Operative Final Review Based On Her Outline Flashcards

1
Q

When Isolating with a rubber dam on a Class II Prep, how do you set the dam?

A

Class II= one tooth posterior, two teeth anterior to tooth you’re working on

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2
Q

Where do the retention grooves go on an Amalgam Class II restoration?

A

Line Angles in the box

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3
Q

What is so IMPORTANT ABOUT MARGINAL RIDDGE WITH THE CLASS II AMALGAM?

A

equal height of the adjacent tooth and rounded.

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4
Q

the ____ Prep is used for the following reasons:

  • Root surface caries -When you can access without approaching from occlusal
  • lesion is below contact
  • similar to a Class III (access from facial or lingual)
A

Slot Prep

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5
Q

Preparations deeper than normal with LESS THAN 1.0mm dentin between the pulp and the restorative material= use _____ _____

A

RMGI liner

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6
Q

Preparations with ___ ____ 0.5mm of dentin between the pulp and restorative material= use thin layer of calcium hydroxide followed by a later of RMGI

A

LESS THAN

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7
Q

Preparations with a direct pulp exposure on vital pulp=____ mm thick calcium hydroxide layer followed by layer of RMGI

A

0.5mm`

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8
Q

What are the Indications for Composite

A

Esthetics
Light occlusal contacts
Smaller restorations
Isolation

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9
Q

Highest composite bonding strength in_____ third

A

occlusal

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10
Q

Lowest composite bonding Strength in_____ third

A

cervical

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11
Q

Stiffness of a material

A

Modulus of Elasticity

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12
Q

A high modulus of elasticity = _____

A

ridid

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13
Q

A low mod of Elast =

A

flexible

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14
Q

What is the name of this conservative technique where:

◦ Place composite in carious occlusal pits
◦ Seal remaining pits and fissures

A

Preventative Resin Restoration

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15
Q

For a posterior composite filling, one would opt for a composite with _____ filler. (greater or less).

A

greater filler

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16
Q

t/f: More filler= more strength =less esthetic

A

true

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17
Q

Which type of composite has larger particles. greater ability to handle stress, and rought texture

A

macrofill

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18
Q

Which Composite has small particles, smooth surface texture, less filler, and greater wear resistance.

A

Microfill

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19
Q

Which types of composite is most commonly used?

A

nanofill

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20
Q

Do you select the shade of composite before or after placing the rubber dam?

A

before

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21
Q

Where is it acceptable to leave unsupported enamel on the class III prep?

A

facial wall

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22
Q

Where are the caries most often located on class III?

A

◦ Usually more lingual than facial

◦ Gingival to contact area

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23
Q

t/f: The outline form of a Class III Preparation is perpendicular to the LA of tooth.

A

true

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24
Q

For Class III Prep on Max Central
what is the inciso-gingval length

What is the Mesial distal width

A

inciso-gingval length:
2.0 on maxillary central

Mesial distal width
1.5 on maxillary central

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25
Q

For Class III Prep on Max Lateral
what is the inciso-gingval length

What is the Mesial distal width

A

I-G length
1.5 on maxillary lateral

M-D Width
1.0 on maxillary lateral

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26
Q

Where is retention placed in Class III preps?

A

dentin

Do we need to state what walls?

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27
Q

Place a ___ mm bevel around the prep on Class III.

A

1.0 mm

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28
Q

t/f: Silane is the coupling agent that allows stress transfer from flexible matrix to higher modulus (aka less flexible) filler particle.

A

True

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29
Q

t/f: Cover very deep dentin with liner

◦ CaOH or Glass Ionomer

A

ture

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30
Q

How long do you etch enamel vs. dentin in the total etch system?

A

◦ enamel for 20-30 seconds
◦ dentin for 15 seconds.
◦ Apply etchant to enamel first; 15 seconds later apply it to the dentin then wash
off the enamel and dentin at the same time.

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31
Q

t/f: Chemical Bonding is Very limited with dissimilar materials

A

true

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32
Q

t/f: the enamel bonding mechanism is the following:

In enamel- interlocking with etched enamel rods

A

true

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33
Q

the dentin bonding mechanism is the following:

In dentin- interlocking with etched dentin collagen

A

true true true

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34
Q

_________ oriented enamel
◦ Cavosurface margins of class I preparations
◦ Bevels of class II preparations
◦ ENDS of enamel rods

A

PERPENDICULAR

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35
Q

________ oriented enamel
◦ Internal walls of occlusal preparations
◦ Gingival floor of box of class II preparations
◦ SIDES of enamel rods

A

PARALLEL

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36
Q

t/f: Deeper dentin: more fluid, more & wider tubules, & less intertubular dentin than superficial dentin. This makes bonding more challenging.

