Operations pt2 Flashcards
Which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion?
A. it commonly utilizes firefighting foam.
B. it is not effective on water soluble material
C. the run off may need to be contained
D. it is only effective on materials with a specific gravity of less than 1.
C. the run off may need to be contained
Which is a true statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs ?
A. they are usually well marked in red and in an easy-to-find location.
B. they are usually located on the passenger side of the cab
C. emergency shutoffs should be in a concealed location
D. remote shut offs are usually optional
A. they are usually well marked in red and in an easy to find location
In some situations, it may be safe and acceptable for Operations-Level responders to operate emergency remote shutoff valves on cargo tank trucks. This remote shut off on a MC/DOT 306/406 will be located at the:
A. left front corner
B. right front corner
C. top right corner
D. left rear corner
left front corner
Mc 306/406 carry flammable and combustible liquids and class B poisons.
Single shell aluminums tanks hold as much as 9200 gallons at atmospheric pressure
Oval/elliptical cross section and overturn protection that serves to protect the top-mounted fittings in the event of a rollover .
Shut off valves are located at the front of the cargo tank on the driver side, or at the rear of the cargo tank in the passenger side.
At a spill, defensive actions should include:
A. diking or remote closing a valve
B. pretest all equipment
C. brief all personnel on the incident action plan
D. establish crew rotation schedule
diking or remote closing a valve
When using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of:
A. viscosity
B. resistance to solubility
C. run-off contamination
D. concentration
run-off contamination
A process in which a material is added to soak up a hazardous material to prevent enlargement or spread of the contaminated area is known as:
A. neutrilazation
B. solidification
C. adsorption
D. absorption
absorption
Adsorption is the process of:
A. the repellent quality of a material
B. adhering the contaminant to a surface
C. binding two chemicals together
D. decreasing volume when a material is wet
adhering the contaminant to a surface
Which principal characteristic of adsorption is true?
A, off gasing is reduced
B. it is normally used in large bodies of water
C. the adsorption process occurs only with flat surfaces
D. a product of the adsorption process is condensation
off gasing is reduced
The eight step process recommended for assessing a hazardous materials incident includes:
A. hazard and risk evaluation
B. implementing rehabilitation
C. sniffing odors, and tasting material
D. funding for clean up
hazard and risk evaluation
__________ is the most commonly used method for decontaminating personnel
A. brushing or scraping
B. adsorption
C. absorption
D. dilution / washing
dilution/ washing
Another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called:
A. flaring
B. over-packing
C. pressure patches
D. banding
flaring
__________ is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product.
A. flammable range
B. boil over
C. flaring
D. frothover
flaring
As a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted ?
A. absorption
B. dilution
C. vapor supression
D. isolate and deny entry
isolate and deny entry
Diking, damming, and diverting are ____ options available for ___ control.
defensive; spill
lowered body core temperature is called:
hypothermia
Which is a true life-threatening emergency that requires immediate attention?
A. heat exhaustion
B. heat stroke
C. heat stress
D. heat cramps
heat stroke
Heat exhaustion is associated with:
cool moist skin
The following advantages are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit?
- It offers maximum level of protection to the user.
- Positive internal pressure may help to minimize minor leaks.
- If the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) malfunctions, the user may have some time to reach a nonhostile environment.
A. level A fully encapsulated (type 1)
B. Level B SCBA (Type 2)
C. Level C (type 3)
D. Level D (type 4)
Level A fully encapsulated Type 1
One advantage of using Level A personal protective equipment with Supplied Air Respirators (Type 3) and a vapor-protective suit is:
A. greater comfort and mobility because of the close-fitting cut.
B. a turnout coat or limited use garment can be worn over the suit for additional protection.
C. air cylinders can be removed or changed without opening the suit.
D. that it permits extended operations.
D. that it permits extended operations
What is an operational consideration when using supplied air respirators?
A. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health certification limits the maximum hose length from the source to 300 feet.
B. Use of airlines in an oxygen deficient atmosphere requires a secondary emergency air supply.
C. The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected.
D.The Emergency Breathing Supply System is limited to no longer than 30 minutes of use.
C.
An air cooling system consists of small airlines providing _________ cooling of the user by blowing cool air over the body inside a suit or vest.
convective
A vest where the cooling agent is circulated throughout the garment and operates on the principle of conductive heat transfer is known as a(n) _________ vest.
water cooled
Statement 1: A phase change vest consists of a method to maintain a consistent temperatuer of 60 degrees.
Statement 2: Ice cooled vests may be recharged by freezing the vest.
Statement 3: Ice cooled vests typically recharge faster than phase-change style vests.
Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false.
Physical stresses that can affect users of specialized protective clothing include:
heat stress
To protect against radiological exposures a responder should:
limit the time spent in a radiation hazard area
A Level A suit will protect the responder from ill effects from:
vapors and gases
Degradation can be described as:
physical damage from a chemical
The highest level of protection from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
Level A
In dealing with biological agents, the minimum required protection is:
level C
Standard structural firefighting ensemble including self-contained breathing apparatus are adequate for which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) incidents?
beta radiation
The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use, or ambient conditions defines:
degradation
__________ is the flow of a hazardous material through zippers, pinholes or other material imperfections found in chemical protective clothing.
penetration
Chemical permeation rates are a result of:
temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations.
