Operating Systems Flashcards

1
Q

the thing that enables a computer to move information around and communicate with input and output devices in a predictable and structured way

A

operating system

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2
Q

How many operating systems can a computer run at a time?

A

Usually only one at a time, but with virtual machines, it can run two, three, or even more.

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3
Q

What is the primary role of an operating system?

A

To act as a go-between that makes connections between initiators and responders.

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4
Q

Where does the operating system reside in relation to the hardware?

A

Above the hardware level.

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5
Q

What does the operating system connect?

A

It connects hardware with applications.

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6
Q

What are the major components of an operating system?

A
  • File system
  • Networking capabilities
  • Program and data storage
  • Tools and utilities
  • User interface (GUI or CLI)
  • Device drivers
  • RAM memory
  • System security features
  • Ability to host user accounts
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7
Q

What is a graphical user interface often abbreviated as?

A

GUI

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8
Q

What is a command-line interface often abbreviated as?

A

CLI

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9
Q

True or False: An operating system offloads application developers from worrying about hardware management.

A

True

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10
Q

Fill in the blank: The OS talks to the hardware, and __________ talk to the OS.

A

[Applications]

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11
Q

Why is time spent configuring and troubleshooting operating systems considered well spent?

A

If the OS isn’t working right, chances are the applications won’t be working right either.

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12
Q

A grouping of bits, each bit being a 0 or 1 that the CPU treats as a chunk for moving data around, listing memory addresses, doing integer math, and running commands.

A

Word

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13
Q

What are the typical word sizes used in today’s computers?

A

32 or 64 bits.

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14
Q

What advantage does a 64-bit system have over a 32-bit system?

A

More data can move around in the same amount of time, can handle larger amounts of RAM, and can move more information per command.

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15
Q

Where might you still find 32-bit systems?

A

On smaller tablets or older PCs.

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16
Q

What does the term x64 refer to?

A

64-bit designs.

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17
Q

What does the term x86 refer to?

A

32-bit designs.

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18
Q

Can a 32-bit processor run a 64-bit operating system?

A

No.

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19
Q

Can a 64-bit CPU run both 64-bit and 32-bit operating systems?

A

Yes.

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20
Q

What type of device drivers does a 64-bit OS demand?

A

64-bit device drivers.

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21
Q

What type of applications can a 64-bit OS run?

A

Both 64-bit and 32-bit programs.

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22
Q

What is required for a 64-bit application to run?

A

A 64-bit operating system.

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23
Q

Why might someone want a 32-bit version of Windows?

A

To use older hardware that requires a 32-bit driver.

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24
Q

Where can you check the bitness of the operating system and CPU in Windows 10 and 11?

A

In the System tile of the Settings applet.

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25
Q

What happens if you try to do an in-place upgrade from a 32-bit edition to a 64-bit edition?

A

You are not allowed to change the bitness.

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26
Q

What is the maximum address space for a 32-bit operating system?

A

4 GB.

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27
Q

What is the maximum theoretical memory a 64-bit architecture can support?

A

16 EB.

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28
Q

What is the maximum RAM that the 64-bit version of Windows 10 and 11 Pro can accommodate?

A

2 TB.

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29
Q

What is necessary for a lot of memory in a computer?

A

A 64-bit capable CPU and a 64-bit operating system.

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30
Q

Fill in the blank: A bit, or binary digit, can have one of ______ possible values.

A

two

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31
Q

True or False: Windows 11 works on both 32-bit and 64-bit CPUs.

A

False.

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32
Q

A desktop or laptop computer for business use or a computer for technical or scientific use

A

Workstation

Examples include traditional business machines and engineering workstations.

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33
Q

Which operating system has the largest market share for workstations?

A

Microsoft Windows

Followed by Apple’s macOS and various forms of Linux.

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34
Q

When was the first version of Microsoft Windows released?

A

1985

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35
Q

What is a significant limitation of Windows 11 compared to Windows 10?

A

Windows 11 only runs on 64-bit systems and requires 8th generation or newer processors.

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36
Q

What versions of Windows are still available today?

A

Windows 10 in both 32-bit and 64-bit versions

Windows 11 is only available in 64-bit.

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37
Q

Which version of Windows was very popular in the early 2000s?

A

Windows XP

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38
Q

Its tablet-friendly graphical interface did not work well on desktops and laptops.

A

Windows 8

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39
Q

Which version of Windows introduced a new design that was broadly accepted?

A

Windows 10 in 2015

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40
Q

What is the current name of the Mac operating system?

A

macOS

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41
Q

What is a key difference between Windows and macOS in terms of hardware compatibility?

A

macOS only works on Apple hardware.

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42
Q

What significant change occurred in macOS in 2011?

A

Shift to a 64-bit kernel.

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43
Q

What was the last version of macOS to support 32-bit applications?

A

macOS Mojave in 2018.

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44
Q

What is the original inspiration for the Linux operating system?

A

UNIX

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45
Q

What are some desktop GUIs that Linux can use?

A
  • KDE
  • Gnome
  • Unity
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46
Q

What is a notable feature of Linux regarding cost?

A

It is open source and free of charge.

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47
Q

In what year was symmetric multiprocessing introduced to Linux?

A

1996

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48
Q

What is Chrome OS based on?

A

Linux

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49
Q

What type of computers is Chrome OS available on?

A

Chromebooks

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50
Q

What market segment initially popularized Chromebooks?

A

Primary education markets

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51
Q

Which operating system is the basis for Android?

A

Linux

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52
Q

What kind of applications can Chrome OS run?

A
  • Apps from Google Play
  • Linux apps
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53
Q

Which companies produce Chromebooks?

A
  • Hewlett Packard
  • Acer
  • Dell
  • Lenovo
  • Samsung
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54
Q

What is the primary purpose of a mobile operating system compared to a workstation OS?

A

Portability and convenience

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55
Q

What type of support is mandatory for mobile operating systems?

A

Touchscreen support

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56
Q

What design considerations must mobile OS designers focus on due to smaller screen sizes?

A

User interface design

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57
Q

Why must mobile operating systems pay more attention to power drain?

A

Due to the nature of portable devices

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58
Q

What security aspect is heightened in mobile operating systems?

A

Higher security risk

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59
Q

What must mobile devices support for communication?

A

Cellular communications

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60
Q

Which mobile operating system dominates the worldwide market share?

A

Android

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61
Q

Which operating system is second in market share for smartphones?

A

Apple’s iOS

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62
Q

What operating system is known for Apple’s iPads?

A

iPadOS

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63
Q

In what year was iPadOS introduced?

A

2019

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64
Q

How does iPadOS differ from macOS in terms of capabilities?

A
  1. Supports touchscreen capabilities
  2. Split view and multiple instances of the same app
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65
Q

True or False: iPadOS is a variation on the iOS theme.

A

True

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66
Q

What is a key feature of mobile operating systems regarding user interaction?

A

Touchscreen capabilities

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67
Q

Fill in the blank: The worldwide market share of tablet operating systems shows _______ with a bigger piece of the pie.

A

iOS

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68
Q

What aspect of mobile devices contributes to their higher security risk?