A

true

37
Q

The smear layer is attracted to the tooth through which type of forces.

A

Van Der Waals.

38
Q

bonding with dentin collagen and ends of enamel rods are examples of what type of force?

A

micromechanical

39
Q

The composite and bond interaction is which force?

A

chemical

40
Q

t/f: etching and beveling (enamel only) increases the surface area of bodning.

A

true

41
Q

When bonding in dentins is it good for the dentin to be moist?

A

yes: Moist is better!

◦ Overwet:
Resin doesn’t penetrate well
Decreased bond strength

◦ Collagen fibers collapse in dry dentin
Resin cannot penetrate
Poor hybrid layer
Decreased bond strength

42
Q

______ Etch Systems

Advantages
◦ More predictable, stronger bond
◦ Enamel adequately prepared

Disadvantages
◦ Collagen collapse is possible*
◦ Etched zone is often deeper than hybrid layer
◦ Exposed demineralized, collagen fibrils ◦ Post-operative sensitivity

A

Total Etch system

43
Q

_____ -etch Systems

Advantages
◦ No separate etch: overdried, collapsed demineralized collagen not a problem
◦ Etched zone and hybrid layer comparable width; however, some exposed
collagen
◦ Low post-operative sensitivity ‘
◦ Time efficiency

Disadvantages
◦ Not compatible with self-cure, dual-cure composite
◦ Acidic monomers, low pH, “kills” the basic amine activator ◦ Will not etch unprepared enamel ◦ Self-etch primer systems
◦ Long-term bond strength?
◦ Self-etch adhesives (all-in-one)
◦ Lower bond strength
◦ Long-term breakdown?
◦ Collagen degradation over time
A

Selfetch Systems

44
Q

Which Pin is this?

◦ Pin hole larger than pin (0.001 - 0.002” larger than pin)
◦ Cemented with zinc phosphate cement
◦ Pin must be 3-4mm in length for adequate retention
◦ Least retentive of available pins

A

Cemented

45
Q

◦ Pin hole is 0.001” smaller than the pin
◦ Pin is tapped to place - resiliency of dentine
retains pin
◦ 2-4mm long pin hole
◦ 2-3 times as retentive as cemented pins
◦ Dentin exhibits signs of stress

A

Friction Lock

46
Q

Pin hole is 0.002” smaller than pin Pins self threads into dentin
◦ Use hand wrench or
◦ Latch grip on slow speed 5-6 times as retentive as the cemented pin High crestal and apical stresses; Crazing and microleakage
◦ Greater stresses in dentin
There should be at least 1.0 mm dentin around pin hole
Used at UMKC most frequently

A

Self-threading.

47
Q

t/f: Pins should be placed 5mm apart from each other, but at lease a MINIMUM of 3 mm apart

A

true

48
Q

t/f: Pins should be 1mm from wall of prep

but at least a MINIMUM 0.5mm from wall

A

true

49
Q

Pin should be__ mm deep into the dentin

A

2mm

50
Q

What factors affect the Pin’s retention capabilities?

A
  • depth: 2 mm
  • distance from walls and enamel: 0.5 to 1 mm
  • Vertifcal orient: along LA of tooth
  • # of pins: up to a limit
  • diameter of pin= greater diameter = retention.
51
Q

t/f: Aluminum shank on twist drill acts as a heat absorber

A

true

52
Q

Please consider all of the following when placing ____.

Pulpal anatomy
External tooth anatomy
Age (old =brittle) (young= large pulp)

A

pins

53
Q

t/f: Best site for placement are at the line angles (DF, DL, MF, ML)

with one pin per cusp.

A

true

54
Q

this area is a risk for what?

Mesio facial corner of Max and Mand 1st molar

A

Pulp exopse

55
Q

this area is a risk for what?

Distal mand molars and max lingual of molars

A

pulp expose

56
Q

this area is a risk for what?

Mid-facial, mid-mesial and mid-distal furcations of Max 1st & 2nd
molars

A

pulp exposure

57
Q

this area is a risk for what?

