Operations pt2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion?
A. it commonly utilizes firefighting foam.
B. it is not effective on water soluble material
C. the run off may need to be contained
D. it is only effective on materials with a specific gravity of less than 1.
A
C. the run off may need to be contained
2
Q
Which is a true statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs ?
A. they are usually well marked in red and in an easy-to-find location.
B. they are usually located on the passenger side of the cab
C. emergency shutoffs should be in a concealed location
D. remote shut offs are usually optional
A
A. they are usually well marked in red and in an easy to find location
3
Q
In some situations, it may be safe and acceptable for Operations-Level responders to operate emergency remote shutoff valves on cargo tank trucks. This remote shut off on a MC/DOT 306/406 will be located at the:
A. left front corner
B. right front corner
C. top right corner
D. left rear corner
A
left front corner
Mc 306/406 carry flammable and combustible liquids and class B poisons.
Single shell aluminums tanks hold as much as 9200 gallons at atmospheric pressure
Oval/elliptical cross section and overturn protection that serves to protect the top-mounted fittings in the event of a rollover .
Shut off valves are located at the front of the cargo tank on the driver side, or at the rear of the cargo tank in the passenger side.
4
Q
At a spill, defensive actions should include:
A. diking or remote closing a valve
B. pretest all equipment
C. brief all personnel on the incident action plan
D. establish crew rotation schedule
A
diking or remote closing a valve
5
Q
When using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of:
A. viscosity
B. resistance to solubility
C. run-off contamination
D. concentration
A
run-off contamination
6
Q
A process in which a material is added to soak up a hazardous material to prevent enlargement or spread of the contaminated area is known as:
A. neutrilazation
B. solidification
C. adsorption
D. absorption
A
absorption
7
Q
Adsorption is the process of:
A. the repellent quality of a material
B. adhering the contaminant to a surface
C. binding two chemicals together
D. decreasing volume when a material is wet
A
adhering the contaminant to a surface
8
Q
Which principal characteristic of adsorption is true?
A, off gasing is reduced
B. it is normally used in large bodies of water
C. the adsorption process occurs only with flat surfaces
D. a product of the adsorption process is condensation
A
off gasing is reduced
9
Q
The eight step process recommended for assessing a hazardous materials incident includes:
A. hazard and risk evaluation
B. implementing rehabilitation
C. sniffing odors, and tasting material
D. funding for clean up
A
hazard and risk evaluation
10
Q
__________ is the most commonly used method for decontaminating personnel
A. brushing or scraping
B. adsorption
C. absorption
D. dilution / washing
A
dilution/ washing
11
Q
Another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called:
A. flaring
B. over-packing
C. pressure patches
D. banding
A
flaring
12
Q
__________ is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product.
A. flammable range
B. boil over
C. flaring
D. frothover
A
flaring
13
Q
As a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted ?
A. absorption
B. dilution
C. vapor supression
D. isolate and deny entry
A
isolate and deny entry
14
Q
Diking, damming, and diverting are ____ options available for ___ control.
A
defensive; spill
15
Q
lowered body core temperature is called:
A
hypothermia
16
Q
Which is a true life-threatening emergency that requires immediate attention?
A. heat exhaustion
B. heat stroke
C. heat stress
D. heat cramps
A
heat stroke
17
Q
Heat exhaustion is associated with:
A
cool moist skin
18
Q
The following advantages are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit?
- It offers maximum level of protection to the user.
- Positive internal pressure may help to minimize minor leaks.
- If the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) malfunctions, the user may have some time to reach a nonhostile environment.
A. level A fully encapsulated (type 1)
B. Level B SCBA (Type 2)
C. Level C (type 3)
D. Level D (type 4)
A
Level A fully encapsulated Type 1
19
Q
One advantage of using Level A personal protective equipment with Supplied Air Respirators (Type 3) and a vapor-protective suit is:
A. greater comfort and mobility because of the close-fitting cut.
B. a turnout coat or limited use garment can be worn over the suit for additional protection.
C. air cylinders can be removed or changed without opening the suit.
D. that it permits extended operations.
A
D. that it permits extended operations
20
Q
What is an operational consideration when using supplied air respirators?
A. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health certification limits the maximum hose length from the source to 300 feet.
B. Use of airlines in an oxygen deficient atmosphere requires a secondary emergency air supply.
C. The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected.
D.The Emergency Breathing Supply System is limited to no longer than 30 minutes of use.
A
C.
21
Q
An air cooling system consists of small airlines providing _________ cooling of the user by blowing cool air over the body inside a suit or vest.
A
convective
22
Q
A vest where the cooling agent is circulated throughout the garment and operates on the principle of conductive heat transfer is known as a(n) _________ vest.