A

Portability

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69
Q

What does EOS stand for in the context of operating systems?

A

End of Sale

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70
Q

What happens during the End of Sale (EOS) phase?

A

The vendor stops selling the product, but may continue support

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71
Q

What does EOL stand for?

A

End of Life

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72
Q

Stage of operating system’s life; Manufacturer stops providing support, updates, patches, and fixes

A

End of Life (EOL)

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73
Q

True or false: an operating system is deemed unsuitable for continued business use at EOL because there are no more updates, patches, fixes, or drivers from the manufacturer

A

True

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74
Q

What is meant by mainstream support for an operating system?

A

Includes security patches, feature updates, and quality updates

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75
Q

How long does mainstream support typically last for Windows OS?

A

Five years

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76
Q

What does extended support include?

A

Only security patches

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77
Q

How long is the extended support period for Windows OS?

A

Typically five years

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78
Q

Can an operating system lose support before reaching EOS or EOL?

A

Yes, based on business considerations

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79
Q

What might lead to an operating system losing support before EOS or EOL?

A

Very low market share

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80
Q

What factors must IT professionals consider when ensuring compatibility across different versions of an OS from the same manufacturer?

A
  1. Antivirus and anti‑malware software
  2. Utilities (e.g., disk optimizers)
  3. Applications (some may work on one version but not another)
  4. Device drivers (often specific to version and architecture)
  5. 32‑bit vs. 64‑bit differences
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81
Q

Why might a device driver work on one version of an operating system but not another?

A

Because device drivers are often written for a specific OS version and architecture (32‑bit or 64‑bit). A driver that works on one may be incompatible with the other.

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82
Q

What is a common restriction when upgrading Windows from one edition to another?

A

You generally cannot upgrade from a more powerful edition of Windows to a less powerful edition (e.g., from Windows 10 Pro to Windows 10 Home).

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83
Q

How do Windows and macOS differ with respect to file system compatibility?

A

They have different native file systems with features that don’t always translate between platforms. While some compatibility exists, many file system attributes and utilities are not cross‑compatible.

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84
Q

Do all applications work seamlessly across different operating systems?

A

Not necessarily. Some apps have cross‑platform versions, but they may have different features, interfaces, or release schedules on each platform

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85
Q

What is the compatibility concern with device drivers between different operating systems?

A

Device drivers are OS‑specific and generally won’t work on a different operating system due to fundamental architectural and API differences.

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86
Q

Is Apple hardware limited to running macOS?

A

macOS officially only runs on Apple hardware. However, virtualization tools (like Parallels) allow running Windows on a Mac, providing a form of cross‑platform functionality.

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87
Q

What Windows File System is:
*Ideal for large flash/external drives
*Supports high‑capacity storage
*Widely compatible outside of Windows

A

ExFAT (Extended File Allocation Table)

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88
Q

What Windows File System is:
*Older but broadly compatible
*Works well on smaller drives
*Limited to 4 GB file size

A

FAT32

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89
Q

What Windows File System is:
*Common for internal Windows drives
*Supports file permissions and security
*Used for both HDDs and SSDs

A

NTFS (New Technology File System)

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90
Q

What Windows File System is:
*Resilient File System based on NTFS
*Offers extra reliability and data protection
*Primarily used on Windows servers and specialized storage setups

A

ReFS (Resilient File System)

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91
Q

What Windows File System is:
*for CD data and audio tracks
*Works on both Windows and macOS

A

CDFS (Compact Disc File System)

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92
Q

What macOS and Linux File System is:
*Used in UNIX, Linux, and macOS environments
*Facilitates file sharing across networks

A

NFS (Network File System)

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93
Q

What macOS and Linux File System is:
*A native Linux file systems
*4 is newer, supports huge file sizes, offers better performance and reliability
*Often the default on modern Linux distributions

A

ext3 and ext4

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94
Q

What macOS and Linux File System is:
*Older default file system for Macs
*Largely superseded by APFS

A

HFS+ (Hierarchical File System Plus; Mac OS Extended)

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95
Q

Apple’s legacy file system for macOS, gradually replaced by APFS for better performance.

A

HFS+ (Hierarchical File System Plus; Mac OS Extended)

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96
Q

What macOS and Linux File System is:
*Newer macOS file system
*Optimized for SSDs
*Provides better performance and reliability compared to HFS+

A

APFS (Apple File System)

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97
Q

Apple’s modern file system focusing on efficiency, especially for solid‑state storage.

A

APFS (Apple File System)

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98
Q

journaling file systems for Linux, with ext4 offering increased capacity, speed, and stability.

A

ext3 and ext4

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99
Q

a distributed file system protocol enabling networked file sharing among UNIX‑like and macOS systems.

A

NFS (Network File System)

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100
Q

File system type used to read data and audio tracks from CDs, commonly supported by multiple operating systems.

A

CDFS (Compact Disc File System)

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101
Q

File system type that is built on NTFS fundamentals, adding advanced fault tolerance and scalability for server environments

A

ReFS (Resilient File System)

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102
Q

the default Windows file system offering robust security features and reliability for fixed drives.

A

NTFS (New Technology File System)

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103
Q

a legacy file system compatible with most OSs but restricts individual file sizes to 4 GB.

A

FAT32

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104
Q

a Microsoft file system designed for large external storage media and broad cross‑platform compatibility

A

ExFAT (Extended File Allocation Table)

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105
Q

What type of file systems are:
*Readable by Windows, macOS, and Linux
*Useful for sharing data across different operating systems
*neither supports Apple’s Time Machine

A

ExFAT and FAT32

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106
Q

What is the main difference between a 32‑bit and 64‑bit operating system?

A

*64‑bit OS can address much more RAM
*Generally offers better performance and efficiency
*32‑bit OS has lower memory limits

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107
Q

OS Type that power desktops/laptops with advanced functionality; robust features, multi‑user capabilities, broad hardware support

A

Workstation OSs

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108
Q

OS type that is streamlined for tablets and smartphones; optimized for touch interfaces, lower power usage, and integrated connectivity

A

mobile OSs

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109
Q

tracks an operating system from launch to end of support, influencing maintenance, upgrades, and overall compatibility; Compatibility affects security updates, driver availability, and software functionality

A

OS product lifecycle

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110
Q

oversees hardware resources, schedules processes, manages drivers, and secures user access; includes:
*CPU/memory management
*Process scheduling
*Device drivers/hardware interfacing
*Networking and user account security

A

operating system

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111
Q

What part of an OS:
*Affects max file sizes, security features, and cross‑platform compatibility
*Impacts system performance and data integrity
*Determines how backups and permissions are managed

A

File system type

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112
Q

*Flexible file organization
*Combines multiple folders into one view
*Introduced in Windows 7, but still used in Windows 10 and 11
Example: user’s documents + public documents

A

Libraries

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113
Q

provides a user‑friendly interface for configuring common devices and printers, building on underlying Device Manager functions; first introduced in Windows 7, still used in Windows 10 and 11

A

Devices and Printers Control Panel

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114
Q

helps secure Windows by running even administrator accounts in standard mode until an action demands higher privileges; first introduced in Vista, later Windows 7 made less intrusive

A

User Account Control (UAC)

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115
Q

Microsoft’s built‑in encryption tool that protects data on both fixed and removable drives, offering multiple unlock methods including password and smartcard unlocking

A

Bitlocker

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116
Q

automatically adjust the firewall rules based on the type of network you connect to (corporate, private, or public)

A

Firewall Profiles

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117
Q

*Remote VPN alternative
*Seamlessly connects client PCs to corporate networks
*Improved user experience over traditional VPNs

A

DirectAccess

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118
Q

a caching solution that stores copies of remote data in branch offices, accelerating file retrieval and reducing WAN congestion

A

BranchCache

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119
Q

gives administrators finer control over application execution, helping secure corporate environments by restricting unauthorized software

A

AppLocker

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120
Q

In which Windows versions was the Start menu changed?

