OPD(ADULTS) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a fracture?

A

A break, usually in a bone. If the broken bone punctures the skin, it is called an open or compound fracture.

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2
Q

What commonly causes fractures?

A

Car accidents, falls, sports injuries, low bone density, and osteoporosis.

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3
Q

What are the two types of fractures?

A
  • Complete - out of the skin, separated
  • Incomplete - not out of the skin, continuous (periosteum remains)
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4
Q

True or False: A fracture and a break are the same thing.

A

True

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5
Q

What is Open Reduction and Internal Fixation (ORIF)?

A

A surgical procedure that puts broken bone pieces into place using screws, plates, or rods.

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6
Q

What is the purpose of external fixation?

A

To stabilize a fracture with rods that exit the body, providing an alternative to internal fixation.

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7
Q

What is a cataract?

A

Clouding of the normally clear lens of the eye.

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8
Q

What are common causes of cataracts?

A
  • Aging
  • Inherited genes
  • Past eye surgery
  • Diabetes
  • Long use of steroids
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9
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

A group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve, often due to high eye pressure.

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A
  • Severe headache
  • Eye pain
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Blurred vision
  • Halos around lights
  • Eye redness
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11
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

A middle ear infection that lasts less than 6 weeks and occurs abruptly, causing swelling and redness.

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12
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of otitis media?

A
  • Ear pain
  • Tugging at an ear
  • Trouble sleeping
  • Crying more than usual
  • Trouble hearing
  • Loss of balance
  • Rhinitis
  • Hearing loss
  • Irritability
  • Drainage of fluid from the ear
  • Fever
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13
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

The inflammation of the vermiform appendix, most common in adolescents and young adults.

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14
Q

What is the most common complication of appendicitis?

A

Perforation of the bowel.

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15
Q

What is a breast mass?

A

A lump for a palpably discrete area of any size.

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16
Q

What are signs of an unhealthy breast?

A
  • Lumps
  • Masses
  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Nipple retraction
  • Discharges
  • Dimpling
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17
Q

What is the role of nursing management for internal fixation?

A

Examine skin, assess splint position, maintain cleanliness, and monitor for circulation.

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18
Q

What are risk factors for developing glaucoma?

A
  • High internal eye pressure
  • Being over age 60
  • Family history of glaucoma
  • Certain medical conditions (e.g., diabetes)
  • Thin corneas
  • Previous eye injury or surgery
  • Long-term corticosteroid use
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19
Q

What is chronic otitis media?

A

A long-standing infection characterized by recurrent ear drainage and some degree of conductive hearing loss.

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20
Q

What is the management for mastoiditis?

A

Antibiotic therapy.

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: The procedure to surgically remove the appendix is called _______.

A

Appendectomy

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22
Q

What are the two classifications of breast masses?

A
  • Benign
  • Malignant
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23
Q

What is the primary goal of nursing management in fractures?

A

To stop bleeding, immobilize the area, and treat for shock.

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24
Q

What does the term ‘comminuted fracture’ refer to?

A

A fracture where the bone is broken into several pieces.

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25
Q

What is breast engorgement?

A

Occurs during lactation when the breast is full and milk cannot be released

The first milk released, colostrum, is yellowish & rich in antibodies that can protect the babies from disease.

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26
Q

What are the common classifications of breast masses?

A
  • Benign
  • Malignant

Benign masses include fibrocystic changes, fibroadenomas, and papillomas, while malignant masses can be early, advanced, or disseminated.

27
Q

Define fibrocystic breast changes.

A

Most common benign breast condition characterized by fibrous breast tissue that is firm, rubbery, and hard to touch.

28
Q

What is the recommended dietary approach for fibrocystic breast changes?

A

Avoid caffeine & other stimulants, eat veggies, fruits, & organic foods.

29
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A

A movable, solid lump that is painless and unilateral, not fluid-filled, and shrinks after menopause.

30
Q

What are the characteristics of malignant breast masses?

