Operations Flashcards
What does CDC stand for?
Combat Direction Center
What is the primary mission of CDC?
Gather, process, display, evaluate, disseminate
What is the secondary mission of CDC?
Control and assist
How many modules are there in CDC?
7
Name the 7 modules in CDC
Air Warfare
Analysis
Detection and Tracking
Display and Decision
Electronic Warfare
Surface
Tactical Operations Plot
Purpose of Air warfare?
Detect air threats via ships’ or aircrafts’ sensors and data links.
Who determines offensive or defensive weapons for delivery?
Air Defense Commander (Callsign “Whiskey”)
Purpose of AIC (Air Intercept Controller)?
control tactical fighters during all phases of an air intercept
using HAVEQUICK checks for communication with the F/A-18.
Who works in the Zulu module?
DESRON 21
What is DESRON 21 responsible for?
All ships movement within Carrier Strike Group 3.
What is included within JCSSG?
John C. Stennis, Mobile Bay, Stockdale, Chung Hoon, and Decatur.
What is TAO overall responsible for?
Defense of the ship and authorized with defensive weapons release authority.
CDCWO: Acronym? Overall in charge of what? Responsible for?
(Combat Direction Center Watch Officer);
Overall in charge of the surface module watch standers;
Responsible for the surface and subsurface tactical picture assisting the TAO.
ADWC: Acronym? In charge of and responsible to?
(Air Defense Weapons Coordinator);
In charge of the air picture.
Directly responsible to the Air Defense Coordinator (“Whiskey”).
DWC: Acronym? In charge of?
Defense Weapons Coordinator;
In charge of CIWS, RAM, and NSSMS weapons systems. Manned by FCs.
Who can stand “Strike”? Conducts what?
Any qualified air controller;
Comm checks and verifies Modes 2 and 4 with aircraft.
TIC: Acronym? Maintains what?
(Tactical Information Coordinator)
Maintains link picture and shares information with units in the link for Common Tactical Picture.
What is Link 11?
(Alligator) – Ship to ship and ship to shore
What is Link 16?
(Timber) – Jam resistant utilizing frequency hopping
What does the ID operator do?
Detects, tracks, and identifies all aircraft within JCS airspace utilizing IFF.
How many modes are utilized for IFF and what are they?
Mode 1 – Mission
Mode 2 – Identification/side number
Mode 3 – Civilian or Military
Mode 4 – Friendly/crypto
Mode C – Altitude
ATM: Acronym? What is it? Maintains? What can it modify?
Auto Track Manager;
Sensor supervisor;
Maintains and controls SPS-48G, SPS-49, and SPQ-9B;
Is able to modify RADAR settings or optimize performance.
What does RADAR stand for?
Radio Detection and Ranging
What rate works in the EW module?
CTT
What is the main mission of the EW module?
Anti-ship missile defense
What system does the EW module have control over?
AN/SLQ-32
How many AN/SLQ-32 antennas are onboard?
2
What is ES?
Electronic Support detects RADAR signals
What is EP? What is it?
Electronic Protect is any passive or active means to protect personnel or equipment using electro-magnetic spectrum
What is EA?
Electronic Attack is jamming RADAR and communications
What does EMCON stand for?
Emissions Control.
What is EMCON?
Emissions Control electronically hides the ship by turning off certain equipment that produces signals (RADAR, radios communication, sound, light).
How many EMCON conditions are there?
Nine (A, A1, A2, B, B1, B2, C, D, D22)
What EMCON cannot be modified and is the most restrictive?
Alpha
What EMCON is the least restrictive?
Delta
GCCS-M: Acronym? Provides? Forwarded to?
Global Command and Control System Maritime;
Non real time picture of surface/subsurface contacts globally.
Information gets forwarded to the Pentagon.
Purpose of Surface Tracker?
Tracks surface contacts 32nm and out and maintains accurate surface picture.
SCAC: Acronym? Purpose?
Sea Combat Air Controller;
uses MH-60R/S and P-3C aircraft to help identify the surface/subsurface picture.
ASTAC: Acronym? Responsible for?
Anti-Surface/Subsurface Tactical Air Controller;
Responsible for providing safety of flight, tactical directions, and communication data to MH-60R/S and P-3/8 aircraft for detection, identification, tracking, and prosecution of surface and subsurface contacts.
CV-TSC: Acronym? Purpose?
Carrier Tactical Support Center;
Manned by STGs to help ID surface and subsurface picture for the Common Tactical Picture.
AN/WQC-2A (Gertrude) Purpose?
unsecure two-way underwater communication between ship
and submarine.