A

8 and 8.1 and then again in 10/11

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121
Q

Windows version that focused on touch‑first design and fullscreen “Modern” apps; it controversially removed the traditional Start button/menu that reappears (in some form) in later versions of Windows

A

Windows 8

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122
Q

In Windows 8: *“Metro”/Modern/Store apps → for touch devices
*Introduced the Microsoft Store
*Carried forward into Windows 10/11 as “Store Apps” or “Universal Apps”

A

Modern Apps

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123
Q

a gesture‑driven menu in Windows 8 and 8.1. It disappeared in later OS versions, reflecting Microsoft’s shift away from purely touch‑centric UI elements.

A

Charms Bar

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124
Q

updates to this first appeared in 8/8.1. They carry on to Windows 10/11, providing convenient file backups and a more modern Explorer interface

A

File History and File Explorer

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125
Q

Windows version that tried to bridge the gap for traditional desktop users by restoring a visible Start button and refining Modern apps, setting the stage for further UI refinements in later Windows versions

A

Windows 8.1

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126
Q

Windows versions that serve as stepping stones for modern Windows features (like user account control, encryption, and the Microsoft Store)

A

Windows 8/8.1

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127
Q

Windows version that debuted in 2015 where extended support ends late 2025; Hybrid UI (mix of Win7 Start + Win8 tiles)

A

Windows 10

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128
Q

Windows version that introduced a blended Start menu, voice‑enabled Cortana (now optional), and “Universal” apps that run across multiple Windows devices

A

Windows 10

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129
Q

Windows 10 came with a new browser that later replaced Internet Explorer, and has more advanced tab management. What is the name of this browser

A

Edge

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130
Q

Utility in Windows 10 that centralizes system/app messages and includes handy quick actions

A

Action Center

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131
Q

Windows 10 let users group running apps on different desktop “spaces.” What are these called?

A

Virtual Desktops

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132
Q

In Windows 10, offers a fullscreen Start environment for 2‑in‑1 or tablet devices

A

Tablet mode

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133
Q

This Windows 10 addition adds built‑in biometric support (camera or fingerprint)

A

Windows Hello

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134
Q

Introduced in Windows 10; protects against pass‑the‑hash attacks

A

Credential Guard

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135
Q

Introduced in Windows 10; restricts apps via digital signatures

A

Device Guard

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136
Q

brings server‑like virtualization to Windows 10 Pro/Enterprise

A

Client Hyper‑V

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137
Q

This aspect of Windows provided frequent, incremental “feature updates.” Although Microsoft first claimed Win10 would be the final version, Windows 11’s release changed that plan.

A

Windows 10 Upgrade Model

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138
Q

Windows version that adds a more macOS‑like interface, integrated Teams, widgets (reminiscent of Vista’s sidebar), and Android app support. Hardware requirements are higher

A

Windows 11

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139
Q

This version of Windows’ UI shifts the Start menu to the center, revamps the Settings layout, and removes some legacy items (Internet Explorer, 32‑bit OS editions, etc.)

A

Windows 11

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140
Q

Which type of use (personal or corporate) require an OS that is consistent across departments, easy to train/support, securely manages data, and can scale to new users/locations (e.g., domain networking, enterprise features).

A

Corporate

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141
Q

Which type of use (personal or corporate) includes features such as domain networking in Windows, Auditing for troubleshooting, BitLocker/EFS for encryption, and password policies and are commonly sold via volume licensing, not retail?

A

Corporate/Business Editions

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142
Q

Which type of use (personal or corporate) offers simpler setup (e.g., workgroup vs. domain), customizable UI, plus tools for media playback and easy device portability

A

Personal

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143
Q

Which Edition of Windows 10/11 is required for the use of BitLocker which secures entire drives (tied to the machine), while EFS encrypts on a per‑user, per‑folder basis

A

Pro Edition or above

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144
Q

Which Edition of Windows 10/11 lacks corporate tools like domain join and some advanced security settings. They focus on personal use, with simpler default configurations and fewer administrative capabilities.

A

Home Editions

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145
Q

Windows edition that targets consumers, limiting hardware support, domain functionality, and advanced administration (like Group Policy or inbound RDP). It enforces a Microsoft account during installation.

A

Home Edition

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146
Q

Windows Edition that has a max of 128 GB RAM, 1 CPU

A

Home Edition

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147
Q

Windows Edition that supports higher RAM/CPU limits, domain networking (both on‑prem and Azure AD), built‑in encryption options (BitLocker, EFS), and robust virtualization features

A

Pro Edition

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148
Q

Windows Edition that has a max of up to 2 TB RAM, 2 CPUs

A

Pro Edition

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149
Q

Windows Edition that is optimized for demanding tasks (e.g., scientific/engineering). It allows larger hardware configs, the Resilient File System (ReFS), and high‑speed networking (SMB Direct)

A

Pro Workstation

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150
Q

Windows Edition that caters to larger organizations with advanced security (e.g., Credential Guard, AppLocker) and remote connectivity (DirectAccess). LTSC versions skip feature updates, focusing on stability

A

Enterprise Edition

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151
Q

Windows Edition that has Enterprise‑level features typically deployed by volume licensing. Omit certain consumer tools like Cortana and add specialized setup options

A

Education Editions

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152
Q

Upgrade type that generally allows the upgrade from a “lesser” to a “higher” edition; for example Home to Pro, but not Home to Enterprise directly; allows you to perform an upgrade without doing a full backup and restore

A

In-Place Upgrade

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153
Q

What is the CLI cmd for an in-place upgrade?

A

CHANGEPK.EXE

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154
Q

What CLI cmd can you use in order to view the edition of Windows you are running?