A
water cooled
23
Q
Statement 1: A phase change vest consists of a method to maintain a consistent temperatuer of 60 degrees.
Statement 2: Ice cooled vests may be recharged by freezing the vest.
Statement 3: Ice cooled vests typically recharge faster than phase-change style vests.
A
Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false.
24
Q
Physical stresses that can affect users of specialized protective clothing include:
A
heat stress
25
To protect against radiological exposures a responder should:
limit the time spent in a radiation hazard area
26
A Level A suit will protect the responder from ill effects from:
vapors and gases
27
Degradation can be described as:
physical damage from a chemical
28
The highest level of protection from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
Level A
29
In dealing with biological agents, the minimum required protection is:
level C
30
Standard structural firefighting ensemble including self-contained breathing apparatus are adequate for which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) incidents?
beta radiation
31
The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use, or ambient conditions defines:
degradation
32
__________ is the flow of a hazardous material through zippers, pinholes or other material imperfections found in chemical protective clothing.
penetration
33
Chemical permeation rates are a result of:
temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations.
34
There is no assurance that once decontamination of chemical protective clothing is complete, _________ has ceased.
permeation
35
In order to safely estimate the chemical resistance of a particular garment, manufacturers supply:
compatibility charts.
36
The chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials best defines:
PERMEATION
37
The elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the material is called:
breakthrough time
38
The best protective material against a specific chemical is one that has a low _________ rate (if any) and a long _________ time.
permeation, breakthrough
39
The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best describes _________ protection.
Level B
40
The maximum hose length allowed by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health when using an airline hose respirator is _________ feet
300
41
The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing by a chemical action is called:
degration
42
The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes:
penetration
43
The best type of personal protective equipment for thermal hazards would be
structural firefighting clothing
44
In which type of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) call is structural fire fighting gear and chemical protective ensemble inadequate?
Explosives/mechanical
45
When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should be used to minimize radioactive contamination?
Time, distance, shielding
46
What personal protective equipment would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5 mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure and was dermally toxic?
Level A
47
The decontamination of crew members through the use of water and soap is known as:
dilution
48
What type of personal protective equipment is most commonly used when dealing with a biological incident?
splash protective clothing
49
Cracking, charring, and discoloration are examples of __________ to a chemical garment.
degration
50
Statement 1: Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated.
Statement 2: Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body.
Statement 3: Both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions.
statement 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
51
Permeation can be described as
occurring on a molecular level
52
When donning a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) with a Level A suit, the self-contained breathing apparatus is:
worn inside the personal protective equipment (PPE).
53
Symptoms of heat __________ include little or no sweating; hot, dry, red, skin; deep, then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse.
stroke
54
Heat __________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin.
exhaustion
55
Penetration can be described as:
movement of material through closures.
56
Heat stroke is associated with:
hot, dry, red skin.
57
Dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, are all signs of:
heat exhaustion
58
What single item makes a Level B ensemble different from the lower levels of personal protective equipment?
scba
59
Heat stress is associated with:
muscle cramps in legs and abdomen.
60
A vapor-tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a:
LVL A
61
Which are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon?
remain isolated till deconned
62
Statement 1: When decontamination and doffing of personal protective equipment occurs in a cold environment, the body can cool rapidly.
Statement 2: Wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to 240 times faster than dry clothing, which can lead to hypothermia.
Statement 3: Hypothermia, while serious, is not a true medical emergency.
statement 1 and 2 are true; 3 is fake
63
This suit is used where splashes may occur, but where respiratory
hazards are minimal.
Level C
64
Which is a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus?
physical condition
65
The minimum level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(an):
positive pressure self contained breathing apparatus
66
The highest level of protection, based on Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
Level A
67
The most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is:
chemical compatibility
68
Exposure to __________ materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite.
cryogenic
69
Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied air respirators, are two types of
atmosphere supplied devices
70
The type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n):
air purification respirator
71
The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defines Environmental Protection Agency __________ Protection.
Level B
72
Work uniforms that provide minimal protection best defines Environmental Protection Agency __________ protection.
Level D
73
When considering personnel protection, remember that the most vulnerable route of exposure for an emergency responder is:
the respiratory system.
74
Which are safety guidelines for the use of vapor protective clothing?
Suits significantly impair mobility.
75
The incident command post at a hazardous materials incident:
should relay their location to the dispatcher and responding personnel
76
What is unique about hazardous materials Incident Management System (IMS)?
There are typically two safety officers assigned
77
At a hazardous materials incident, which function area is responsible for developing a special technical group to the basic incident command system?
Operations
78
At a hazardous materials incident, the assistant safety officer directly reports to the
safety officer
79
If the safety officer notices an unsafe activity at an emergency, the safety officer should:
stop the activity immediately
80
When a fire involves the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the responders should:
immediately evacuate the area.
