OPERATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Responsibilities of the Operations Officer?

A

responsible to the CO for all facts of the operations department.

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2
Q

Responsibilities of the CIC Officer?

A

Division officer for the OI Division

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3
Q

What is the primary mission of the CIC/ CDC?

A

To provide the organized collection, display, evaluation, and dissemination of pertinent tactical information and intelligence to command-and-control stations.

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4
Q

What is the secondary mission of the CIC/ CDC?

A

Assist and control

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5
Q

What is the basic information flow functions of CIC/ CDDC? (GOOD PEOPLE DIE EVERY DAY)

A

-Gathering
-Processing
-Display
-Evaluation
-Dissemination

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6
Q

What is Gathering?

A

Collection of combat information from various sources

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7
Q

What is Processing?

A

Sorting, inspecting, apprising, and correlating all information so the resulting filtered information may be displayed and disseminated as necessary

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8
Q

What is Display?

A

Displaying information on status boards or radar scopes

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9
Q

What is evaluation?

A

Considering and weighing all available information to arrive at a sound operational decision.

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10
Q

What is Dissemination?

A

Distributing evaluated information to the various control stations and other throughout the ship who need to know

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11
Q

Tactical Action Officer (TAO)

A

Direct advisor to the CO from the decision/ display area, the only other person with weapons release authority.

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12
Q

CIC Watch officer (CICWO)

A

Responsible for coordination of all CIC functions

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13
Q

Electronic Warfare Supervisor (EWS)

A

CTTs- Responsible for Collection and display of all available EW info.

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14
Q

Identification Operator (ID-OP)

A

Responsible for tracking and identifying all air contacts, and determining their intentions as they enter our security areas.

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15
Q

Surface Detection Tracker (SDT)

A

Responsible for tracking all surface tracks, platforms, and entering emergency points into SSDS

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16
Q

Air Intercept Controllers (ASTAC/AIC/HDC)

A

Responsible for positive control of all aircraft assigned for the completion of any assigned mission

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17
Q

Sensor Supervisor

A

Adjust RADAR sensitivity for clear RADAR display, and basic trouble shooter for all air search RADARs.

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18
Q

CIC Watch Supervisor (CICWS)

A

Supervises overall control of all watch stations in CIC

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19
Q

Shipping Officer

A

Responsible to the Navigator to ensure our course is clear of all contacts/ hazards. Manned during Navigation detail and Sea and Anchor.

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20
Q

Piloting Officer

A

Responsible to the Navigator for course recommendations and coordination between the CIC and Bridge. Manned during Navigation detail and Sea and Anchor.

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21
Q

Track Supervisor (TIC/TDC)

A

Responsible to make reports to MRICO who is the maritime regional interface control officer. There primary job is generate and maintain the link picture, as well as CEC (Cooperative engagement Capability)

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22
Q

Air Defense Weapons’ Coordinator (ADWC)

A

has weapons authority with TAO permission. Works with DWC

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23
Q

Defense Weapons’ Coordinator (DWC)

A

FC’s man this position. Fire CIWS, RAM, and NATO

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24
Q

The ESSEX’s platform is SSDS, what is SSDS? (OPS)

A

Ships self-defense systems

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25
Q

Operational Order (OPORDER)

A

Issued by a commander for the coordinated execution of an operation in the immediate future. It does not normally contain assumptions. Unless otherwise stated, an OPORDER is effective from the date and time signed.

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26
Q

Operational Plan (OPLAN)

A

A preliminary general sketch that gives the important features that will govern a completed plan, such as a campaign plan, a logistics plan, a base-development plan, ect.

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27
Q

Operational Tasking (OPTASK)

A

Unit specific guidance for execution of the plan

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28
Q

What is the task of the Amphibious Ready Group (ARG)

A

A task organized formed for the purpose of conducting an amphibious operation. An ARG always includes Navy forces and landing forces, with organic aviation, and may include maritime ships and air forces when appropriate.