A
  • Early: confined to breast only
  • Advanced: spread to lymph nodes
  • Disseminated: metastasized to other parts of the body.
31
Q

List some risk factors for breast cancer.

A
  • Age (50 y/o and above)
  • Gender (female)
  • Genetics
  • Obesity
  • History of DES
  • Alcohol Intake
  • Previous Radiation Therapy.
32
Q

What is mastitis?

A

An infection caused by bacteria entering the nipple crack, leading to swelling.

33
Q

What are the typical imaging studies used for breast cancer diagnosis?

A
  • Diagnostic Mammogram
  • Breast Ultrasound
  • Breast MRI.

Breast MRI involves injecting a contrast substance to enhance image clarity.

34
Q

What is a lumpectomy?

A

Surgery to remove cancer and other abnormal tissues from the breast, along with some healthy tissue.

35
Q

Differentiate between simple mastectomy and radical mastectomy.

A
  • Simple: removes breast tissues (nipple, areola, skin) but not lymph nodes.
  • Radical: removes breasts & underlying muscles (pectoralis).
36
Q

What is the purpose of blood transfusion?

A

To replace blood cells or blood products lost through bleeding or due to depression of bone marrow.

37
Q

What are the types of blood components that can be transfused?

A
  • Whole Blood
  • Plasma
  • Platelet.
38
Q

What is the procedure for urinary catheter insertion?

A

Introduction of a catheter into the bladder through the urethra, requiring aseptic technique.

39
Q

What should be assessed before removing sutures?

A

The wound must be assessed for healing and any signs of separation.

40
Q

What are the two types of sutures?

A
  • Absorbent (dissolvable)
  • Non-absorbent (must be removed).
41
Q

What is the significance of backflow of urine during catheter insertion?

A

Indicates that the catheter has reached the bladder.

42
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a small incision or puncture wound made in a vasectomy.

43
Q

True or False: Alcohol intake is a risk factor for breast cancer.

44
Q

What is the recommended timing for breast self-examination?

A

1 week after the start of menstruation.

45
Q

What are the steps to perform breast self-examination?

A
  • Visual examination for nipple retractions, bulges, dimpling.
  • Palpation for masses, dimples, or irregularities.
46
Q

What is the purpose of performing a core needle biopsy?

A

To remove a sample tissue from the breast to check for cancer.

47
Q

What is the common complication associated with vasectomy?

A

Hematoma, chronic pain, and development of antibodies against sperm.

48
Q

What is the main purpose of bilateral tubal ligation?

A

To occlude the fallopian tubes and prevent the passage of sperm and ova.

49
Q

What type of anesthesia is usually used for laparoscopic tubal ligation?

A

General or local anesthesia.

50
Q

What should be done if a patient shows signs of a reaction during a blood transfusion?

A

Discontinue immediately and refer to a physician.

51
Q

What is the minimum weight requirement for blood donation?

A

50 kg and above.

52
Q

The procedure may be associated with the development
of (kidney stones) or?

A

Urolithiasis

53
Q

is a new system, consists of a spring-loaded mechanism that seals the fallopian tube

54
Q

Small wart-like lumps
that grow in the lining of
the mammary ducts near
the nipple

A

Benign papilloma

55
Q

Movable when
palpated, Solid lumps of
fibrous and
glandular tissue

A

Fibroadenoma

56
Q

Most common

*Fibrous breast tissue,
mammary glands, and
ducts overreact to the
normal hormones
produced during
ovulation.

A

Fibrocystic

57
Q

this drug is a synthetic form of the female hormone estrogen, and one of the contributors of breast cancer.

A

diethylstilbestrol

58
Q

a fecal
calculus or stone that
occludes the lumen of the
appendix.

59
Q

is an
instrument used to look into
the ear canal.

60
Q

a cone-shaped viewing piece of the otoscope

61
Q

Is an inflammatory condition of the
middle ear that results from dysfunction
of the Eustachian tube in association
with some illnesses including URIs (cold,
sore throat).

A

otitis media

62
Q

surgical incision into
the eardrum, to relieve pressure or
drain fluid.

A

myringotomy