There is no assurance that once decontamination of chemical protective clothing is complete, _________ has ceased.
permeation
In order to safely estimate the chemical resistance of a particular garment, manufacturers supply:
compatibility charts.
The chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials best defines:
PERMEATION
The elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the material is called:
breakthrough time
The best protective material against a specific chemical is one that has a low _________ rate (if any) and a long _________ time.
permeation, breakthrough
The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best describes _________ protection.
Level B
The maximum hose length allowed by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health when using an airline hose respirator is _________ feet
300
The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing by a chemical action is called:
degration
The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes:
penetration
The best type of personal protective equipment for thermal hazards would be
structural firefighting clothing
In which type of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) call is structural fire fighting gear and chemical protective ensemble inadequate?
Explosives/mechanical
When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should be used to minimize radioactive contamination?
Time, distance, shielding
What personal protective equipment would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5 mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure and was dermally toxic?
Level A
The decontamination of crew members through the use of water and soap is known as:
dilution
What type of personal protective equipment is most commonly used when dealing with a biological incident?
splash protective clothing
Cracking, charring, and discoloration are examples of __________ to a chemical garment.
degration
Statement 1: Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated.
Statement 2: Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body.
Statement 3: Both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions.
statement 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
Permeation can be described as
occurring on a molecular level
When donning a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) with a Level A suit, the self-contained breathing apparatus is:
worn inside the personal protective equipment (PPE).
Symptoms of heat __________ include little or no sweating; hot, dry, red, skin; deep, then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse.
stroke
Heat __________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin.
exhaustion
Penetration can be described as:
movement of material through closures.
Heat stroke is associated with:
hot, dry, red skin.
Dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, are all signs of:
heat exhaustion
What single item makes a Level B ensemble different from the lower levels of personal protective equipment?
scba
Heat stress is associated with:
muscle cramps in legs and abdomen.
A vapor-tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a:
LVL A
Which are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon?
remain isolated till deconned
Statement 1: When decontamination and doffing of personal protective equipment occurs in a cold environment, the body can cool rapidly.
Statement 2: Wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to 240 times faster than dry clothing, which can lead to hypothermia.
Statement 3: Hypothermia, while serious, is not a true medical emergency.
statement 1 and 2 are true; 3 is fake
This suit is used where splashes may occur, but where respiratory
hazards are minimal.
Level C
Which is a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus?
physical condition
The minimum level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(an):
positive pressure self contained breathing apparatus
The highest level of protection, based on Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
Level A
The most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is:
chemical compatibility
Exposure to __________ materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite.
cryogenic
Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied air respirators, are two types of
atmosphere supplied devices
The type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n):
air purification respirator
The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defines Environmental Protection Agency __________ Protection.
Level B
Work uniforms that provide minimal protection best defines Environmental Protection Agency __________ protection.
Level D
When considering personnel protection, remember that the most vulnerable route of exposure for an emergency responder is:
the respiratory system.
Which are safety guidelines for the use of vapor protective clothing?
Suits significantly impair mobility.
The incident command post at a hazardous materials incident:
should relay their location to the dispatcher and responding personnel
What is unique about hazardous materials Incident Management System (IMS)?
There are typically two safety officers assigned
At a hazardous materials incident, which function area is responsible for developing a special technical group to the basic incident command system?
Operations
At a hazardous materials incident, the assistant safety officer directly reports to the
safety officer
If the safety officer notices an unsafe activity at an emergency, the safety officer should:
stop the activity immediately
When a fire involves the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the responders should:
immediately evacuate the area.
What would show that the correct actions were taken at a flammable gas leak?
lower readings on the monitors
A __________ sound often occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure.
pinging
Back-up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the __________ zone
cold
Respiratory protective equipment should be cleaned and inspected:
after each use.
To minimize the physical limitations of personal protective equipment (PPE), a firefighter should:
hydrate frequently.
When operating at a hazardous materials scene, what is required when operating in a hot zone
Utilization of the buddy system
The first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is
isolation of the area and prevention of entry
When responding to a potential hazardous material incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to:
approach from uphill and upwind even if it requires a longer response time
How often should a self-contained breathing apparatus unit be inspected after it has been used?
daily
Within the Incident Command System, the optimum span of control is:
5:1
Who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a hazardous materials incident?
logistic section chief
At a suspected terrorist incident, evidence collection is primarily the responsibility of:
law enforcement
The individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources describes the:
incident commander
At a hazardous materials incident, the safety officer’s responsibilities include
participating in preparation of and monitoring the safety plan
The __________ is the location where coordination, control, and communications are centralized
Command Post
At a hazardous materials emergency, the Operations Section serves the task of
controlling the tactical portion of the incident
A Level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from
a hazardous material response team.