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29
Q

What is the purpose of maintaining a navigational plot in CIC/ CDC?

A

While in range of land, the CIC assists the navigator in determining the ship’s position in order to help the ship remain in safe water. Used as a backup for the bridge and to correlate between CIC and the bridge. Assist in making landfall and identifying landmasses through the supply of RADAR info. Aids in SAR, shore bombardment and amphibious operations.

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30
Q

What is a data link?

A

connecting one location to another for the purpose of transmitting and receiving digital information (data communication)

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31
Q

How many types of links are there? (OPS)

A

TWO Link: Link 11 & Link 16

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32
Q

What is Link 11?

A

Alligator, secure, two way transmission. Ship to ship, ship to shore, and ship to air communications.

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33
Q

What is Link 16?

A

Timber, secure, two way transmission. Ship to ship, ship to shore, and ship to air communications.

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34
Q

What is the Proword for the MTJ (Multi TADIL-J)?

A

PUZZLE

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35
Q

What is the Proword for the STJ (Satellite TADIL-J)?

A

BLACK TIMBER

36
Q

What is the Proword for the UTJ (UNICAST TADIL-J)?

A

BROWSER

37
Q

What is the Proword for the CEC (Cooperative Engagement Capability)?

A

SPIDER

38
Q

What is the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) used for?

A

The system that ships and stations use to identify friendly aircraft and ships.

39
Q

The Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) has how many modes?

A

5 MODES

40
Q

When using the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF), what mode gives the most positive identification?

A

MODE 4

41
Q

What are the FIVE modes of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)?

A

MODES 1, 2, 3, 4 and C (MODE 5- NEW MILITARY ONLY)

42
Q

What is MODE 1 of of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)?

A

MISSION CODE

43
Q

What is MODE 2 of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)?

A

UNIT IDENTIFIER

44
Q

What is MODE 3 of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)?

A

COMMERICAL AIR

45
Q

What is MODE 4 of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)?

A

MILITARY ONLY

46
Q

What is MODE 5 of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)?

A

NEW MILITARY ONLY

47
Q

What is TACTICAL AIR NAVATIGATION (TACAN)?

A

Provides course guidance to and from transmitting station.

48
Q

What is the GYRO REPEATER?

A

Show’s bearing and true North. Defines Course.

49
Q

What are RADAR REPEATERS?

A

Show’s the picture emitted from the RADAR.

50
Q

What are RADIOTELEPHONES?

A

Transmits and receives tactical and contact information on various R/T Nets.

51
Q

How does atmospheric conditions effect RADAR?

A

Depending on the conditions they can either increase or decrease returns.

52
Q

How does Sea return effect RADAR?

A

Large waves can show up on screen. Making it hard to distinguish between small boats and water.

53
Q

How does HOT AIR effect RADAR?

A

Hot air improves RADAR range and speed.

54
Q

How does FOG and RAIN effect RADAR?

A

FOG and RAIN can show on RADAR. RAIN more than FOG on RADAR

55
Q

Why does the Height of the antenna and Target matter?

A

RADAR is basically line of sight so the higher the further.

56
Q

What is the purpose of EMISSION CONTROL (EMCON)?

A

the reduction of signals throughout the frequency spectrum. Can be implemented on a reduced basis through only certain frequency ranges, or on a total basis when no signals of any kind are transmitted from the ship. This includes deceptive lighting.

57
Q

What is deceptive lighting?

A

Naval Camouflage- Deceptive lighting is a standard technique used by US navy ships to conceal their identity at night by changing their normal lighting configurations.

58
Q

What is Electronic Support (ES)?

A

Detects radar signals through finding target emitters

59
Q

What is Electronic Attack (EA)?

A

Jamming the Radar signal emitted. MK-36 DLS (Chaff)

60
Q

What is Electronic Protect (EP)?

