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Anatomy > Online Quiz Questions Ch. 24 and 25 > Flashcards

Online Quiz Questions Ch. 24 and 25 Flashcards

1
Q

Technically, the term gastrointestinal (GI) tract refers to the…

A

stomach, small intestine and large intestine.

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2
Q

The muscular contractions, which move material through most of the digestive tract, are called…

A

peristalsis.

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3
Q

The nervous system or systems that can control peristalsis in the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine is (are) the…

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

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4
Q

Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system will cause which one of the following effects in the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine?

A

decreases peristalsis by inhibition of smooth muscle

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5
Q

Contractions that mix material in the small intestine are called…

A

segmental contractions.

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6
Q

The secretions that lubricate the food so it moves easily through the digestive tract and also protects the epithelium are called

A

mucus.

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7
Q

Which one of the following is absorbed in the GI tract without being digested?

A

vitamins

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8
Q

The epithelium of the mouth, oropharynx, esophagus and anal canal is…

A

stratified squamous.

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9
Q

The stomach, small intestine and large intestine are lined by this epithelium:

A

simple columnar

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10
Q

The tunica muscularis in the superior esophagus is made up of ___________ muscle.

A

skeletal

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11
Q

Contractions of the smooth muscles in the tunica muscularis in the GI tract causes ___________ and is stimulated by ____________ plexus.

A

peristalsis, myenteric

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12
Q

The lamina propria and muscularis mucosa are found in the tunica

A

mucosa.

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13
Q

The outer tunic of the esophagus grades into the surrounding connective tissue and is called the tunica

A

adventitia.

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14
Q

The outer layer of the GI tract is composed of connective tissue and a simple squamous epithelium. This tunic is called the tunica ______________ and the simple squamous epithelium is called the ______________.

A

serosa, visceral peritoneum

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15
Q

The enteric plexus in the tunica submucosa is called the _____________ plexus.

A

submucosal

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16
Q

Stimulation of the parasympathetic neurons in the GI tract from the myenteric plexus will cause

A

stimulation of peristalsis

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17
Q

Branches of which autonomic nerve carry the parasympathetic motor neurons to the enteric plexi?

A

vagus

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18
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the enteric nervous system?

A

A) It works through local control.
B) It consists of enteric sensory and motor neurons.
C) Enteric interneurons connect sensory and motor neurons together.
D) The enteric neurons are incapable of controlling digestive tract functions without the central nervous system (CNS).

D!! The enteric neurons can work independently, but normally work with the CNS.

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19
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensation from the digestive tract to the CNS?

A

vagus

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20
Q

Organs that lie outside the abdominal cavity such as the duodenum, pancreas, urinary bladder and rectum are

A

retroperitoneal.

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21
Q

Which one of the connective tissue sheets listed below consists of two layers of serous membranes with a thin layer of connective tissue between them and attaches to the small intestine?

A

mesentery proper

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22
Q

If you place a pin through the greater omentum, through how many layers of simple squamous epithelium would the pin pass?

A

2

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23
Q

Accumulation of excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called

A

ascites.

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24
Q

The coronary ligament attaches the

A

liver to the diaphragm.

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25
Q

Which of the following structures forms a cavity or pocket between the greater and lesser omentum?

A

omental bursa

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26
Q

Which of the following ligaments attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?

A

falciform ligament

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27
Q

Which of the following structures would be considered retropertitoneal?

A

pancreas

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28
Q

The fauces refer to the

A

opening into the oropharynx.

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29
Q

The oral cavity and oropharynx are lined by _______________ epithelium.

A

stratified squamous

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30
Q

The lips are lined by _____________ epithelium.

A

dry stratified squamous

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31
Q

The projection from the posterior edge of the soft palate that elevates to help close off the nasopharynx when swallowing is called the

A

uvula.

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32
Q

Which of the following are (is) not located in the oral cavity?

A

A) labial frenula
B) uvula
C) palatine tonsils
D) pharyngeal constrictors

D!!!

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33
Q

Which one of the following is most easily absorbed in the oral cavity?

A

nitroglycerin

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34
Q

Out of a normal adult’s 32 teeth, how many are molars?

A

12

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35
Q

Humans normally have 20 deciduous or “baby” teeth and adults 32 permanent teeth. The 12 additional teeth in humans represent

A

premolars and molars.

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36
Q

The most common cause of tooth loss in adults is

A

periodontal disease.