81
What would show that the correct actions were taken at a flammable gas leak?
lower readings on the monitors
82
A __________ sound often occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure.
pinging
83
Back-up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the __________ zone
cold
84
Respiratory protective equipment should be cleaned and inspected:
after each use.
85
To minimize the physical limitations of personal protective equipment (PPE), a firefighter should:
hydrate frequently.
86
When operating at a hazardous materials scene, what is required when operating in a hot zone
Utilization of the buddy system
87
The first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is
isolation of the area and prevention of entry
88
When responding to a potential hazardous material incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to:
approach from uphill and upwind even if it requires a longer response time
89
How often should a self-contained breathing apparatus unit be inspected after it has been used?
daily
90
Within the Incident Command System, the optimum span of control is:
5:1
91
Who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a hazardous materials incident?
logistic section chief
92
At a suspected terrorist incident, evidence collection is primarily the responsibility of:
law enforcement
93
The individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources describes the:
incident commander
94
At a hazardous materials incident, the safety officer's responsibilities include
participating in preparation of and monitoring the safety plan
95
The __________ is the location where coordination, control, and communications are centralized
Command Post
96
At a hazardous materials emergency, the Operations Section serves the task of
controlling the tactical portion of the incident
97
A Level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from
a hazardous material response team.
98
The person who advises the Incident Commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard
operating procedures is the:
Safety Officer
99
Level III incidents often require the technical expertise of __________ to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident
a specialist
100
When determining the location of the command post, it is vital that
it is a safe area
101
Once the Safety Officer arrives on the scene, the Incident Commander should
have the Safety Officer review the incident action plan.
102
When the Safety Officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident, they should
intervene in the unsafe action.
103
Which task at a hazardous materials incident will be provided by Logistics?
Responsible for securing facilities, services, and equipment
104
Identify the five major functions within the Incident Management System
Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance
105
At a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, the first responder should
minimize the number of people working in the area.
106
One of the keys to evidence preservation is
minimize the number of people working in the area
107
Statement 1: The decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make.
Statement 2: Sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area.
Statement 3: Evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place.
Statement 2 is true; statements 1 and 3 are false.
108
Statement 1: Safety briefings should be a verbal relay of information on the written site safety plan.
Statement 2: The safety briefing should stress the potential hazards that exist.
Statement 3: Safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is
also a crime scene.
all statements are true
109
Statement 1: The hot zone is the area immediately around the release.
Statement 2: The warm zone includes the decontamination area.
Statement 3: The command post is located in the warm zone.
1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
110
When dealing with a Level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of:
large scale evacuation.
111
Which is a consideration when setting up an emergency decontamination area?
Run off
112
Prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on:
anticipated duration of the task.
113
When sheltering people in place, the citizens should be directed to:
close all heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning system
114
What should responders do with runoff from emergency decontamination?
Divert into an area where it can be treated or disposed of.
115
Which protective action must be taken during shelter in-place protection?
Close all windows.
116
One of the factors that can change the evacuation area is:
a change in wind direction
117
The __________ zone is the area of highest known hazard.
B. hot/exclusion
118
The area that exists just outside the hot/exclusion zone is known as the:
warm zone.
119
The zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points, is known as a __________ zone.
hot/exclusion
120
Statement 1: While emergency responders may have considerable experience with decon at Haz Mat incidents, performing decon at a terrorist incident may require some changes to the procedure.
Statement 2: Decontamination is performed at Haz-Mat/WMD incidents to remove hazardous materials from all responders, victims, personal protective equipment, tools and equipment.
Statement 3: Everyone and everything in the hot zone is subject to contact with the hazardous material and can become contaminated.
all 3 are true
121
__________ is designed to remove contaminates that pose immediate threat to life.
Emergency decontamination
122
Which statement about emergency decontamination is true?
It can be implemented without a formal decontamination area.
123
A way that personnel, personal protective equipment, apparatus, and tools become Contaminated is by:
secondary contamination.
124
The taking of hazardous materials into the body through the undamaged skin and the eyes is called:
absorption
125
To make rescues of live victims during a hazardous materials incident involving chemicals, first responders should use:
structural fire fighting personal protective equipment.
126
Diversion, diking, and retention are all techniques used in:
confinement.
127
Statement 1: Vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapors away from certain areas.
Statement 2: Vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem.
Statement 3: Vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble.
statement 1 is true; 2 and 3 is a lie
128
Statement 1: Absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous material spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill.
Statement 2: Absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill.
Statement 3: Absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous substances.
1 and 3 are true and 2 is false
129
A process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called:
diversion
130
Defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are:
dike, dam, diversion, and retention.