AN/SLQ-25C (Nixie) Purpose?
torpedo countermeasure (magnetic and acoustic). Two winches (port and starboard fantail) with four cables and four towed bodies. Cable length of 2100 feet deployable to 2000 feet.
SONAR: Instead of Organic SONAR what does the stennis use?
uses escort ships and aircraft for subsurface detection and tracking.
What rate works the CV-TSC?
STG
What is the primary job for TOP?
Track surface contacts within 32nm.
What is the secondary job for TOP?
Assist the OOD with contact reports and navigational safety.
What does Surface Tracker do?
Tracks surface contacts
SPA-25G Operator?
RADAR repeater in the pilot house.
What is the task of the Bridge Phone Talker?
Maintains constant communications with look outs and TOP. Relays information to the JOOD and OOD.
What is VMS?
Navigation system used to maintain ownship’s PIM.
DRT (Dead Reckoning Tracer)?
Used primarily during man overboard to track ownship’s
position and position of the man overboard.
What are the two turns utilized for a man overboard?
Andersen Turn – A complete circle that ends on the original course.
Williamson Turn – Ship turns in direction of the side of the man overboard, once 60 degrees off original course shift rudder to the other side, continue turn until steady on reciprocal of original course. Stop to windward of man overboard when they are off the bow or beam.
What are the two main RADARs used in TOP for surface tracking?
SPS-67 and SPS-73
What does CATCC stand for?
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center
What rate works in CATCC?
AC
What is TACAN and what does it do?
Tactical air navigation provides guidance to and from the transmitting unit.
What are the main RADARs used in CATCC?
SPN-46 for precision approach landing system (PALS) and aircraft carrier landing system (ACLS)
SPN-43 for air marshall
SPN-41 for instrument landing system (ILS)
What does CVIC stand for?
Carrier Intelligence Center
What rate works in CVIC?
IS
Name aircraft on board JCS.
F/A-18 – Tactical fighter and tankers
E/A-18 Growlers – Electronic attack
E2-C Hawkeye – Airborne early warning
C-2 Greyhound – Carrier onboard delivery (COD)
MH-60R/S – R: SUW/USW. S: SAR/plane guard
Name the different types of ships in the fleet.
CVN – Multi-purpose aircraft carrier, nuclear powered
CG – Guided missile cruiser
DDG – Guided missile destroyer
LCC – Amphibious command ship
LHA – Amphibious assault ship (general purpose)
LHD – Amphibious assault ship (multipurpose)
LPD – Amphibious transport dock
LSD – Dock landing ship
LCS – Littoral combat ship
SSN – Fast attack submarine, nuclear powered
SSBN – Ballistic missile submarine, nuclear powered
SSGN – Guided missile submarine, nuclear powered
MCS – Mine countermeasure support control ship
MCM – Mine countermeasure ship
MHC – Coastal mine hunter
PC – Patrol craft
AGER – Technical research ship
ARS – Salvage ship
AS – Submarine tender
EPF – Expeditionary fast transport
T-AE – Transport ammunition ship
T-AG – Auxiliary general
T-AGS/T-AGM – Range ship
T-AH – Hospital ship
T-AKE – Dry cargo/ammunition ship
T-AO – Transport oiler
T-AOE – Fast combat support ship
T-ARC – Cable ship
T-ESB – Expeditionary mobile base
T-ESD – Expeditionary transfer dock
LCAC – Landing craft air cushion
What does CSTT stand for and what are they responsible for?
Combat Systems Training Team responsible for training CDC watchstanders.
Describe the following in accordance with Operations: Access; Classification; Clearance; Compromise.
- Access – The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information.
- Classification – The determination of what degree of protection that official information requires, in the interests of nation security.
- Clearance – The administrative determination by a designated authority that an individual is eligible for access to classified information, and to what categories eligible.
- Compromise – A security violation that results in the confirmed or suspected exposure of classified information to an unauthorized person.
Describe the following in accordance with Operations: Need to Know; Restricted area; Confidential.
- Need to know – A determination made that the recipient has a requirement for access to, knowledge or possession of classified information.
- Restricted area – Spaces that require protection of classified information.
- Confidential – Information or material that, if compromised, could cause damage to the United States.
Describe the following in accordance with Operations: Secret; Top secret
- Secret - Assigned to information or material that, if compromised, could cause serious damage to the United States.
- Top secret - Assigned to information or material that, if compromised, could cause exceptionally grave damage to the United States.
What is SITREP (situation report)?
Used by any CO, OIC, or other commander to provide appropriate operational commander and higher authority with timely notification of any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special reporting criteria.