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37
Q

The mastication reflex originates in the _______________ and the ability to initiate or stop chewing originates in the _______________.

A

medulla oblongata; cerebrum.

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38
Q

Which region of a tooth contain living cells?

A

dentin

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39
Q

The center of the tooth that is filled with blood vessels and nerves is called the _____________ and the cavity within the root of the tooth is called the ________________.

A

pulp cavity; root canal

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40
Q

In a given tooth, the dentin is located ______________ to the enamel.

A

inferior

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41
Q

Mumps is inflammation of the _______________ salivary gland caused by a virus.

A

parotid

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42
Q

The salivary gland that produces primarily mucus is the _____________ salivary gland.

A

sublingual

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43
Q

Salivary glands structurally are

A

compound acinar glands.

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44
Q

The salivary gland which is mixed but produces more serous than mucous secretions and whose duct opens inferiorly in the floor of the oral cavity next to the frenulum of the tongue is the ______________ salivary gland.

A

submandibular

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45
Q

If you suck on a plain piece of bread, it will begin to taste sweet after a few moments. Saliva contains the digestive enzyme ________________, which breaks down starch into ________________.

A

amylase, maltose

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46
Q

Saliva decreases gingivitis and caries because it contains immunoglobulin A and

A

lysozymes.

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47
Q

Salivary secretion is stimulated by

A

the salivary nuclei in the brainstem.

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48
Q

Which part(s) of the pharynx normally conduct food?

A

oropharynx and laryngopharynx

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49
Q

The esophagus pierces through an opening in the diaphragm called the

A

hiatus.

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50
Q

The esophagus is different from the GI tract because the esophagus has

A

skeletal muscles at the superior end and smooth muscles at the inferior end.

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51
Q

A major secretion of the esophagus is

A

mucus.

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52
Q

Which one of the following does not occur during swallowing?

A

The uvula and soft palate move inferiorly to block the oropharynx.

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53
Q

The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is ___________, which is controlled by __________ muscle.

A

involuntary; skeletal

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54
Q

Sometimes when you are talking and eating you initiate the gagging reflex. The gagging or coughing reflex is stimulated when foreign material enters the larynx. Some of the bolus you are swallowing enters the larynx when you are talking because the

A

epiglottis is not closed over the glottis.

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55
Q

The region of the stomach around the opening from the esophagus is called the ___________ region.

A

cardiac

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56
Q

The lower esophageal sphincter prevents chyme from moving into the _____________.

A

esophagus

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57
Q

The stomach is unique to the GI tract because it contains

A

oblique smooth muscle.

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58
Q

The tunica submucosa and mucosa of the stomach are thrown into large folds called

A

rugae.

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59
Q

Which one of the following cells in the gastric glands produce pepsinogen?

A

chief cells

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60
Q

Surface area of the stomach is increased by the presence of

A

gastric pits.

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61
Q

The major food digested by gastric secretions is

A

protein

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62
Q

The hydrogen ions that form hydrochloric acid of the stomach come from

A

carbonic acid.

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63
Q

The low pH of the stomach activates enzymes that digest _____________ while inactivating enzymes that digest ______________.

A

proteins; starch

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64
Q

The parietal cells in the gastric glands of the pyloric region produce _____________ that bonds with Vitamin _______ to make it more readily absorbed in the ileum.

A

intrinsic factor; B12

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65
Q

The stomach produces acids, which denature protein, and pepsin that digests protein. The proteins in the membranes of epithelial cells are not denatured or digested because

A

mucus coats the epithelium

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66
Q

The painful or burning sensation in the chest usually associated with acid reflux in the esophagus is called

A

heart burn.

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67
Q

One of your family members has developed peptic ulcers and is consulting you for advice. You can tell your family member that there may be a chance of permanently curing this ulcer by

A

taking antibiotics that destroy Helicobacter pylori.

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68
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation causes endocrine cells in the stomach to release the hormone

A

gastrin.

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69
Q

Histamine stimulates the ________________ cells to release ______________.

A

parietal; HCl

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70
Q

In the regulation of stomach secretions, distension of the stomach activates local reflexes and a parasympathetic reflex. This is called the _____________ phase.

A

gastric

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71
Q

Cells in the duodenum monitor chyme coming from the stomach that has a pH of 1. You would expect the duodenal cells to

A

release secretin, which inhibits gastric secretions.