131
The purpose of vapor suppression is to:
reduce the emission of vapors
132
An advantage of confinement operations is that:
direct exposure of personnel is avoided
133
__________ is comprised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area.
confinement
134
Identify the process of controlling fumes or vapors that are given off by flammable liquids
vapor suppression
135
Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be:
defensive strategies
136
Which statement is correct concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill?
Dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics
137
When determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the:
specific gravity of the material
138
A process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called
absorption
139
Statement 1: Remote shutoffs are usually well marked with an orange placard.
Statement 2: Remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the back door.
Statement 3: On vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the rear of the cargo tank or behind the driver's door.
1 and 2 are false, 3 is true
140
Removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires
the Emergency Decontamination process
141
The primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is:
explosion
142
What would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non-flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking?
inhalation
143
One of the guidelines for protecting against possible secondary devices is
manage the scene with cordons, boundaries, and scene control zones
144
If a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all:
ignition sources
145
In Level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with:
a small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident.
146
Which resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area?
Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Haz Mat technicians are needed to operate this equipment
147
Which resource would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material within an endangered area when provided with local data and leak information?
Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres
148
If available, which resource is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders' input, local data and leak information?
Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)
149
One type of hazardous material that may be shock sensitive is:
respiratory
150
One of the symptoms of poisonous gases such as chlorine and anhydrous ammonia is severe irritation to the __________ system.
respiratory
151
The resource that would be useful in determining the size of an endangered area during a hazmat incident is the:
Emergency Response Guide
152
The measurement commonly used by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8-hour period is:
PEL
153
The amount of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population is:
LD50.
154
The concentration that should never be exceeded is called:
TLV-C.
155
The term that describes the part of the body effected by a specific toxin is called the
target organ.
156
Neurotoxins such as organophosphates will effect which target organ?
nervous system
157
The UN/DOT hazard class for nerve agents is
Division 6.1.
158
At an emergency incident, the firefighter may obtain appropriate Material Safety Data Sheet information from
the employer of the facility.
159
The stream dispersion pattern is best described as
a surface following pattern.
160
The pool dispersion pattern is best described as:
a three dimensional pattern
161
Water solubility can be described as the:
degree to which a substance will mix with water
162
Specific gravity can be described as the:
ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water
163
A poison that can be harmful if inhaled, swallowed, absorbed or introduced into the body is known as:
toxic.
164
To contact the shipper for hazard and response information, a firefighter can obtain information number from:
the shipping papers.
165
One of the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires is:
carbon monoxide (CO)
166
The __________ of a chemical is its ability to remain in the environment
persistence
167
Which is a symptom of an irritant exposure?
A. DIARRHEA
B. BURNING SENSATION TO THE EYES
C. CONVULSIONS
D. FLUID IN THE LUNGS
BURNING SENSATION TO EYE
168
Materials such as benzene, asbestos, and arsenic are known as:
carcinogens.
169
A specific class of chemicals, called blood agents are highly toxic to the human body because they
are chemical asphyxiants because they interfere with oxygen utilization.
170
Choking agents like __________ attack the lungs causing tissue damage
phosgene
171
Most riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class
6.1
172
The immediate concern when dealing with combustible liquid spills is to
prevent ignition of the fuel
173
In an emergency, responders can acquire an Material Safety Data Sheet from
manufacturer of the material.
174
Which DOT Hazard Class covers nerve agents used in chemical warfare?
DOT 6.1
175
Vapor pressures of a substance at 100oF:
always higher than the same substance at 68oF
176
The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form
an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the __________ point.
flash
177
One type of hazardous material that is classified as Department of Transportation Hazard Class 1 is:
explosives with a mass explosion hazard
178
Which is considered a Department of Transportation Hazard Class 4 product?
Flammable solid
179
Toxic gases, blood agents, such as Arsine and cyanogen chloride, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and division?
2.3
180
After repeated exposure, __________ will cause an allergic reaction
sensitizers/allergens
181
Convulsants are best described as:
poisons that will cause an exposed individual to have seizures
182
Carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens are permanent and irreversible conditions known as:
chronic health hazards
183
What would be the likely result of allowing a contaminated individual to leave the hot zone without being decontaminated
The contaminates would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment resulting in secondary contamination.`
184
All personnel and equipment exposed to hazardous materials are considered
contaminated.
185
When describing a product as a solid, liquid, or a gas, we are referring to its
physical state.
186
The minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best described as:
autoignition temperature
187
The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface is best described as:
flash point
188
The flammable range is best described as the:
percentage of gas or vapor concentration in air
189
The temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is best described as:
the boiling point.
190
When exposed to heat or fire, a liquid with a low boiling point will
more readily change to a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point
191
The irregular dispersion pattern is best described as:
carried by contaminated responders
192
A poison that will cause a person to have seizures is called a(n):
convulsant.
