Openstax 4 Flashcards

1
Q

the lack of resistance to a disease

A

Susceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the two types of ability to resist disease

A

Innate / Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Physical Defenses (innate)

A

Physical Barriers
mechanical defense
Normal microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cellular defenses (innate)

A

granulocytes (basophiles, eosinophils, neutrophils) agranulocytes, monocytes, macrophages, NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chemical defense

A

(innate)
enzymes: lysozyme, sebum
AMP- anti microbial peptides {broad spectrum}
plasma protein mediators: complement
inflammation
cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

opsonization

A

Tagging pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

acute phase proteins

A

inflammatory response vasodilation BV permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Inferfereons

A

cytokines -> virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

type 1 interferons

A

viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

signs of acute inflamtion

A

erythema, heat, edema, pain, loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

steps of inflammation

A
inflammmatory mediator released
blood clot forms
abscess pus
BV margination of phagcytes 
diapedesis
phagocytosis 
tisssue repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pyrogens

A

bacteria/virus associated

chemical themostat setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PAMP

A

pathogen associated molecular patterns foreign to immune system
peptidogylcan, flagellin, viral gentic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PRRs

A

Pattern recognition receptors
On plasma membrane internal phagosomes
recognize various PAMPs
Signals interferons and proinflam cytokines= intracellular killing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stages steps of Phagocytosis

A

Engulment of patho
phagosome formation
phagolysosome
expulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ways to avoid phagocytosis

A

Capsules
escape
prevent lysosome fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Example of phagocytosis avoid : leishmaniasis potozoan

A

Sand fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adaptive Immunity

A

Specific Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B cells produce, where
what type of immunity
extra or intracellular antigens
secret what

A
Produce antibodies Immunoglobulins Ig
where Bone Marrow
type - Humoral Immnity
EXTRA
Become Plasma cells Secret IGm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1 B cell 1 Antibody

A

1 antibody 1 epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T cells, where
what type of immunity
extra or intracellular antigens

A

Thymus T cell recptors (TCR)
Cellular Innate immunity
Intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T helper cells

Activate what cells

A

Orchestrate humoral and cell immunity

activate macrophages NK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T regulatory (self)

A

tolerance and prevention of autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