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72
Q

The stomach contractions, which move the chyme from near the periphery of the stomach toward the pyloric sphincter, are called

A

peristaltic waves.

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73
Q

You take a deep breath; you raise your larynx and hyoid bone; your epiglottis closes off the larynx; the soft palate closes off the nasopharynx; the diaphragm and abdominal muscles contract and the lower esophageal sphincter relaxes. What has just happened?

A

Irritation in the GI tract caused the vomiting reflex.

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74
Q

Which one of the following parts of the GI tract has the following characteristics: simple columnar epithelium, muscularis mucosa, Meissner’s plexus, two layers of smooth muscle in the tunica muscularis and Peyer’s patches of lymph nodules?

A

ileum

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75
Q

The small intestine contains fingerlike projections called ____________, whose function is to ___________.

A

villi; increase surface area

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76
Q

Each day about 9 liters of water enter the gastrointestinal tract. By the time the contents leave the large intestine as feces, about ______% of water is reabsorbed.

A

99

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77
Q

Brunner’s glands produce __________ and are found in the _____________.

A

mucus; duodenum

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78
Q

The pancreas and liver release their secretions into the

A

duodenum.

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79
Q

In the tunica mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine, a series of folds called the ____________ functions to __________________.

A

plicae circulares (circular folds); increase surface area

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80
Q

Which cells in the small intestine may help protect the intestinal epithelium from bacteria?

A

granular cells

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81
Q

You have a situation where the hepatopancreatic ampullar sphincter or sphincter of Oddi will not relax. You would expect

A

the feces to contain a much higher percentage of fat than normal.

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82
Q

The lymphatic capillaries in the villi of the small intestine are called

A

lacteals.

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83
Q

The longest region of the small intestine is the

A

ileum.

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84
Q

You were able to collect the chyme from the small intestine and isolate the various enzymes. Most of the enzymes would have been produced by the

A

pancreas.

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85
Q

In the small intestine, movement of chyme is regulated primarily by

A

local and mechanical stimulation.

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86
Q

The hepatic sinusoids receive oxygenated and unoxygenated blood. The blood vessels that provide mixed blood to the sinusoids are the

A

hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein.

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87
Q

You are tracing a drop of blood from the blood capillary network in the small intestine to the inferior vena cava. The pathway is

A

hepatic portal vein > sinusoid > central vein > hepatic vein > inferior vena cava.

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88
Q

Bacteria and other foreign material absorbed by the small intestine are destroyed by ___________ cells found lining the hepatic sinusoids.

A

Kupffer

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89
Q

Hepatocytes or hepatic cells produce bile, which is secreted into the

A

bile canaliculi.

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90
Q

Which one of the following is the correct pathway of bile from the hepatocytes to the gallbladder?

A

bile canaliculus > hepatic duct > common hepatic duct > cystic duct > gallbladder.

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91
Q

One of the major functions of bile salts is to

A

emulsify fat to fatty droplets.

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92
Q

An individual has the following symptoms: jaundice, pale in color, liver with a buildup of connective tissue. This individual most likely has

A

cirrhosis.

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93
Q

Which one of the following substance or substances are not stored in the liver.

A

calcium

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94
Q

Bile secretion is stimulated by the hormone ______________ in response to ______________.

A

secretin; low pH of the chyme

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95
Q

Which one of the following functions best describes the effects of the hormone cholecystokinin?

A

inhibits gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic secretions (high in enzymes), stimulates contraction of the gall bladder and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi

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96
Q

The liver combines a toxic by-product of amino acid metabolism, ammonia, with another waste product, carbon dioxide, to form the water-soluble _______________, which is excreted in the kidneys.

A

urea

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97
Q

The gallbladder contracts in response to

A

cholecystokinin and vagal stimulation.

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98
Q

Gall stones result from the precipitation of _____________ in the gallbladder.

A

cholesterol

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99
Q

The pancreatic islets produce

A

insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin.

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100
Q

The pancreatic juice, produced by acinar cells, is secreted into the

A

duodenum

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101
Q

The major part of the aqueous component (other than water) of pancreatic juice is

A

bicarbonate ions.

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102
Q

Trypsinogen when activated by ___________ will break down proteins in the ___________.

A

enterokinase; small intestine

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103
Q

Which one of the following enzymes is not part of the enzymatic component of the pancreatic juice within the hepatopancreatic ampulla?