193
Which is a dispersion pattern created by the release of a hazardous material?
Cloud
194
A person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical over a long period of time may develop:
chronic health hazard
195
Chemicals that are classified as __________ can cause a severe allergic reaction
sensitizers
196
The hemispheric dispersion pattern is best described as:
a circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground
197
A product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of its:
specific gravity
198
Determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as:
vapor density
199
All biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT Hazard Class:
6
200
In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered
area is long term. Long term means:
years and generations
201
In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an
endangered area is short term. Short term means
minutes and hours
202
In hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered
area is medium term. Medium term means:
days, weeks, and months
203
Which is considered to be a breach in a metal container?
Punctures
204
__________ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air.
flash point
205
__________ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a value of 1.0.
Specific gravity
206
Corrosiveness can be described as the
measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance
207
__________ is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor.
flammable (explosive) range
208
Materials such as lithium, finely divided magnesium, sodium, and cesium are classified as:
water reactive
209
__________ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration
Asphyxiants
210
Vapors that attack the mucous membranes, such as the surfaces of the eyes, nose and throat, are considered:
irritants `
211
Which substance would be classified as a chemical asphyxiant?
carbon monoxide
212
A __________ effect occurs at the point of contact with a hazardous substance.
local
213
__________ materials may cause severe chemical burns and extensive tissue damage
on contact.
Corrosive
214
When a pressurized tanker fails violently due to over-pressurizing, the phenomenon is called:
boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion
215
A chemical reaction between two or more materials that give off heat is known as:
exothermic reaction.
216
A __________ is a release that is the result of a broken or damaged valve(s) that may last from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening,
type of container, and nature of contents
rapid relief
217
Responders can contact the shipper directly from the emergency contact information on the:
shipping papers
218
A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a:
Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion
219
A liquid's ability to mix with water best defines
solubility
220
Chemicals with specific gravities greater than one tend to:
sink
221
A chemical with a vapor density of greater than one will tend to:
collect in low areas and below-grade places
222
Chemicals that ignite when combined create a(n) __________ reaction
exothermic
223
Caustic sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide are examples of:
bases
224
__________ rays are the most dangerous type of radiation
gamma
225
The radiation that is least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body but is very dangerous if ingested or inhaled is:
alpha
226
Radiation that can be stopped by a piece of paper consists of __________ particles
alpha
227
What tank has corrosive ?
MC 312 DOT 412
228
In an emergency at a facility with bulk chemical storage, where the Material Safety Data Sheet is not available on site, the firefighter may obtain information from:
CHEMTREC
229
CHEMTREC/CANUTEC can usually provide:
technical information.
230
Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC®) is able to provide assistance to responders if:
the name of the shipper or manufacturer is known
231
When contacting the CHEMTREC®, the caller should be prepared to provide the
type of container or vehicle
232
Structural firefighting gear with self-contained breathing apparatus will protect responders from
beta particles.
233
Which type of radiation has a physical mass but has no electrical charge ?
Neutron
234
Which statement is true regarding neutron radiation?
They are highly penetrating
235
Alpha particles can be described as:
particles with weight and mass
236
Given the provided Material Safety Data Sheet, identify the boiling point of the chemical.
13oC
237
Given the provided Material Safety Data Sheet, in which sections would you find personal protective equipment and first aid procedures?
4 and 8
238
Given the Material Safety Data Sheet provided, identify the chemical abstract service (CAS) number
75-21-8
239
Given the provided Material Safety Data Sheet, in what sections can you find information on precautions for safe handling to include release measures and personal protection measures?
7 and 8
240
Given the Material Safety Data Sheet provided, in which section would signs and symptoms of exposure and routes of entry be found?
section #3
241
A container labeled with a Hazard Classification of 4 contains a(n):
flammable solids
242
The CHEMTREC® organization is available __________ hours per day to provide information about __________.
24, many chemicals
243
Beta particles can be described as:
ionizing radiation like X-rays.
244
Gamma particles can be described as:
deadly radiation as it can pass through structural personal protective equipment.
245
The maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effects, best defines:
threshold limit value/time-weighted average (TLV-TWA).
246
Which exposure value could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures?
Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV-STEL)
247
Which value represents an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or can cause irreversible, debilitating effects on health?
IDLH
248
A substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled a(n) __________ hazard classification.
7
249
Cryogenic liquids are those which exist at:
minus 130°F.
250
Emergency centers such as the __________ are principal agencies providing immediate technical assistance to an emergency responder
CHEMTREC
251
Hazard Class 3 includes:
gasoline
252
Gases that displace oxygen, such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, are examples of __________ asphyxiants.
simple
253
Which would you not expect in a one-ton container?
oxygen
254
Where would you find valves on a one-ton container?
