
Trauma
Vascular abnormalities
193
Q

What are the differentials for an acute red eye?

A

Non-painful:
Episcleritis
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Conjunctivitis

Painful-
Keratitis
Scleritis
Glaucoma
Anterior uveitis
Corneal abrasion/ulcer
Trauma/irritant
Foreign body
194
Q

What is entropion?

How is it managed?

A

Turning in of the eyelids
Eyelashes irritate the eyeball

Causes:
Involutional (aging) changes
Conjunctival scarring (cicatricial)
Spasm of orbicularis oculi

Mx-
Initially tape the eyelid down to stop eye from drying out.
Regular eyedrops
Eventually surgical eyelid tightening

195
Q

What is an ectropion?

How is it managed?

A

Turning outward of the eyelid

Causes:
Aging- decreased collagen, but this is unlikely
Paralytic- CNVII palsy
Mechanical- lower lid heavy due to tumour or Meibomian cysts
Eyelid skin scarring i.e. from eczema/previous surgery.

Mx-
Surgical intervention

196
Q

What is trichiasis?

How is it managed?

A

Inward growth of the eyelashes, can cause corneal irritation and ulceration.

Manage-
Epilation- removal of eyelashes
In rare cases need prevention of regrowth- laser, cryotherapy or electrolysis.

197
Q

What is necrotising fasciitis of the eyelid?
What are the RF?
How is it managed?

A

Destructive microbial infection of the soft tissue, causing precipitous tissue destruction, septicaemia, DIC and death.

Causative organisms eg neg bacilli, strep, staph.

Risk factors- advancing age, injury eg insect bite, immunosuppression including diabetes

Mx- immediate IV benzylpenicillin 2.4g qds and IV clindamycin 600mg qds.
Debride necrotic tissue down to a healthy (bleeding) bed.
Repeat as necessary.
Send tissue for culture & sensitivity.
Subsequent reconstructive approaches

198
Q

What are some possible problems affecting the front of the eye in the ICU?

Suggest how we can recognise and manage them.

A

Direct injury to cornea- most often a superficial corneal abrasion
Red eye, seen using fluorescein eye drops and a blue light
Give chloramphenicol ointment for 5-7 days qds

Exposure keratopathy
Dryness of the cornea due to incomplete lid closure allowing tear evaporation & consequent failure of the tears to spread adequately across the eye surface
Red eye
Lid taping if there is unwanted corneal exposure

Chemosis (conjunctival swelling)
Risk factors- compromise venous return from ocular structures (eg from tight endotracheal tube taping), states of generalised oedema (eg fluid overload), incomplete eyelid closure can also predispose chemosis
Chemosis can cause impaired eyelid closure

Microbial conjunctivitis and keratitis
Respiratory secretions are thought to be the major source of ocular surface infection, with aerosols from tracheal suctioning and direct contact from suction catheter both being implicated
If endotracheal suctioning is done from the side of the pt (rather than at the head) and with the eyes covered, pseudomonas infection rates can be reduced
Conjunctivitis: look for a red sticky eye, take swabs of the eye discharge, remove discharge by bathing eyelids with warm water, using a separate gauze for each eye. Use chloramphenicol ointment (rather than drops to aid lubrication) qds for 5-7 days
Microbial keratitis: the damaged cornea is especially vulnerable to bacterial invasion which can occur rapidly. Most cases are due to bacteria & appear as a red eye, corneal ulcer. Seek urgent ophthalmology referral

199
Q

How to identify those at greatest risk of corneal injury in the ITU? How to protect the eyes of ITU pts?

A

Px unable to close their eyes? Any conjunctival exposure? Any corneal exposure?

Tape eye shut- reduce dryness and protect the eye.
Liberal use of eye drops/ointments- ointments last longer.

200
Q

What are the causes of sudden vision loss?

A

Vascular i.e. CRVO, CRAO, AION
Retinal detachment
Wet ARMD
Vitreous haemorrhage

201
Q

What are some causes of chronic vision loss?

A

Dry ARMD
Cataract
Glaucoma

202
Q

What is a retinoblastoma?

When would you suspect it?

A

Common ocular malignancy in children.
Average age 18 months
Autosomal dominant

Suspect when:
Absent red reflex- appears white due to large posterior retinal tumour
Strabismus
Visual problems

203
Q

How is a retinoblastoma managed?