The person who advises the Incident Commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard
operating procedures is the:
Safety Officer
Level III incidents often require the technical expertise of __________ to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident
a specialist
When determining the location of the command post, it is vital that
it is a safe area
Once the Safety Officer arrives on the scene, the Incident Commander should
have the Safety Officer review the incident action plan.
When the Safety Officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident, they should
intervene in the unsafe action.
Which task at a hazardous materials incident will be provided by Logistics?
Responsible for securing facilities, services, and equipment
Identify the five major functions within the Incident Management System
Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance
At a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, the first responder should
minimize the number of people working in the area.
One of the keys to evidence preservation is
minimize the number of people working in the area
Statement 1: The decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make.
Statement 2: Sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area.
Statement 3: Evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place.
Statement 2 is true; statements 1 and 3 are false.
Statement 1: Safety briefings should be a verbal relay of information on the written site safety plan.
Statement 2: The safety briefing should stress the potential hazards that exist.
Statement 3: Safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is
also a crime scene.
all statements are true
Statement 1: The hot zone is the area immediately around the release.
Statement 2: The warm zone includes the decontamination area.
Statement 3: The command post is located in the warm zone.
1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
When dealing with a Level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of:
large scale evacuation.
Which is a consideration when setting up an emergency decontamination area?
Run off
Prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on:
anticipated duration of the task.
When sheltering people in place, the citizens should be directed to:
close all heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning system
What should responders do with runoff from emergency decontamination?
Divert into an area where it can be treated or disposed of.
Which protective action must be taken during shelter in-place protection?
Close all windows.
One of the factors that can change the evacuation area is:
a change in wind direction
The __________ zone is the area of highest known hazard.
B. hot/exclusion
The area that exists just outside the hot/exclusion zone is known as the:
warm zone.
The zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points, is known as a __________ zone.
hot/exclusion
Statement 1: While emergency responders may have considerable experience with decon at Haz Mat incidents, performing decon at a terrorist incident may require some changes to the procedure.
Statement 2: Decontamination is performed at Haz-Mat/WMD incidents to remove hazardous materials from all responders, victims, personal protective equipment, tools and equipment.
Statement 3: Everyone and everything in the hot zone is subject to contact with the hazardous material and can become contaminated.
all 3 are true
__________ is designed to remove contaminates that pose immediate threat to life.
Emergency decontamination
Which statement about emergency decontamination is true?
It can be implemented without a formal decontamination area.
A way that personnel, personal protective equipment, apparatus, and tools become Contaminated is by:
secondary contamination.
The taking of hazardous materials into the body through the undamaged skin and the eyes is called:
absorption
To make rescues of live victims during a hazardous materials incident involving chemicals, first responders should use:
structural fire fighting personal protective equipment.
Diversion, diking, and retention are all techniques used in:
confinement.
Statement 1: Vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapors away from certain areas.
Statement 2: Vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem.
Statement 3: Vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble.
statement 1 is true; 2 and 3 is a lie
Statement 1: Absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous material spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill.
Statement 2: Absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill.
Statement 3: Absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous substances.
1 and 3 are true and 2 is false
A process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called:
diversion
Defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are:
dike, dam, diversion, and retention.
The purpose of vapor suppression is to:
reduce the emission of vapors
An advantage of confinement operations is that:
direct exposure of personnel is avoided
__________ is comprised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area.
confinement
Identify the process of controlling fumes or vapors that are given off by flammable liquids
vapor suppression
Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be:
defensive strategies
Which statement is correct concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill?
Dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics
When determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the:
specific gravity of the material
A process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called
absorption
Statement 1: Remote shutoffs are usually well marked with an orange placard.
Statement 2: Remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the back door.
Statement 3: On vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the rear of the cargo tank or behind the driver’s door.
1 and 2 are false, 3 is true
Removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires
the Emergency Decontamination process
The primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is:
explosion
What would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non-flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking?
inhalation
One of the guidelines for protecting against possible secondary devices is
manage the scene with cordons, boundaries, and scene control zones
If a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all:
ignition sources
In Level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with:
a small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident.
Which resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area?
Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Haz Mat technicians are needed to operate this equipment
Which resource would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material within an endangered area when provided with local data and leak information?
Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres
If available, which resource is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders’ input, local data and leak information?
Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA)
One type of hazardous material that may be shock sensitive is:
respiratory
One of the symptoms of poisonous gases such as chlorine and anhydrous ammonia is severe irritation to the __________ system.
respiratory
The resource that would be useful in determining the size of an endangered area during a hazmat incident is the:
Emergency Response Guide
The measurement commonly used by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8-hour period is:
PEL
The amount of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population is:
LD50.
The concentration that should never be exceeded is called:
TLV-C.
The term that describes the part of the body effected by a specific toxin is called the
target organ.
Neurotoxins such as organophosphates will effect which target organ?
nervous system
The UN/DOT hazard class for nerve agents is
Division 6.1.