End
255
An intermediate bulk container called a super sack would most likely contain:
solid material
256
IBCs are defined as:
intermediate bulk containers
257
Which is a type of drum?
open heads
258
An intermodal container that is capable of holding high pressure gases 3000 psi or higher is a:
tube module intermodal container.
259
Which are shipped in industrial packages having limited hazard to the public and environment?
laboratory samples
260
Large tanks with hemispherical heads on both ends can be identified as:
high pressure.
261
Which material is transported in industrial containers?
smoke detectors
262
Packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as:
excepted
263
What type of container is used to ship materials of radioactivity by air?
type C
264
A __________ is best defined as a tank-within-a-tank with a stainless steel inner tank supported within a strong outer tank, with insulation in the space between the inner and outer tank.
cryogenic liquid tank car
265
Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars typically carry:
powdered materials
266
The design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is:
25.4 to 100 psi.
267
The products that IM 102 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are:
nonregulated materials
268
The products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are:
flammable liquids
269
A railcar tanker with a stencil marking of DOT 111 is a(n):
non-pressurized railcar
270
Common hazardous materials stored in nonbulk packages, referred to as bags, are
fertilizers
271
You have arrived on the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving pesticides. On one of the pesticide labels, you notice the statement "Keep away from children." This statement is called the:
precautionary sstatement
272
Statement 1: There are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship).
Statement 2: Cryogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers
because they are considered to be too unstable for this type of shipment.
Statement 3: Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers.
1 and 3 are true and 2 is false
273
Cryogenic liquid storage tanks are:
diverse in pressure ratings, with some as high as 300 psi and heavily insulated.
274
A specialized intermodal tank container which carries refrigerated liquid gases, oxygen, or helium would be an example of:
cryogenic intermodal tanks/IM type 7.
275
A specialized intermodal tank container which transports gases in high-pressure cylinders (3000 to 5000 psi) is known as a(n):
tube module/trailer
276
Which is a characteristic of a compressed gas tube trailer?
The manifold or valve control box is enclosed at the rear
277
These trailers contain several pressurized vessels ranging from 3000 to 6000 psi piping and are known as:
compressed gas tube trailers
278
Type __________ packaging contains low-level commercial radioactive shipments in cardboard boxes, wooden crates, and metal drums.
A
279
Cylindrical packaging made of metal, plastic, or fiberboard used to transport solids or liquids best describes
drums
280
The intermodal tank that is designed for working pressures of 100 to 600 psig and usually transports liquefied gases under pressure is known as an:
IMO type 5
281
As a responder trained to the operations level, one of the ways to verify chlorine could emit vapors is to:
contact CHEMTREC® for assistance
282
On pesticide labels for materials originating in Canada, the product will have a __________ which is similar to the Environmental Protection Agency registration number in the United States
pest control product number
283
Which is an example of an atmospheric storage tank?
Large capacity above-ground tank
284
A tank carrier designed to haul various chemicals whose pressures are less than 40 psi would be an:
MC 307/DOT 407.
285
A common design feature of cylinders is a:
pressure relief device
286
Statement 1: A common hazard with cylinders is the potential for explosion.
Statement 2: Cryogens pose a substantial threat if the Dewar container fails to maintain the low temperature.
Statement 3: Skin exposure is not a concern with cryogens.
1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
287
Bags may be used to store:
nonbulk dry items such as pesticides.
288
Above ground pressurized storage tanks are divided into two categories:
low-pressure and pressure
289
Two complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident are:
crime scene considerations and possible secondary events
290
When implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should:
be alert for secondary devices
291
Which is a required signal word on a pesticide label?
Warning
292
Which is mandatory information found on a pesticide label?
Environmental Protection Agency registration number
293
Which information is required on a pipeline marker?
Owner of the pipeline
294
A tank car designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -130°F and below is a:
cryogenic liquid tank car.
295
A rail car with exposed fittings is considered to be a __________ car.
nonpressure or low-pressure tank
296
If a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a __________ rail car.
pressure tanks
297
A rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a:
dedicated car
298
A cryogenic liquid tank will have:
a double shell with insulation
299
A __________ tank has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated
cryogenic
300
Pipeline markers contain information describing the:
owner/phone number/product.
301
The proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an:
MC 312/DOT 412.
302
Viewed from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape, illustrated below, indicates what type of carrier?