A

Local therapy
Enucleation for advanced local tumours or after treatment failure

Systemic chemotherapy- multi agent chemotherapy used alone or with local treatments as primary or salvage therapy

204
Q

What is hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Systemic HTN resulting in retinal vessel damage.

May be due to years of chronic HTN, or appear quickly after malignant HTN.

205
Q

What is the Keith-Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Stage I- Arteriolar narrowing and tortuosity
Increased light reflex - silver wiring

Stage II- Arteriovenous nipping

Stage III- Cotton-wool exudates
Flame and blot haemorrhages

Stage IV- Papilloedema

206
Q

What are the signs of hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Silver wiring or copper wiring where the walls of the arterioles become thickened & sclerosed causing increased reflection of the light

Arteriovenous nipping where the arterioles cause compression of the veins where they cross, again due to sclerosis & hardening of the arterioles

Cotton wool spots- due to ischaemia & infarction in the retina causing damage to nerve fibres

Hard exudates- caused by damaged vessels leaking lipids into the retina

Retinal haemorrhages- damaged vessels rupture & release blood into retina

Papilloedema- ischaemia to the optic nerve resulting in optic nerve oedema & blurring of the disc margins

207
Q

How is hypertensive retinopathy managed?

A

Control BP

Control other risk factors such as smoking and blood lipid levels

208
Q

What are the causes of optic neuritis?

A

MS (common)
Diabetes
Syphilis

209
Q

Who is commonly affected by MS associated optic neuritis?

How does it present?

A

Female
30yrs
Have MS

Unilateral decrease in VA over hrs or days
Poor discrimination of colours, ‘red desaturation’
Pain worse on eye movement
Relative afferent pupillary defect
Central scrotoma

210
Q

How is optic neuritis managed?

A

High dose steroids
Recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks

Prognosis-
MRI: if >3 white matter lesions, 5 year risk of developing MS is 50%

211
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

A systemic granulomatous disease commonest in Asian and Afro-Caribbean pts
Multiple sites affected- in particular, lungs, lymph nodes, skin, liver, eyes
The eyes are affected in 30-60% of cases

212
Q

How can ocular sarcoidosis present?

A

Sarcoidosis can lead to a number of ocular pathologies- mainly uveitis (bilateral)

  • Anterior- pain, redness, photophobia
  • Intermediate- inflammation of ciliary body, floaters, blurry vision
  • Posterior- choroiditis- may involve retinal vasculitis, floaters, visual loss

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

Secondary glaucoma

213
Q

How is ocular sarcoidosis managed?

A

Steroids mainly.

Can use laser in the case where neovascularisation has occurred in response to ischaemia/inflammation.

214
Q

What is ocular TB?

How may it present?

A

Defined as an infection by MTB in the eye, around the eye or on its surface

Not usually associated with clinical evidence of pulmonary TB

Ocular manifestations of TB include scleritis, interstitial keratitis, corneal infiltrates, anterior chamber and iris nodules, anterior uveitis

215
Q

What is orbital cellulitis?

What are the possible sources?

A

Medical emergency
Can spread intra-cranially; threat to life

Paranasal sinuses (most common)
Oropharynx including teeth
Foreign bodies
Skin
Trauma including iatrogenic
Haematogenous spread
Bacteria most common cause- strep or staph
216
Q

What are the features of orbital cellulitis?

A

Pre-septal cellulitis- fever, peri-ocular pain, swelling, ptosis, tenderness, redness

Orbital cellulitis- similar to the above however with chemosis, conjunctival infection, reduced eye movements, +/- diplopia, vision loss, RAPD (relative afferent pupil defect), proptosis

217
Q

What are the RF for developing orbital cellulitis?

A

Sinus disease
Trauma
Diabetes/immunocompromised
Skin/dental infection

218
Q

How is orbital cellulitis managed?

A

Mark area of inflamed skin to monitor improvement.

Admit into hospital
Monitor orbital and visual functions 2-3 times daily
Give ceftriaxone IV plus flucloxacillin IV qds
Consider vancomycin, clindamycin, teicoplanin or other abx for MRSA
In pts >10 years old or those with chronic sinonasal disease, add metronidazole
Consider IV treatment 3-5 days, provided condition improves
Request CT, blood glucose, FBC, blood culture
Refer sinus disease to ENT
Repeat CT to exclude abscess if any deterioration occurs
Urgent neurosurgical referral if there is neurological deterioration or intracranial abscess
Change to oral abx when there is definite improvement
Review every 2-5 days after discharge until complete resolution

219
Q

What is OCT?