A

winver

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155
Q

This type of install involves booting from external media (USB, DVD) or a network source. Lets you partition and format the drive as desired before installing the OS; common scenario: shiny new computer with no OS

A

Clean Install

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156
Q

Type of install that works when dealing with corruption or infections, re‑installing the OS from scratch or applying a corporate image can be faster than lengthy troubleshooting—just ensure you backup and verify data first

A

Clean install

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157
Q

Install type that runs setup on the current OS, installs the new OS, and preserves existing applications and data. It’s faster but can leave behind unnecessary files, permissions, or partial configurations. Common scenario is on an existing OS & apps/data to keep

A

in-place upgrade

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158
Q

Advantage of this type of install is speed because there is no reinstallation of apps, but the disadvantage is leftover files/settings, possible permission inconsistencies

A

In-place upgrade

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159
Q

This type of install wipes the existing environment. Advantage is that there are no leftover files but a disadvantage is that it requires data migration and app reinstallation

A

Clean install

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160
Q

Type of install that comes preloaded with apps, settings, security configurations, but wipes the drive first to eliminate old problems; often done in bulk and ensures uniformity

A

Imaging

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161
Q

A command‑line utility to back up user profiles, docs, and app settings before a clean install; offers enterprise‑grade user data migration.

A

USMT (User State Migration Tool)

162
Q

Type of install category where you troubleshoot, or rather attempt detailed manual fixes

163
Q

Type of install category where you wipe and reinstall

164
Q

This type of setup puts more than one OS on a single PC, isolating them on separate partitions. Although this approach avoids conflicts, it’s less common today due to virtual machines and requires rebooting to swap OSes.

165
Q

Installation type that automates OS deployment in places without on‑site tech staff. They rely on answer files (pre-filled config) or management tools like Configuration Manager or Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT).

A

Remote or unattended installs

166
Q

These help create either fully or semi‑automated Windows installations. They streamline setup steps, reducing or eliminating prompts for the end user

A

Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) and answer files

167
Q

a free Microsoft utility that creates OS install media. It’s ideal for offline or low‑bandwidth deployments, letting remote users upgrade with a flash drive or DVD.

A

Media Creation Tool for Windows

168
Q

Installation type that allows a client to boot from network media, retrieve a WIM image, and install the OS.

A

PXE/NetBoot environment (Network)

169
Q

sends one OS image to many machines simultaneously, saving bandwidth.

A

Multicasting

170
Q

Must do the following hardware checks: CPU gen, RAM, Disk space before this type of installation

A

In-place upgrade

171
Q

to load firmware code and then OS code (from media or network) into RAM, where such code can then manage device startup and reach a usable state

172
Q

means that a computer’s firmware connects to a server to load a boot program into RAM - then can install on OS

A

PXE Boot (Pre-boot eXecution Environment

173
Q

a start from a zero-power state

174
Q

a restart without a power cycle

175
Q

What is the fastest media to boot from?

176
Q

What is the slowest media to boot from?

A

Optical drive

177
Q

Which two media are best for daily run boot scenarios?

A

SSD and internal hard drive

178
Q

a container of storage: a distinct allocation of disk space that can be formatted with a file system and managed separately from others

179
Q

What are non-bootable partitions often called?

A

Data partitions

180
Q

Tools like Disk Management (Windows), DISKPART (Windows), Powershell, and Disk Utility (macOS) allow you to do this

A

Partition a disk

181
Q

Partition type that works with BIOS, most OSs, has 4 partitions max, and 2 TB per partition max

A

MBR (Master Boot Record)

182
Q

Partition type that works with UEFI, newer OSs, 128 partitions max (Windows), and 18 EB per partition max (Windows), and requires a 64-bit Windows

A

GPT (GUID Partition Table)

183
Q

What can you do to MBR or GPT partitions with Disk Management, DISKPART, and PowerShell?

184
Q

What can you do with MBR and GPT with DISKPART, PowerShell and 3rd-party tools?

A

convert between

185
Q

How many partitions does BitLocker require?

A

At least 2

186
Q

How large are EFI system partitions?

A

Usually 100MB

187
Q

How large are OEM recovery partition sizes?

A

they can vary in size

188
Q

A space allocated from one or more partitions on one or more disks that has been configured by the OS and formatted with a file system; can be simple (single disk) or complex (multiple disks) and are specific to the OS and generally not accessible to other OSs

189
Q

a system for naming, placing, and organizing files on a volume so they can be written, read, copied, deleted, etc.

A

File System

190
Q

process that prepares a volume for a specific file system that generally wipes everything in the volume

A

Formatting

191
Q

Which file systems would you NOT choose if you are looking for access controls (permissions)

A

ExFAT and FAT32, because they lack this feature

192
Q

A Windows network infrastructure where computers and user accounts are centrally managed for security, updates, and configuration consistency.

193
Q

A major Windows update that adds or removes new functionalities, historically released semi‑annually for Windows 10 and once a year for Windows 11.

A

Feature Update

194
Q

The Windows scheduling system by which organizations can defer or delay feature updates, allowing time to test changes before deploying them broadly

A

Semi‑Annual Channel (formerly Current Branch/Current Branch for Business)

195
Q

A specialized branch of Windows Enterprise that opts out of new features for up to 10 years, focusing on stability and consistency over time.

A

Long‑Term Servicing Channel (LTSC)

196
Q

These are monthly (or more frequent) Windows patches that focus on security and reliability, independent of new feature rollouts

A

Quality Updates

197
Q

A security mechanism introduced in Windows Vista that helps prevent elevated privileges from being misused by default, prompting the user for consent or credentials for admin tasks.

A

User Account Control (UAC)

198
Q

A shell interface for executing text-based commands, typically faster for power users, highly scriptable, and consistent across Windows versions, but error-prone for typos.

A

Command Prompt (cmd.exe)

199
Q

The default user context when running a command‑line session in Windows if the user is an administrator but not actively performing an elevated task

A

Standard (Low‑Privilege) Context

200
Q

The advanced mode in Command Prompt or PowerShell that grants access to system-level operations, requiring UAC consent or admin credentials to launch.

A

Elevated Command Prompt

201
Q

A quick reference parameter that reveals syntax, parameters, and a short description of a Windows command, typically displayed in the command‑line interface.

A

/? (Help Parameter)

202
Q

A Windows 11 application that can open multiple shells (including cmd.exe) in tabs, providing an all‑in‑one interface for command‑line tools and PowerShell.

A

Windows Terminal

203
Q

Command to list the contents of the current drive or folder, often customized with switches like /a (attributes), /s (subdirectories), /o (ordering), etc.

204
Q

A parameter style (e.g., /a:h) used to modify a base command by specifying details such as which file attributes to show or how to order results.

A

Command‑line Switch (Parameter/Qualifier)

205
Q

Changes the current working directory, with the ability to move up one folder level by appending “..” or switch drives with “/d.”

A

cd (Change Directory)

206
Q

The syntax for accessing or switching to another local disk volume, making that volume the active context for subsequent commands.

A

Drive Letter + Colon
(Example: D:)

207
Q

A command that displays the name of the local machine on which the current command‑line session is running.

208
Q

A command that shows or modifies the current network interface configuration, with parameters such as /all, /release, /renew, /flushdns, and /displaydns.

209
Q

A utility for testing connectivity to remote systems, using ICMP echo requests and replies to check reachability. Often blocked by firewalls.

210
Q

Displays each router hop between the local machine and a specified target, useful for diagnosing routing paths.

A

tracert (Windows) or traceroute (non‑Windows)

211
Q

Similar to tracert, but provides more detailed path analysis and statistics about packet loss at each hop in a network path.