MC 306/DOT 406
303
A carboy may be used for transporting materials containing:
corrosives
304
The V-shaped carrier below depicts a __________ carrier
dry bulk
305
The shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a __________ packaging.
type A
306
___________ radioactive materials can be packaged in small containers as well as those weighing over 100 tons?
type b
307
The shape of this container (cylinder) that is located at a fixed facility and is sitting on a concrete pad would indicate it probably contains a:
cryogenic
308
A cryogenic material would be carried in an:
MC 338
309
A noninsulated, single-shell vessel illustrated below, which carries gases that have been liquefied, is an:
MC 331
310
A tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids, Class B poisons, and liquid food products with vapor pressures up to 4 psi, is an
MC 306/DOT 406.
311
An MC 307/DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier is designed to carry chemicals with pressures not to exceed __________ psi
35-40
312
An MC 306/DOT 406 nonpressure liquid carrier, as illustrated below, can operate with liquids with vapor pressures below _________ psi.
4
313
A tank truck that carries corrosive liquids, generally acids, and has a narrow diameter with external ribbing, as illustrated below is an:
MC 312/DOT 412
314
A single or double manhole assembly protected by a flash box and roll-over protection is an identification feature of a(n) _________ carrier shown in
the illustration.
MC 307/DOT 407
315
In response to an incident involving a jackknifed tractor trailer, you arrive and size up the situation. From your position, you only have a side view of the tractor trailer.
You know it is an:
MC 331.
316
A recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is an MC 312. The container most probably contains a:
corrosive liquid.
317
While enroute to an emergency incident, dispatch informs you that callers are reporting a tank leaking an unknown liquid. Dispatch also informs you that witnesses report seeing a marking of "Spec. 51" on the side of the tank. What type of container would you expect to find on arrival at the incident
intermodal portable tank
318
The transport container on which you would expect to find a specification plate is known as a:
cargo tank truck
319
The statement, "Keep Away from Waterways," found on a pesticide label is referred to as a(n
precautionary statement
320
The statement, "Keep Away From Children," found on a pesticide label is an example of a(n):
precautionary statement
321
What is the minimum level of training is required to don chemical protective clothing
Haz Mat Operations
322
When initiating an Incident Management System at hazardous materials incidents, it is important to remember that an individual's span of control is:
1 to 5.
323
Control of the scene begins by isolating the site. The process for establishing initial isolation distances can be found:
in the Emergency Response Guidebook
324
The active ingredients on a pesticide label will be
listed by name
325
You arrive on the scene of a vehicle accident involving a cargo tank truck carrying gasoline. The truck is leaking its product into a small lake. The driver of the truck
gives you a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) on gasoline, which gives a specific gravity of 0.8. With this information, you can predict that the product will
REMAIN ON TOP OF THE WATER
326
In order to determine whether the personal protective equipment provided is appropriate for defensive operations, the Emergency Response Guidebook should be consulted. The section in which this information would be found is colored:
orange.
327
Which is correct regarding emergency decontamination?
It is required when immediate medical attention is required.
328
When attempting to collect hazard information during an emergency incident, the responders could contact _________ for immediate information
CHEMTREC®
329
The best source of information on a specific hazardous material is the:
manufacturer's Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
330
If a product with a vapor density of 1.6 escaped from its container, you would expect the product to:
collect in low-lying areas.
331
The goal of an emergency decon procedure is to
remove any threatening contamination as quickly as possible
332
If you are initiating the Incident Management System at a hazardous materials incident, the person assigned as the Safety Officer must be
trained to the technician level
333
The lead agency during a terrorist attack is the:
Federal Bureau of Investigation.
334
When using the Emergency Response Guidebook, the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide number is to:
go to the orange-bordered section
335
In the Emergency Response Guidebook, a first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the:
yellow and blue-bordered sections
336
Upon arrival to a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you learn it is carrying magnesium. You are unable to obtain the 4-digit ID number. Where should you look
first in the Emergency Response Guidebook for guidance?
In the blue-bordered material index section
337
The isolation distance in the Orange Section of the Emergency Response Guidebook is for:
consideration for evacuation.1
338
First responders trained to the Awareness level have the ability to:
realize the need for additional resources and make the appropriate notifications
339
The mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes:
surveying the incident to determine the identity of the material involved.
340
If, in using the Emergency Response Guidebook, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first
responder should go directly to the:
green-bordered section
341
When providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident
the patient should be removed from the contaminated area at which time basic care and decontamination can begin.
342
You would expect to find the emergency action for a spill or leak in the __________ section of the Emergency Response Guidebook
ORANGE
343
```
The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the Emergency Response Guidebook is divided into small spills and large spills. The Department
of Transportation (DOT) defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than:
```
55 gallons
344
A first responder must refer to the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the Emergency Response Guidebook whenever:
the material entry in the Identification Number and Name Indexes is highlighted
345
Which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones?
A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone
346
One of the roles of the first responder at the awareness level during a Haz mat incident is to:
isolate the area
347
Which is a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level?