t cytotoxic

A

apoptosis of intra cellular pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
superantigens
inflammation cytokine storm
26
Antigens
foregin microbe several epitopes capsules, cells walls, flagella, spike proteins, capsids, proteins, lipids, carbs
27
Haptens
tiny antigens need bigger carrier molecule to elicit immune response
28
FAB FC regions Variable constant light dark
areas of antibodies . know these regions
29
First produced commonly found as five monomers joined by a J-chain. first antibody produced in the initial adaptive immune response
IgM:
30
Commonly found as a dimer secreted across mucosal surfaces Breast milk
IgA
31
transmitted across the placenta from mother to fetus. | most abundant antibody in blood
IgG
32
Antibody associated with the degranulation of mast cells and allergy
IgE
33
Antibody found at low levels in blood but is abundant on the surface of B cell for antigen binding receptor
IgD
34
Mothers can naturally, passively provide protection against pathogens to their infants by giving them pre-formed antibodies that are able to prevent some pathogens from adhering to the infant's intestinal cells and infecting. Which antibody type would be associated with this protection?
IgA
35
A single B cell has approximately 50,000 B-cell receptors. How many distinct epitopes is this cell capable of recognizing?
1 epitope
36
MHC I
presents antigen produced within APCs recognized by CD8 T cells [Self vs NonSelf] found on all nucleated body cells
37
MHC II:
presents antigen phagocytosed by APCs | found only on APCs (dendritic, macrophage, and B cell)
38
what is a MHC
Major histocompatiblity complex self from nonself presents antigens epitopse to t cell to activate t cell
39
The killing of infected cells by cytotoxic T cells resembles the process of killing by natural killer cells. How do the two processes differ?
NK cells do not recognize specific antigen
40
Which of these techniques might microbes use to successfully evade an immune response mounted against them?
inhibit production of pro-inflammatory cytokines trigger apoptosis of immune cells induce production of anti-inflammatory cytokines
41
he body's immune response to a microbe is really multiple responses to multiple small regions of that microbe. Each small region that is recognized by a specific component of the immune system is referred to as what?
an Epitope
42
Which of the cell types from the list below would NOT express MHC class I receptors?
Red blood cells
43
What do granzymes do?
Granzymes stimulate cell death in infected cells.
44
What is a cytokine?
A small signaling peptide
45
A small segment of any antigen that can elicit an immune response is called a(n) _____
epitope
46
Which cell type is most directly responsible for coordinating humoral and cellular immune responses to an infection?
T cells
47
Which class of antibody has a form secreted across mucosal tissues of the intestine or lung?
IgA
48
Two antibody class molecules, IgG and IgM, that recognize the same epitope and are from the same person differ from each other in their _____
heavy-chain constant regions
49
MHC II complexes on antigen-presenting cells are loaded with _____ produced peptides
extracellulary
50
T-cell education
thymus
51
Cytomegalovirus, which can cause a mononucleosis-type disease, prevents the immune system from destroying infected cells by _____
placing a molecular mimic of MHC I on an infected cell surface
52
Neutralizing antibody
prevent viruses binding | toxins
53
opsonizing antibodies
tag coat pathogens for phagocytosis yummy | use FC recptors bind IgG
54
agglutination antibodies
clump patho IgM
55
ADCC antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity | cell ? intra extra?
Fc recptors on NK cell lethal hit extracellular cytotoxins
56
Passive naturally acquired passive artificial acquired Active naturally acquired active artificial acquired
Passive naturally acquired : breast milk passive artificial acquired : harvest from other Active naturally acquired : illness active artificial acquired : vaccines
57
Match the common approved vaccine to its type. live attenuated virus inactive virus toxid
attenuated virus: influenza chickenpox measles inactivated virus: influenza hepatitis A rabies toxoid: tetanus pertussis
58
Which type of vaccine physically links a highly immunogenic protein with a poorly immunogenic capsule polysaccharide to boost the immune reaction to the polysaccharide?
Conjugated vaccine
59
Which of the following is/are types of passive immunization?
Injection of antitoxins (antibodies that inactivate microbial toxins) Breastfeeding Injection of immune globulin
60
Which of the following is/are features of an effective vaccine?
It should not harm the person being vaccinated. It should stimulate B-cell (antibody) and T-cell (cell-mediated) responses. It should produce long-term memory.
61
Human immunodeficiency virus causes
a secondary immunodeficiency
62
Epinephrine stops anaphylaxis by which of the following means?
Increasing cAMP production to stop mast cell degranulation Relaxing smooth muscle around bronchioles
63
What is the name for an antigen that causes the immune system to react more strongly than is warranted by the antigen itself, or that mimics host structures?
allergen
64
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result under these conditions.
Rh- mother/Rh+ fetus, second pregnancy
65
type I reaction
anaphylaxis IgE cross-linking mast cells and basophiles to relase histamine soluble localized and systemic reactions
66
Type II reaction
``` cytotoxic allergen-displaying host cells killed by complement ADCC IgG IgM blood testing : Rh- mom Rh+ kid cell bound ```
67
Type III reaction
antigen-antibody complexes IgG IgM soluble Inflammation neurtophiles glomerulonephritis dialysis
68
Type IV reaction
delayed cell mediated time of onset more than 24 hours postexposure allergen-displaying host cells killed by TC cell cytokines hapten antigens posion ivy
69
Which of the following autoimmune diseases occurs when an autoantibody is made that binds to the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor present on thyroid gland cells?
Graves
70
The pathophysiology of Grave's disease involves _____
antibody that targets thyroid-stimulating hormone recepto
71
The autoimmune process involved in systemic lupus erythematosus, in which antibodies and antigens interact to form clusters that may be deposited in tissue, is similar to which type of allergic reaction?
type III hypersensitivity
72
B-cell defects causing antibody deficiencies are the most common type of _____ immunodeficiencies, which have a genetic basis and usually manifest in early childhood.
primary
73
Human immunodeficiency virus cause
a secondary immunodeficiency
74
A 1-month-old child with a low white blood cell count, low-set ears, cleft palate, and underdeveloped thymus will most likely have which one of the following?
DiGeorge syndrome
75
Treatment of patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia includes which one of the following?
IV administration of immune globulin
76
A 5-year-old boy with type A blood was in a serious car accident and required a transfusion. Mistakenly he received type AB blood. Within hours he was experiencing chills, his blood pressure dropped, and his urine was tinged red
type II hypersensitivity cell lysis
77
The concept whereby unvaccinated persons are protected from infection by those vaccinated in the community is called ______
herd immunity
78
Place the steps of pathogenesis in order following initial contact between the host and the microbe.
1. tissue attachment 2. colonization 3. immune avoidance 4. host damage (disease) 5. pathogen exit to next host
79
What do we call the star-shaped, macrophage-like cells that are in the epidermis, above the basal layer?
langerhans cells dendric cells