212
Q

Shows open or listening ports and current network connections on the local PC, used to troubleshoot active sessions.

213
Q

A high‑level Windows command with subcommands like use (for drive mappings) or user (for account management), affecting both local and domain resources.

214
Q

A command commonly pronounced “net shell,” featuring multiple subcommands to configure IP addresses, Wi‑Fi, proxy, caching, and more at a low level.

215
Q

A DNS lookup tool that returns the hostname for a given IP (reverse lookup) or the IP for a hostname (forward lookup).

216
Q

A scriptable Windows command-line utility for creating, resizing, and managing disk partitions, used similarly to the GUI Disk Management tool.

217
Q

Command used to prepare or initialize a partition for a file system, erasing existing data in the process.

218
Q

Verifies the integrity of the file system on a disk and can fix errors or locate bad sectors when run with /f or /r parameters.

219
Q

A command that creates a new subdirectory (folder) on a formatted disk, functioning as the opposite of rd (remove directory).

A

md (make directory)

220
Q

A file-copying tool that also can merge multiple files into one and offers switches like /v (verify) and /y (skip overwrite prompts).

221
Q

Once heralded as an improved file‑copy command but now deprecated. Microsoft recommends using robocopy instead.

222
Q

A robust folder replication command that preserves NTFS permissions, can mirror directories, and skips identical files to speed transfers.

223
Q

A command that terminates running processes on either a local or remote system, useful when an application is locked up and won’t close normally.

224
Q

Allows you to power off or restart a local or remote computer from the command line, typically using the /r switch to reboot immediately or with a specified delay.

225
Q

Scans for and repairs corrupted or missing system files in Windows; run with scannow or verifyonly parameters at an elevated command prompt.

A

sfc (System File Checker)

226
Q

A GUI utility (launchable via cmd.exe) that checks whether device drivers carry valid digital signatures, generating a log of any unsigned or questionable drivers.

A

sigverif (Signature Verification Tool)

227
Q

A versatile utility to build, modify, and maintain Windows imaging files (WIM), commonly used when creating or servicing custom OS deployment images.

A

dism (Deployment Image Servicing and Management)

228
Q

Displays a small dialog with details on which Windows edition, version, and build number you’re currently running.

229
Q

The modern successor to Command Prompt, providing both interactive administration features and the ability to run powerful scripts in Windows.

A

PowerShell

230
Q

A safety measure determining whether only digitally signed scripts or any script can be executed, configured in Windows’ security settings.

A

Execution Policy

231
Q

The core PowerShell command format typically consisting of a verb followed by a noun (e.g., Get‑Service, Set‑Process), extended by parameters.

A

Cmdlet Syntax

232
Q

A mechanism that routes the output of one cmdlet as the input to another cmdlet, represented by the vertical bar (|) symbol.

233
Q

A PowerShell command that filters objects in a pipeline based on a specified condition, often using a block with curly braces ({}).

A

where‑object

234
Q

A variable indicator in PowerShell, placed before a name to store or reference data

A

Dollar Sign ($)

235
Q

The integrated environment for authoring, testing, and debugging PowerShell scripts in Windows, featuring autocomplete and built‑in help.

A

PowerShell ISE (Integrated Scripting Environment)

236
Q

A versatile parameter in PowerShell that provides details, examples, or advanced usage instructions for a given cmdlet

A

Get‑Help

237
Q

A Windows framework (executable: mmc.exe) that hosts multiple snap‑in modules, providing a unified environment for system administration.

A

Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

238
Q

Modular administrative components with an .msc extension that plug into the MMC, each offering specialized system configuration or monitoring.

239
Q

A default Windows “master console” bringing together Task Scheduler, Device Manager, Disk Management, Shared Folders, and more under one interface.

A

Computer Management (compmgmt.msc)

240
Q

A centralized location for advanced admin utilities in Windows 10; renamed to “Windows Tools” in Windows 11.

A

Administrative Tools

241
Q

A system utility that schedules tasks or programs to run automatically, triggered by specific intervals, user logons, or system events.

A

Task Scheduler (TASKSCHD.MSC)

242
Q

An MMC snap‑in showing directories shared over the network, including hidden administrative shares like C$ and ADMIN$.

A

Shared Folders (FSMGMT.MSC)

243
Q

Part of Computer Management that creates and manages user and group accounts on the local machine, independent of domain accounts.

A

Local Users and Groups (LUSRMGR.MSC)

244
Q

Displays all hardware devices and drivers recognized by Windows, showing issues as yellow icons and disabled devices as black arrows.

A

Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC)

245
Q

Used to partition, format, mount, and manage disk volumes; often accessed through the Computer Management console.

A

Disk Management (DISKMGMT.MSC)

246
Q

The Windows capability to point an MMC console at another machine on the network for remote monitoring and configuration, if firewall and services allow

247
Q

A subset of Group Policy settings that govern password policies, account rules, and other security options for the local system when not domain‑joined.

A

Local Security Policy (SECPOL.MSC)

248
Q

A broader interface (gpedit.msc) providing hundreds of local Windows policy settings, including security configurations and system component controls.

A

Local Group Policy Editor

249
Q

An MMC console (certmgr.msc) for managing user‑level certificates, trusted CAs, and more; crucial for secure websites and encrypted communications.

A

Certificate Manager

250
Q

A separate console (certlm.msc) that displays certificates assigned to the computer itself rather than to individual user profiles.

A

Local Machine Certificates

251
Q

A tool for overseeing local and remote printers, including network‑based print servers; often used to monitor status, troubleshoot, or deploy printers via Group Policy.

A

Print Management (PRINTMANAGEMENT.MSC)

252
Q

The MMC version of Microsoft’s built‑in, bidirectional network security feature, enabling inbound/outbound rules and IPsec configuration for added protection.

A

Windows Defender Firewall (WF.MSC)

253
Q

A legacy Windows utility (msconfig.exe) that can launch various admin tools for troubleshooting, such as system services, startup programs, and more.

A

System Configuration (MSConfig)

254
Q

A collection of repair utilities used when Windows cannot start normally, accessible via the OS install media or a specialized recovery disk.

A

Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)

255
Q

An MMC console showing logs of application, security, system, setup, and custom events that help track errors, warnings, and informational messages

A

Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)

256
Q

An extensive set of Windows logs located under Applications and Services, revealing detailed event data for specific features like Group Policy or device setups.

A

Applications and Services Logs (in Event Viewer)

257
Q

A Windows logging functionality that can collect logs from multiple machines into a single system, using event subscriptions and forwarded events.

A

Event Forwarding

258
Q

A node in the Computer Management console that shows and controls scheduled or on‑demand routines for collecting performance data, and can display real‑time or logged metrics.

A

Performance Monitor (PERFMON.MSC)

259
Q

An MMC console within Computer Management that lists each installed background service and allows start, stop, or configuration of how each service runs.

A

Services (SERVICES.MSC)

260
Q

A place in the Control Panel or the Windows Tools list that unifies multiple built‑in administrative consoles. Not strictly a single console, but a launch point for many troubleshooting utilities.