A

chymotrypsin

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104
Q

The aqueous component of pancreatic juice is produced by the

A

intercalated duct.

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105
Q

In the production of the aqueous component of pancreatic juice, _________ ions are actively transported into the intercalated duct and sodium ions are exchanged for _________ ions.

A

bicarbonate; hydrogen

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106
Q

Secretion of the enzymatic component of pancreatic juice is primarily stimulated by the hormone

A

cholecystokinin.

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107
Q

This region of the large intestine has a simple columnar epithelium in its tunica mucosa, smooth muscle in its tunica muscularis, and omental appendages attach to its outer surface. This region is called the

A

colon.

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108
Q

In the colon, the teniae coli are bands of __________, which contract to form ___________.

A

longitudinal smooth muscle; haustra

109
Q

This blind tube is about 9 cm long, is filled with lymph nodules and attaches to the cecum. This blind tube is called the

A

vermiform appendix.

110
Q

You have the following symptoms: sudden abdominal pain, slight fever, loss of appetite, and nausea. You may have

A

appendicitis.

111
Q

Stimulation by the parasympathetic nervous system will cause the __________ anal sphincter to _____________.

A

internal; relax

112
Q

The major secretory product of the colon is

A

mucus.

113
Q

Most of the enzymes produced in the large intestine and the formation of Vitamin K occurs in

A

bacteria.

114
Q

These contractions occur 3 to 4 times a day and involve large parts of the transverse and descending colon. These contractions are called

A

mass movements.

115
Q

Stimulation of the internal anal sphincters by the sympathetic nervous system or stimulation of the external anal sphincter by the somatic motor nervous system would

A

inhibit the defecation reflex.

116
Q

Starch is broken down to its disaccharide, maltose, by the enzyme

A

amylase.

117
Q

Disaccharides like sucrose, lactose, and maltose are digested primarily in the

A

brush border of the small intestine.

118
Q

After eating or drinking dairy products like cheese and milk, you have intestinal cramps, bloating and diarrhea. You most likely have

A

lactose intolerance.

119
Q

Glucose and galactose in the small intestine are taken into the epithelial cell by __________ and passed into the interstitial fluid by ___________.

A

cotransport with sodium; facilitated diffusion

120
Q

Lipids are emulsified by ____________ and digested by ______________.

A

bile salts; lipase

121
Q

The majority of lipase is produced by the

A

pancreas.

122
Q

The lipids that can be absorbed across the epithelial wall of the small intestine are hydrophobic and would have a difficult time in the watery lumen to come in contact with the epithelial membrane. These lipids are able to move easily in the watery lumen because of interaction with

A

bile salts.

123
Q

Once absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine, free fatty acids and glycerol are recombined and a protein coat is added to form a

A

chylomicron.

124
Q

Once chylomicrons leave the simple columnar epithelium of the small intestine, they diffuse into

A

lacteals.

125
Q

A lipoprotein has the following components: 5% tryglyceride, 20% cholesterol, 30% phospholipid, and 45% protein. This molecule would be best described as a

A

high-density lipoprotein.

126
Q

Cholesterol that is required to produce steroids and bile salts is carried in

A

low-density lipoproteins (LDL).

127
Q

Cholesterol is a major component of atherosclerotic plaque. Cholesterol carried by ___________ is linked to coronary heart disease.

A

low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

128
Q

Most of the protein digesting enzymes are produced by the

A

stomach and pancreas.

129
Q

The optimum pH for trypsin and chymotrypsin is about

A

7-9.

130
Q

Calcium is actively absorbed by the small intestine and this is accelerated by

A

Vitamin D.

131
Q

Probably the main reason why elderly people take antacids, H2 antagonists and proton pump inhibitors is because of the increase in _____________ with age.

A

gastroesophageal reflux disorder

132
Q

The thick connective tissue layer of the digestive tract that contains blood vessels, small glands, and a nerve plexus is the

A

submucosa layer.

133
Q

The enteric nervous system is associated with the

A

parasympathetic division of the ANS.

134
Q

Except in the upper esophagus and stomach, the muscularis layer of the digestive tract consists of

A

two layers of smooth muscle.

135
Q

The mesentery that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon and posterior body wall is the

A

greater omentum

136
Q

All of these are retroperitoneal organs EXCEPT the

A 
A) duodenum.
B) kidneys.
C) rectum.
D) stomach.
E) urinary bladder.