A

Anti-Jamming anyone who is jamming your signal (EMCON)

61
Q

What is Air Warfare (AW)?

A

The action required to destroy or to reduce the enemy’s air and missile threats to an acceptable level.

62
Q

What is Surface Warfare (SUW)?

A

Continuously involved with surface tracking, if for no other reason than to avoid collisions. Makes recommendations to the evaluator/ TAO and the bridge on weapons assignments and tactics.

63
Q

What is Command and Control warfare (C2W)?

A

To aggressively wage combat operations against air, surface, and subsurface threats while carrying out the primary mission of the force.

64
Q

What is Amphibious Warfare (AMW)?

A

Assault troops and their equipment and supplies are carried from the assault ships to their designated landing positions ashore by landing craft, amphibious vehicles, or helicopters.

65
Q

What is Maritime Interdiction Operations (MIO)?

A

Enforcing UN (NATO) sanctions at sea.

66
Q

What is Non-combat Evacuation Operations (NEO)?

A

Evacuate US citizens from hostile areas.

67
Q

What is Search and Rescue (SAR)?

A

Search for a person in water

68
Q

What is Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI)?

A

Specific items of information, which, if revealed and correlated with other information, would degrade the security of military operations, projects, and missions in the AOR (USED WITH BEADWINDOW)

69
Q

What is BEADWINDOW?

A

A real time procedure used to alert circuit operations that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred.

70
Q

What is the ONLY proper response when receiving a BEADWINDOW from another station?

A

ROGER OUT

71
Q

What does GINGERBREAD mean?

A

A term advising-net participants that there may be a possible intruder on the radio net.

72
Q

What is Communications Security Material (COMSEC) used for?

A

Designated to keep unauthorized persons from obtaining any information of value relating to National Security.

73
Q

Who/ What is a CMS custodian?

A

A person designated in writing by the Commanding Officer to maintain the CMS account for the Command. Their Duties include: receiving, inventorying, destroying, and issuing COMSEC material and equipment to authorized users and local holders.

74
Q

What is ACCESS?

A

The principle of “circulation Control” to maintain security of classified information. This means that knowledge of possession of material or info is permitted. (literally the ability to gain or obtain something)

75
Q

How many CLASSIFICATIONS are there, and what are they?

A

FOUR: UNCLASSIFIED, CONFIDENTIAL, SECRET, TOP SECRET

76
Q

What is a CLEARNEANCE?

A

Required for gaining access to classified information, national agency check or background investigation is completed on a person requiring clearance to determine a persons loyalty to be consistent with the interest of National Security.

77
Q

What is a COMPROMISE?

A

The disclosure of classified info to a person who is NOT authorized access to that information. The disclosure could have been knowingly, willingly or accidental through negligence.

78
Q

With regards to COMPROMISE, what is a CONFIRMED?

A

definite proof material is comprised

79
Q

What is NEED TO KNOW?

A

A person can NOT be granted access to classified material solely on rank, the persons must have a NEED of the material to perform their duties. (ie PS1 doesn’t need access to TOP SECRET information about a deployment.)

80
Q

What is an RESTRICTED AREA?

A

Is an effective and efficient method to restrict access and control movement where classified information is stored or used, only the persons whose duties actually require access and have an appropriate clearance my enter.

81
Q

What is CONFIDENTIAL? (Define)

A

The unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to nation or embarrassment to the United States or it’s allies.

82
Q

What is SECRET? (Define)

A

If compromised, could cause serious damage to National Security.

83
Q

What is TOP Secret? (Define)

A

Material that requires the highest level of protection, if comprised could result in grave damage to national security.

84
Q

According to what instruction must individuals who suspect or become aware of loss, compromise or suspected comprise must notify their security manager immediately?

A

OPNAVINST 5510.1H

85
Q

What is EMERGENCY DESTRUCTION?

A

A plan for ships and overseas assignments to provide complete and efficient destruction of classified material in the event of an emergency.