A

Administrative Tools (Windows 10) / Windows Tools (Windows 11)

261
Q

A monitoring utility in the Computer Management console that tracks CPU, disk, memory, and network usage, providing real‑time or logged performance data.

A

Performance Monitor

262
Q

Displays background programs Windows can start automatically at boot, showing status, startup type, and dependencies, and allowing admins to stop or restart them.

A

Services Console

263
Q

A utility (msconfig.exe) for adjusting boot settings (including Safe Mode), launching troubleshooting tools, and disabling/enabling startup items in older Windows versions.

A

System Configuration (MSConfig)

264
Q

A set of Windows wizards that diagnose and attempt to resolve issues with hardware, networking, audio, printing, and more, accessible from Settings or MSConfig.

A

Windows Troubleshooting

264
Q

A read‑only tool (msinfo32) that displays detailed information about hardware, BIOS version, environment variables, and other system data.

A

System Information

265
Q

An in‑depth, real‑time performance tracking tool for CPU, memory, disk, and network usage, showing which processes are consuming which resources.

A

Resource Monitor

266
Q

Shows running processes, startup impact, resource usage (CPU, memory, etc.), and can terminate rogue processes or launch Resource Monitor for deeper analysis.

A

Task Manager

267
Q

A raw, low‑level Windows configuration database editor that modifies thousands of system and user settings directly—caution advised due to no undo.

A

Registry Editor (regedit)

268
Q

A Windows feature that stores system snapshots (not user files) so you can revert the OS, drivers, and registry settings back to a previous working state.

A

System Restore

269
Q

A Windows utility for defragmenting or optimizing disks, improving performance by rearranging file fragments—especially useful for spinning HDDs.

A

Optimize Drives (Defragment and Optimize Drives)

270
Q

An automatic weekly process on Windows that checks drive fragmentation, though in practice it may fail to run as scheduled, requiring manual checks.

A

Scheduled Optimization

271
Q

A built‑in Windows tool used to remove unnecessary files (e.g., temporary files, recycle bin, update leftovers) to reclaim storage space.

A

Disk Cleanup (cleanmgr.exe)

272
Q

In Disk Cleanup, a button that triggers deeper system file removal analysis, showing additional items like outdated restore points or update files.

A

Clean up system files

273
Q

A more thorough disk cleanup step that can remove large data like old service packs, leftover update files, or all but the latest system restore point.

A

Advanced (System) Cleanup

274
Q

A Disk Cleanup option that uninstalls unused programs or deletes all but the most recent Windows restore point, saving more space at the expense of rollback potential.

A

More Options Tab

275
Q

A reference to the standard spinning disk drive format, which is more prone to fragmentation, making defragging and optimization significantly beneficial.

A

HDD (Hard Disk Drive)

276
Q

A newer storage technology less impacted by fragmentation, still recognized by Optimize Drives though usually optimized differently than traditional spinning drives.

A

SSD (Solid-State Drive)

277
Q

A long‑standing Windows interface for system configuration, offering classic tabbed dialogs and both Category or Icon views, mostly focused on desktop/laptop usage.

A

Control Panel

278
Q

A more modern, touch‑friendly Windows interface that debuted in Windows 8 and continues to evolve, gradually replacing old Control Panel functions.

A

Settings Applet

279
Q

A Windows environment in which certain user configuration pages are locked or inaccessible because administrative policies have been enforced centrally.

A

Domain/MDM Restrictions

280
Q

Allows users to type multi‑key combinations (like Ctrl+Alt+Del) by pressing each key in sequence rather than all at once.

A

Sticky Keys

281
Q

Sounds an audible alert whenever the Caps Lock, Num Lock, or Scroll Lock key is pressed, preventing accidental activation.

A

Toggle Keys

282
Q

Ignores or slows down repeated keystrokes and very short key presses to assist users with unsteady hands or rapid key presses.

A

Filter Keys

283
Q

Displays shortcut underlines or hints in dialog boxes and menus, showing what keystrokes you can press to make a selection.

A

Access Keys

284
Q

A newer Windows feature that integrates with compatible hardware to let the user control the on‑screen cursor and keyboard via eye‑tracking devices.

A

Eye Control

285
Q

A Windows feature restricting local searches to designated folders, though it can be expanded to include the entire PC (with potential performance impacts).

A

Search Indexer / Indexing Options

286
Q

A link in Settings that launches the older Control Panel for fine-grained inclusion/exclusion of directories, file types, and whether to index file contents.

A

Advanced Search Indexer Settings

287
Q

Balancing CPU speed and hardware resources versus energy use, especially relevant for extending battery life on laptops.

A

Power Management

288
Q

A set of prebuilt system configurations in Windows that specify behaviors for sleep, display timeout, and CPU throttling, e.g., Balanced, Power Saver, and High Performance.

A

Power Plans

289
Q

A Control Panel that defines system behavior for lid closure, power buttons, and advanced hardware power settings, often accessible through the Balanced/High Performance plan interface.

A

Power Options

290
Q

Windows feature toggles, including Hyper‑V, IIS, and other built-in software components, which can be enabled/disabled but are already present on disk.

A

Turn Windows features on or off

291
Q

A Control Panel tool used to uninstall or repair installed software, or enable optional OS features, historically found in Add/Remove Programs.

A

Programs and Features

292
Q

The newer Settings interface that replaces some Control Panel functionality, used for uninstalling or resetting installed apps, plus installing certain “Optional features.”

A

Apps & features (Settings)

293
Q

A legacy but still comprehensive Windows Control Panel that centralizes network settings and adapter options, accessible from both Settings and Taskbar network icons.

A

Network and Sharing Center

294
Q

Allows you to create, configure, or troubleshoot network connections, toggle visibility on LANs, and modify file/print sharing preferences

A

Change adapter settings & advanced sharing settings
(in Network and Sharing Center)

295
Q

A Control Panel for browser security, privacy, content settings, and add‑on management, historically affecting Internet Explorer and partially Edge.

A

Internet Options

296
Q

A method of taking control of a remote PC with no concurrent local session, disabled by default, and managed under System > Remote Desktop in Settings.

A

Remote Desktop

297
Q

A list or group setting that designates who can connect to a remote system via the Remote Desktop protocol, found under the Remote Desktop page.

A

Select users that can remotely access this PC

298
Q

A Control Panel utility enabling local caching of shared network folders on a Windows PC, letting users synchronize offline copies with the server.

A

Sync Center

299
Q

A feature in Sync Center that ensures the local file and network file match, especially useful when reconnecting after being offline.

A

Manage offline files / force synchronization

300
Q

The built‑in method of acquiring and installing Windows security patches and reliability updates, accessible through Settings and often governed by domain policy.

A

Windows Update

301
Q

A consolidated interface for managing Windows Defender Antivirus, firewall, SmartScreen, device security, and more, often located next to Windows Update in Settings.

A

Windows Security

302
Q

A Control Panel for altering local credentials, creating standard vs. admin accounts, and linking over to the Settings-based biometric login options.

A

User Accounts

303
Q

A feature that encrypts drives so that data remains unreadable if the disk is removed, typically leveraging a TPM chip to store encryption keys.