D!!

137
Q

The muscles responsible for protruding and retracting the tongue, moving it from side to side and changing its shape are the

A

extrinsic tongue muscles.

138
Q

The lingual frenulum is part of the

A

tongue.

139
Q

Adults normally have __________ permanent teeth; children have __________ deciduous teeth.

A

32,20

140
Q

The center of the tooth, which is filled with blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue, is called the

A

pulp

141
Q

The largest pair of salivary glands, which produce mostly watery saliva, are the

A

parotid glands.

142
Q

Saliva

A

contains lysozyme, which has a weak antibacterial action.

143
Q

Successive contraction of constrictor muscles occurs and the epiglottis covers the opening in the larynx. This describes

A

the pharyngeal phase of swallowing.

144
Q

Parietal cells in the lining of the stomach secrete

A

HCl and intrinsic factor.

145
Q

Large mucosal folds formed when the stomach is empty are called

A

rugae.

146
Q

The liver, gallbladder, and pancreas are connected to ducts that enter the

A

duodenum.

147
Q

Folds formed from the mucosa and submucosa that are perpendicular to the long axis of the duodenum are called

A

plicae circulares.

148
Q

Besides capillaries, villi also contain lymphatic vessels called

A

lacteals.

149
Q 
Given these sphincters:
1. external anal sphincter
2. ileocecal sphincter
3. lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter
4. pyloric sphincter
Arrange them in the order in which food passes through them.
A

3,4,2,1

150
Q

Which of these cells is correctly matched with its function?

A

A) absorptive cells-produce digestive enzymes
B) endocrine cells-produce regulatory hormones
C) goblet cells-produce protective mucus
D) duodenal glands-produce protective mucus
E) all of these are correct

E!!!

151
Q

The major duodenal papilla is

A

the opening of the hepatopancreatic ampulla in the duodenum.

152
Q

Arrange these parts of the small intestine in order from largest number of villi and circular folds to smallest number of villi and circular folds.

  1. duodenum
  2. ileum
  3. jejunum
A

1,3,2

153
Q

The most nutrient absorption takes place in the

A

duodenum and jejunum.

154
Q

All of these are functions of the liver EXCEPT:

A 
A)	biotransformation of molecules.
B)	production of digestive enzymes.
C)	storage of glycogen, fat, vitamins, and iron.
D)	synthesis of bile.
E)	synthesis of blood components.

B!!

155
Q

In the liver, blood from the __________ and the hepatic artery flow into the hepatic sinusoids and become mixed.

A

hepatic portal vein

156
Q

The acini of the pancreas produce

A

digestive enzymes.

157
Q 
Given these structures:
1. cecum
2. descending colon
3. rectum
4. sigmoid colon
5. transverse colon
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order food passes through them from the small intestine to the anus.
A

1,5,2,4,3

158
Q

Bands of longitudinal smooth muscle that run the length of the colon are called

A

teniae coli.

159
Q

The mucosal lining of the large intestine contains predominantly

A

goblet cells.

160
Q

The greatest amount of stomach secretion takes place during the

A

gastric phase

161
Q

Gastrin secretion is stimulated by

A

distension of the stomach.

162
Q

The “pyloric pump” describes

A

chyme moving from the stomach into the small intestine.

163
Q

Which of these conditions causes inhibition of gastric secretion?

A 
A)	hypotonic or hypertonic solution in the duodenum
B)	distention of the duodenal wall
C)	pH less than 2 in the duodenum
D)	fats in the duodenum
E)	all of these

E!!!

164
Q

Which of these inhibits secretion and motility of the stomach?

A

enterogastric reflex

165
Q

Duodenal gland secretion is stimulated by

A

chemical (acid) or tactile stimulation of the duodenal mucosa.

166
Q

The __________ secretes peptidases and disaccharidases, whereas the __________ secretes trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase, lipase, and nucleases.

A

small intestine, pancreas

167
Q

All of these are enzymes that digest protein EXCEPT

A 
A)	lipase.
B)	carboxypeptidase.
C)	chymotrypsin.
D)	pepsin.
E)	trypsin.

A!!

168
Q

Which of these hormones causes contraction of the gall bladder?

A

cholecystokinin

169
Q

All of these occur in the large intestine EXCEPT:

A 
A)	large numbers of bacteria utilize undigested food.
B)	fatty acids are absorbed.
C)	vitamin K is produced.
D)	sodium and water are absorbed.
E)	mucus is produced.