Call for appropriate assistance
348
Typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include:
battery operated equipment.
349
The term - evacuate - means
moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area.
350
The route of exposure effecting the respiratory tracts associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is:
inhalation
351
__________ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes
ABSORPTION
352
The collection of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of:
law enforcement
353
Asphyxiation hazard:
can lead to suffocation
354
Which is a potential ignition source found at the scenes of hazardous materials incidents?
radios and flashlights
355
Upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. You should look first in the Emergency Response Guidebook for guidance in the
yellow section
356
Scene control at a terrorism incident may present unique challenges for the responders. In particular, responders must be aware that:
the terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again
357
The term - shelter-in-place protection - means
having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area.
358
The term - isolate hazard area and deny entry - means:
keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area
359
The general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are
inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection
360
The statement: "People inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes:
shelter in place
361
The recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is:
circular
362
When using the Table of Isolation Distances in the Emergency Response Guidebook, a large spill is defined as a quantity greater than:
70 gallons or greater.
363
One resource that deals with protective action distances involving toxic gas, is the:
DOT emergency response guide book
364
The recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a hazardous substance would be found in the __________ section of the Emergency Response Guidebook.
orange
365
The Department of Transportation Hazard Class 7 consists of
radioactive substances
366
The Department of Transportation Hazard Class 6 consists of
poison
367
The Department of Transportation Hazard Class 5 consists of:
oxidizers
368
The Department of Transportation Hazard Class 4 consists of
flammable solids
369
The Department of Transportation Hazard Class 3 consists of:
flammable liquids
370
The Department of Transportation (DOT) hazard Class 2 consists of:
gases
371
The DOT Hazard Class 1 consists of:
explosives
372
The Department of Transportation (DOT) Hazard Class 9 consists of:
miscellaneous
373
The chemicals listed in highlighted type in the Emergency Response Guidebook were selected because
they present a toxic inhalation hazard.
374
When referring to the Emergency Response Guidebook, if a chemical name is not highlighted, the next step is to proceed to the __________ section for the
action guides.
orange
375
If a chemical name is highlighted in the Emergency Response Guidebook, the table of initial isolation and protective action distances are found in the __________ section.
green
376
If a placard is visible, but no product name or four digit United Nations (UN) number is given, how can you determine which guide page of the Emergency Response
Guidebook to use?
table of placards lists guide numbers
377
Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook provides the fire, explosion, and health hazard information for the material identified by the first responder?
orange
378
If a numbered guide for a transported hazardous material cannot be obtained, the first responder should:
refer to the Table of Placards section of the Guidebook
379
The primary hazard of a Department of Transportation Hazard Class 5 material is:
oxidation
380
The Department of Transportation Hazard Class 8 consists of:
corrosives
381
Statement 1: A Material Safety Data Sheet provides the name the chemical company uses to identify the product.
Statement 2: The product name is not always identical to the chemical name, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet.
Statement 3: The listing of product names, chemical names, and synonyms on Material Safety Data Sheets can make identifying chemicals sometimes confusing
all 3 are true
382
The National Fire Protection Association 704 system is designed for:
fixed facilities
383
Which Federal agency is involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes?
Department of Transportation
384
Statement 1: The blue section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) lists the shipping names of hazardous materials.
Statement 2: Shipping names are always identical to the chemical names of materials.
Statement 3: It is important to know the proper spelling of the shipping name of a material before referencing the ERG.
1 and 3 are true and statement 2 is false
385
Hazardous materials that would be classified and placarded Class 9 during transportation include:
Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs).
386
Statement 1: Examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agent/VX.
Statement 2: The most toxic, least volatile nerve agent is V agent/VX.
Statement 3: Nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapor pressure
statement 1 and 2 are true and 3 is false
387
Statement 1: Victims have lost control of their bowels--you suspect a nerve agent.
Statement 2: Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier--you suspect a biological agent.
Statement 3: Victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses and difficulty breathing--you suspect a biological agent
1 and 2 are true and 3 is false
388
Using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, which is considered a chemical nerve agent?
V-agent/ VX
389
Which are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent?
A. dry mouth
B. diluted pupils
C. loss of bladder control and vomiting
D. fever and muscle tenderness
loss of bladder control and vomitting
390
Given the product name, you can find the four-digit United Nations/Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) number assigned by referencing the:
ERG emergency response guidebook
391
Blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and high-yield Explosive (CBRNE) classification?
chemical
392
The acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents?
Nerve agents
393
Statement 1: Nerve agents are the most toxic of chemical warfare agents.
Statement 2: Blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals.
Statement 3: Biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make and the onset of symptoms usually requires days to weeks.
all 3 statements are true