304
Q

Also called Restore Points, it allows Windows to revert to a previously saved system state if files or registry entries get corrupted or infected.

A

System Protection

305
Q

A user‑friendly interface for enabling or disabling the built‑in firewall across three profiles (Domain, Private, Public) without drilling into advanced MMC rules.

A

Windows Defender Firewall (Control Panel)

306
Q

A more granular console (in an MMC) for configuring inbound/outbound rules and IPsec policies, launched from Windows Defender Firewall’s “Advanced settings.”

A

Windows Firewall with Advanced Security (MMC)

307
Q

A Windows Security module controlling account sign‑in methods (e.g., biometrics), plus network sign‑in options, often integrated with Windows Hello features.

A

Account Protection

308
Q

A Windows feature that automatically detects and installs new hardware drivers, reducing manual setup by matching devices to entries in the local driver store.

A

Plug‑and‑Play

309
Q

A tile in Windows Settings that manages Bluetooth, printers, and other peripheries, offering a “Devices and printers” link that opens a more traditional interface.

A

Devices (Settings Tile)

310
Q

A control panel that organizes printers, multimedia gadgets, and peripheral items in a user‑friendly view, often used for basic printer setup and removal.

A

Devices and Printers

311
Q

Provides a comprehensive list of recognized system hardware, grouping devices by category, and enabling driver updates, uninstalls, or resource configuration.

A

Device Manager

312
Q

A panel showing audio output/playback and input/recording devices, allowing configuration of default devices, levels, enhancements, and other sound settings.

A

Sound Control Panel

313
Q

Found under Windows’ System category in Settings, it supports choosing default input/output devices and linking to the more detailed Sound Control Panel if needed.

A

Sound Settings (in System)

314
Q

An advanced configuration screen accessed via Settings > System > About, letting you adjust system performance, environment variables, and user profiles, among others.

A

Advanced system settings (System Control Panel)

315
Q

Disk space used as “backup RAM” when installed memory is insufficient, which can be auto-managed by Windows or set manually for potential performance tweaks.

316
Q

Enterprise-level tools like Group Policy and Intune that lock or preset certain system options, preventing users from making local changes in Settings or Control Panel.

A

Configuration Management

317
Q

Reflects whether an application demands a certain CPU speed, architecture (32‑bit vs. 64‑bit), and generation or core count (e.g., quad‑core minimum).

A

CPU Requirements

318
Q

Specifies which operating system version/build an app supports (e.g., Windows 10 21H2), distinguishing between 32‑bit or 64‑bit editions.

A

OS Requirements

319
Q

The storage space an application needs to install and maintain data over time, sometimes split between Program Files and hidden user folders (AppData).

A

Disk Space Requirements

320
Q

The difference between “just enough to run” hardware specs and “enough to run comfortably,” which can greatly affect performance and user satisfaction.

A

Minimum vs. Recommended Specs

321
Q

For graphics‑intensive apps, hardware demands such as GPU model, DirectX version, and the amount or type (dedicated vs. shared) of graphics memory.

A

Graphics / VRAM Requirements

322
Q

Ensures the local environment (RAM, disk space) can handle partial workloads (e.g., caches, temp files) even if the primary app is cloud‑hosted.

A

Local Resource Usage for Cloud Apps

323
Q

A readme file, product website, or store listing containing an app’s CPU, OS, disk, and GPU needs — essential for checking compatibility before installation.

A

Locating Application Requirements

324
Q

An approach where you install the program on a test machine first; it may auto‑check prerequisites and alert you if CPU, RAM, or disk capacity is insufficient.

A

Trial Installation / Prerequisite Checking

325
Q

Refers to installing software via physical media (e.g., DVD or USB), or a locally mounted ISO image, especially useful in poor network conditions or for one‑off setups.

A

Local Installation

326
Q

A container file that mirrors a DVD’s content. Once mounted by the OS, it behaves like a physical disc, enabling faster installs without optical hardware.

327
Q

An approach used by organizations to host setup files or leverage tools like Microsoft Configuration Manager/Intune so users can install apps over the company’s internal network.

A

LAN‑Based Installation

328
Q

Involves downloading or streaming the installer from the internet, possibly requiring authentication (e.g., Microsoft account) and relaxed firewall rules or antivirus settings.

A

Cloud‑Based Installation

329
Q

It is best practice of reading official documentation (also known as this) to learn about OS prerequisites, old version removal instructions, and any unique install steps.

A

Release Notes / README Files

330
Q

Typically performed before installing or updating software to ensure a way to revert changes if something goes wrong (e.g., creating restore points or backups).

A

Fallback Position / Recovery Plan

331
Q

Checking for malicious payloads in installer files (especially when temporarily disabling antivirus) to avoid infection during or after installation.

A

Malware Scanning

332
Q

Centralized enterprise utilities that can automate and control application deployment across multiple systems, such as Intune or Endpoint Configuration Manager.

A

Enterprise Deployment Tools

333
Q

The process of verifying setup success by reading installer results, searching for error or warning strings that might point to future issues.

A

Installer Log Review

334
Q

The higher‑level privileges typically required to install or update software, often needed to write to protected OS folders like Program Files or the registry.

A

Installer Permissions

335
Q

An OS structure in Windows that contains hardware and software settings, secured so that only privileged applications or administrators can modify it.

A

Windows Registry

336
Q

A Windows directory where applications typically install their program code and related files; restricted to prevent unauthorized changes.

A

Program Files Folder

337
Q

Involves using elevated privileges (e.g., “Run as administrator”) for setup programs that fail with normal user rights due to access or write permission errors.

A

Run as Administrator

338
Q

Temporary changes like lowering firewall rules or antivirus settings so that a program can install or run, followed by restoring stricter protections afterward.

A

Relaxing and Reinstating Security Controls

339
Q

Ensuring a new application doesn’t conflict with encryption (BitLocker, EFS), DRM, or auditing standards required by regulations or organizational policies.

A

Security Integration / Compatibility

340
Q

The Windows domain feature used to configure or enforce application policies, possibly restricting or allowing certain app settings across all domain computers.

A

Group Policy

341
Q

Verifying whether installing or using an application would expose personal or business data to vendors, and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations.

A

Privacy & Data Exposure Consideration

342
Q

The ongoing help desk, training, and updates needed to keep an application running effectively, often far exceeding the initial license cost.

A

Support Requirements

343
Q

A standardized disk image (thick or hybrid) containing Windows plus core corporate apps, possibly requiring changes if new software increases hardware or OS needs.

A

Corporate Standard Platform / Image

344
Q

The hidden expense when an application demands new or upgraded devices (CPUs, GPUs, etc.), changing replacement schedules and inflating IT budgets.

A

Hardware Demands & Lifecycle Impact

345
Q

Potential strain on internal or external bandwidth due to frequent software updates, license checks, or data synchronization tasks.

A

Network Traffic Considerations

346
Q

The up‑front purchase price plus recurring fees (e.g., subscriptions, renewals), and sometimes unfriendly terms regarding data collection or usage reporting.