Mesial concavity over Max 1st PM

A

perforation into PDL

58
Q

this area is a risk for what?

Mid-lingual and mid-facial of Mand 1st and 2nd molars

A

perforation into PDL

59
Q

this area is a risk for what?

Mid-facial, mid-mesial and mid-distal furcations of Max 1st & 2nd molars

A

perforation into PDL

60
Q

true vs false

Increase Distance if Planning to Place Crown 1.0-1.5 mm inside DEJ

◦ Want to avoid exposing the pin
during future crown preparation

A

treu

61
Q

at a ph of 5.5 ____ will begin to demineralize.

A

enamel

62
Q

At a ph of 6.5 ____ will begin to demineralize.

A

dentin

63
Q

Caries is a_____ disease

◦ Diet, microflora, susceptible tooth

A

Multifactorial

64
Q

Caries requires for things inorder to occur. What are they?

A
  • susceptible host
  • bacteria
  • food source
  • time
65
Q

What current Thoery

◦ Biofilm is responsible for the disease
◦ Plaque is pathogenic when disease is present
◦ Specific Microbes are the cause
◦ Strep Mutans
◦ Lactobacillus and Actinomyces V. (acid producers, can live in acid)
◦ Control the pathogens= control the disease

A

Specific plaque hypothesis

66
Q

t/f: strep mutans are the initial bacteria to cause disease, then lactobacillus is primarily responsible for progression of caries.

A

ture

67
Q

______ Dentin must be removed
◦ Bacteria present ◦ VERY rarely may leave in order to avoid pulp exposure
◦ Must place indirect pulp cap and seal caries in

A

Infected dentin

68
Q

______ Dentin

  • Soft, no bacteria present
  • can be left and sealed, but most often removed.
A

affected

69
Q

What is the treatment for initial carious lesions?

A

Treat with fluoride varnish, oral hygiene instructions

70
Q

What is the best prevention for pit and fissure caries?

A

sealance

71
Q

t/f: Using Ferric Sulfate (Astringedent®) hemostatic agent will stain the margins.

A

true

72
Q

t/f: Aluminum Chloride (Hemodent®) will not cause staining.

A

true

73
Q

E.max restorations are comprised of what material?

A

Lithium Discilicate

74
Q

When margin exceeds ___ of the distance between central groove and cusp tip MUST CAP WEAK CUSPS

A

2/3

75
Q

When margins end ___ distance between central groove and cusp tip CONSIDER CAPPING WEAK CUSPS

A

½

76
Q

When placing a MO Gold inlay, you bevel which of the following surfaces?

  • occlusal
  • axial pulpal line angle
  • gingival wall
  • All above
A

all above

77
Q

______ prevents distal displacement

A

Dovetail

78
Q

With a ceramic inlay, do you bevel the gingival?

A

no sir

79
Q

which cusps have a greater bevel?

A

Reverse bevel of 1-2 mm on cusps supporting occlusion; 1/2

mm on cusps not supporting occlusion

80
Q

Do porcelain onlays have gingival bevel?

A

Bulk of Porcelain at margins – NO BEVEL

81
Q

T/f: Occlusal evaluation and adjustments are delayed until after cementation because of the fragility of porcelain restorations

A

Occlusal evaluation and adjustments are delayed until after cementation because of the fragility of porcelain restorations

82
Q

t/f: for porcelain veneers terminates at the gingival crest or 0.3-0.5 sub-gingivally
for esthetics.

A

true

83
Q

t/f: For porcelain veneers: Minimum 1.0 -2.0 mm reduction for material bulk or NO reduction of incisal if lengthening incisal edge

A

True

84
Q

Adjust occlusion_____ veneers have been bonded

A

after

85
Q

The following are ______ for indirect restorations:

  • Conserve tooth structure
  • Better control of the contours
  • strength
A

advantages

86
Q

Gingival third is ______ than the middle and incisal thirds.

A

darker, More opaque

IDK why she used darker in review, I like opaque more.

87
Q

The following are indications for ______.
•Large carious lesions or existing defective
restorations •Cracked Teeth •Endodontically treated teeth

A

onlays

88
Q

the following are indications for _____.

•Teeth with minimal caries and strong buccal and lingual cusps •Acceptable (normal) occlusion

A

inlays

89
Q

t/F: ceramic inlay is more tapered than the gold inlay.

A

true