A

A non-invasive diagnostic test which uses a low powered laser to scan and image the inner layers of the retina
OCT can help diagnose various eye diseases- ARMD, macular oedema, glaucoma

220
Q

What are some types of VF defects?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia
Central tunnel vision
Typically due to optic chiasm compression by tumour (eg pituitary adenoma)

Homonymous field defects
Affect the same side of the visual field in each eye
Commonly due to stroke, tumour, abscess
Half the vision is affected

Scrotoma
Area of absent or reduced vision surrounded by areas of normal vision
Many possible aetiologies- eg demyelinating disease (MS) and diabetic maculopathy

Monocular vision loss
Total vision loss in 1 eye secondary to optic nerve pathology (eg anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy) or ocular diseases (eg central retinal artery occlusion, total retinal detachment)

221
Q

What are the uses of a retinal laser?

A

Treatment of proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Treatment of diabetic macular oedema
Branch and central retinal vein occlusion
ARMD

222
Q

When are intravitreal injections required? What are some risks of intravitreal injections?

A

Gold standard for treatment of many retinal diseases, such as-
Neovascular AMD
Diabetic macular oedema/ non proliferative or proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Retinal vein occlusions
Uveitis
Risks-
Pain/ FB sensation
Bleeding- subconjunctival, vitreous haemorrhage
Retinal tear/ detachment
Cataract- from inadvertently hitting the lens
Infection- endophthalmitis
Uveitis

223
Q

What is Charles Bonnet syndrome?

A

Characterised by persistent or recurrent complex hallucinations (usually visual or auditory), occurring in clear consciousness
Generally this is against a background of visual impairment
Insight is usually preserved

Risk factors- advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, early cognitive impairment

224
Q

What is the normal pH of the eye?

A

7.3-7.6

Any chemical damage to the eye needs immediate topical LA and irrigating for 30 mins at least with saline. Ensure to remove any contact lenses.
Continue irrigating until a normal pH is achieved.

NB- can take up to 20L saline to irrigate an eye back to normal pH.
Further management may require broad spectrum topical Abx, cycloplegics, therapies to encourage re epithelisation i.e. tear substitution, citric acid etc. Steroids used cautiously.

After 1-2 days review for ischaemia, debride any necrotic tissue and use preservative free drops.
May require surgery.

225
Q

What does a chemically damaged eye look like?

A

Lids- burned/oedematous

Conjunctiva- chemosis, epithelial loss, haemorrhage

226
Q

Which type of chemical injury is more severe?

A

Acid- When in contact with the eye will lead to the production of tissue protein, thus producing a barrier against any further chemical damage.
Alkali- Is lipophilic so will penetrate the eye faster, into the ant chamber and can damage the ciliary body. Will not produce a protective protein layer, can lead to corneal damage through pH change, ulceration and collagen synthesis defects.

Alkali injury is much worse than acid.

227
Q

How does the conjunctival injection of a chemical injury present and why?

A
  • Red except for pallor vessels close to the limbus.
  • Cloudy cornea
  • Hazy view of the iris

Chemical injury leads to damaged pluripotent limbal stem cells. This causes corneal opacification, neovascularisation and extensive scarring.

Severe burn may cause ischaemia to the conjunctival BV therefore conjunctival injection may not appear as intense.

228
Q

What are the long term complications of chemical injury to the eye?

A
Corneal scarring
Poor vision
Dry eyes
Glaucoma
Uveitis
Cataract
229
Q

How does an orbital blow out fracture present?

A
Diplopia on upward gaze
Derangement of globe position
Intercanthal distance increased
Oculovagal symptoms- bradycardia, hypotension, N&V)
Visual disturbance
Peri-orbital ecchymosis (bruising)
Peri-orbital oedema
Nerve sensory loss- numbness over cheek, lower eyelid, upper lip and upper teeth and gums on affected side
230
Q

What facts are important in a Hx of eyelid trauma?

A

Time, distance and trajectory of assault/foreign body.

The foreign body, has it all been recovered?

Any other ocular symptoms?

Any ENT symptoms i.e. epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhoea?

231
Q

What are the long term complications of chemical injury to the eye?

A

Corneal scarring