A

License Costs & Contractual Obligations

347
Q

An application’s ability to exchange data or work seamlessly with other software, both internally (other departments) and externally (customers, partners).

A

Interoperability

348
Q

Mandatory adherence to legal or contractual requirements (e.g., privacy, encryption) that may render certain apps unsuitable or noncompliant.

A

Security & Privacy Constraints

349
Q

A specialized product that might meet a narrow technical need but fails to create universally usable files or outputs, limiting overall organizational benefit.

A

Niche Application Limitations

350
Q

chkdsk parameter that scans and fixes errors on the disk, but requires exclusive access to the volume (often leading to a prompt to schedule at next reboot).

351
Q

chkdsk parameter that locates bad sectors, recovers readable data, and implicitly includes fixing errors; can be time‑consuming for large volumes.

352
Q

Chkdsk parameter that Shows clean‑up messages on FAT32 volumes and detailed file processing messages on NTFS volumes, providing more verbose output.

353
Q

Netstat parameter that shows all active TCP connections and all listening ports, including TCP and UDP, rather than just established connections.

354
Q

Netstat parameter that displays the executable or service responsible for each open port or connection, useful for tracing a connection back to its owning program.

355
Q

Netstat parameter that lists addresses and ports numerically instead of attempting to resolve names (hostnames or service names), speeding up the display.

356
Q

Netstat parameter that displays Ethernet statistics, including bytes and packets sent/received, unicast packets, discards, and errors.

357
Q

The xcopy parameter that copies all subdirectories inside the folder

358
Q

The xcopy parameter that denotes that the destination provided in the command is a directory

359
Q

Robocopy parameter that denotes to mirror the directory to the destination

360
Q

Robocopy parameter that allows to resume the transfer if interruption happens

361
Q

a CLI used to refresh Group Policy settings on a computer

362
Q

a CLI used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a user or computer

363
Q

gpresult parameter that gives a report of the policies in place for a user or computer

364
Q

Linux command that lists files and directories in the current working directory.

365
Q

Linux command that displays the current working directory’s full path.

366
Q

Linux command that moves or renames files and directories.

367
Q

Linux command that copies files and directories.

368
Q

Linux command that removes files or directories.

369
Q

Linux command that changes file or directory permissions.

370
Q

Linux command that changes file or directory ownership.

371
Q

Linux command that switches to another user account (commonly root) by opening a new shell, requiring that user’s password.

372
Q

Linux command that executes a single command with elevated/root privileges using your own password (if authorized).

373
Q

Linux command that installs, updates, or removes packages on Debian-based systems

374
Q

Linux command that installs, updates, or removes packages on Red Hat-based systems.

375
Q

Linux command that displays or configures network interface parameters

376
Q

Linux command that shows disk space usage for mounted filesystems.

377
Q

Linux command that searches for patterns in text using regular expressions.

378
Q

Linux command that displays information about running processes.

379
Q

Linux command that displays the manual (help) pages for commands, showing usage syntax, options, and descriptions. Pages are organized by sections (e.g., user commands, system calls, config files).

380
Q

Linux command that displays a real-time, updating view of running processes and system resource usage, including CPU, memory, uptime, and load averages. You can sort, filter, or kill processes directly from the interface.

381
Q

Linux command that searches for files and directories in a directory hierarchy

382
Q

Linux command that performs DNS lookups to resolve hostnames or IP addresses

383
Q

Linux command that concatenates and displays the contents of one or more text files. Commonly used to quickly view file contents, combine multiple files, or redirect file output. Does not offer editing capabilities.

384
Q

Linux command that acts as a simple command-line text editor for editing file

385
Q

A disk image file that mounts as a virtual drive when opened; commonly used to distribute macOS applications.

386
Q

A macOS installer package used to install software system-wide; often includes scripts and components for full application setup.

387
Q

Represents a complete macOS application bundle; appears to the user as a single app file but contains the executable and all required resources.

388
Q

Which file system supports file and folder permissions and is standard on Windows? (Set 757)

A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) exFAT
D) EXT4

A

Answer: B) NTFS

389
Q

Which of the following allows you to create and manage virtual machines in Windows 10 Pro or Enterprise? (Set 276)

A) VirtualBox
B) Hyper-V
C) VMware
D) VNC

A

Answer: B) Hyper-V

390
Q

In Linux, which command is used to change file permissions? (Set 573)

A) chmod
B) chown
C) ls
D) mv

A

Answer: A) chmod

391
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘df’ command in Linux? (Set 745)

A) Display file contents
B) Check disk usage
C) Format drives
D) Fix file systems

A

Answer: B) Check disk usage

392
Q

Put the steps in order to perform a clean installation of Windows 10:
1) Create installation media
2) Choose partition
3) Boot from USB
4) Run Setup
5) Format drive

A
  1. Create installation media
  2. Boot from USB
  3. Run Setup
  4. Choose partition
  5. Format drive
393
Q

Put the steps in order to enable a Windows feature using Control Panel:
1) Open Control Panel
2) Click Programs
3) Select ‘Turn Windows features on or off’
4) Check feature
5) Restart if prompted

A
  1. Open Control Panel
  2. Click Programs
  3. Select ‘Turn Windows features on or off’
  4. Check feature
  5. Restart if prompted
394
Q

Arrange the Linux commands to create a new file and move it to a directory:
1) cd /home/user
2) touch file.txt
3) mkdir files
4) mv file.txt files/

A
  1. cd /home/user
  2. touch file.txt
  3. mkdir files
  4. mv file.txt files/
395
Q

Put the Windows boot process components in the correct order:
1) POST
2) Boot manager
3) BIOS/UEFI
4) OS loader
5) Kernel loading

A
  1. POST
  2. BIOS/UEFI
  3. Boot manager
  4. OS loader
  5. Kernel loading
396
Q

Put the steps to map a network drive in Windows in order:
1) Open File Explorer
2) Click ‘This PC’
3) Click ‘Map network drive’
4) Enter path and credentials
5) Finish

A
  1. Open File Explorer
  2. Click ‘This PC’
  3. Click ‘Map network drive’
  4. Enter path and credentials
  5. Finish
397
Q

“Where are most user settings stored in Windows? (Set 241)

A) Registry
B) Boot.ini
C) Group Policy
D) Control Panel”

A

Answer: A) Registry

398
Q

“Which utility helps users back up and restore system files in Windows? (Set 637)

A) System Restore
B) Backup and Restore
C) File Explorer
D) Task Scheduler”

A

Answer: B) Backup and Restore

399
Q

“Which macOS utility allows access to system and security logs? (Set 180)

A) Activity Monitor
B) Console
C) Disk Utility
D) System Preferences”

A

Answer: B) Console

400
Q

“Which of the following commands displays hidden files in a Linux directory? (Set 583)

A) ls -a
B) ls -h
C) ls -l
D) ls -r”

A

Answer: A) ls -a

401
Q

“What command would you use in Windows to check for file system errors? (Set 618)

A) sfc /scannow
B) chkdsk
C) ipconfig
D) format”

A

Answer: B) chkdsk