B!!

170
Q

Arrange these events in the order in which they occur during fat digestion, absorption, and transport:

  1. chylomicrons enter lacteals
  2. triglycerides, phospholipids and cholesterol coated with protein
  3. fatty acids and glycerol packaged into micelles
  4. bile salts emulsify fats
  5. lipase digests fat
A

4,5,3,2,1

171
Q

A major transport lipoprotein that has 92% lipid and 8% protein is a(n)

A

VLDL (very low-density lipoprotein).

172
Q

Which one of the following would not be a nutrient?

A

cellulose

173
Q

Most vitamins, minerals, and water all have this in common:

A

They cannot be manufactured by the body.

174
Q

When the body metabolizes nutrients for energy, fats yield about _______ times the energy as carbohydrates or proteins.

A

2

175
Q

A calorie is the amount of energy necessary to raise the temperature of one gram of _________ one degree __________.

A

water, Centigrade

176
Q

One piece of apple pie would yield about

A

345,000 cal.

177
Q

The disaccharide that most people think of as table sugar is

A

sucrose.

178
Q

When lactose is digested, it yields two monosaccharides called

A

glucose and galactose.

179
Q

The complex carbohydrate (polysaccharide) that we can digest to the monosaccharide, glucose, and is found in vegetables, fruits, and grains and is called

A

starch.

180
Q

If excess glucose is present in the body, the glucose first will be stored as __________ in muscle and the liver.

A

glycogen

181
Q

Triglycerides that contain one or more double covalent bonds between carbon atoms of their fatty acids are called

A

unsaturated fats.

182
Q

Bubbling hydrogen gas through polyunsaturated vegetable oil will cause the oil to become more

A

saturated and more solid.

183
Q

The lipid that is a component of the plasma membrane and can be used to form bile salts and steroid hormones is

A

cholesterol.

184
Q

The American Heart Association recommends that saturated fats should contribute no more than 10% of total fat intake. Excess fats, especially cholesterol and saturated fat, can increase the risk of

A

cardiovascular disease and colon cancer.

185
Q

The proteins in the body are composed of _________ amino acids; _________ of these amino acids are termed essential amino acids.

A

20; 9

186
Q

A toxic waste product of protein metabolism that must be excreted from the body is

A

ammonia.

187
Q

The daily-recommended consumption amount of protein for a healthy adult is about _____% of total kilocalorie intake per day.

A

10

188
Q

Organic molecules found in minute quantities in food but that are essential to normal metabolism are called

A

vitamins.

189
Q

Which vitamin remains in the body for only a short time before being excreted

A

Vitamin C

190
Q

One of the reported benefits of taking Vitamin C and Vitamin E is that they

A

block the effect of free radicals.

191
Q

Inorganic nutrients that are necessary for normal metabolism are called

A

minerals.

192
Q

The energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules is specifically called

A

anabolism.

193
Q

The energy currency of the cell is

A

ATP

194
Q

When a molecule loses an electron, that molecule is said to be ___________ and often a(n) _____________ ion is lost along with the electron.

A

oxidized; hydrogen

195
Q

Which of the following terms is the total of all the breakdown processes in the body?

A

catabolism

196
Q

When a hydrogen ion and an associated electron are lost from a nutrient molecule, which of the following happens?

A

A) The molecule gains energy.
B) The molecule loses energy.
C) The molecule becomes oxidized.
D) Both B and C.

D!!

197
Q

How many ATP’s are generated from glucose in the absence of oxygen?

A

2

198
Q

In anaerobic respiration, lactic acid is released into the blood from skeletal muscle. When oxygen is available, most of the lactic acid is converted back to pyruvic acid and glucose in the

A

liver.

199
Q

In the human skeletal muscle and brain cells, the energy yield per molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration is ________ times higher than the energy yield in anaerobic respiration.

A

4

200
Q

In the liver, kidney, and heart cells, the total number of ATP molecules that can be generated per glucose in aerobic respiration is

A

38

201
Q

The role of oxygen in aerobic respiration is to

A

combine with free electrons and hydrogen ions from the electron transport system.

202
Q

n the electron transport chain, the hydrogen ions enter the inner compartment of mitochondria through special channels formed by

A

ATP synthase

203
Q

Which of the following is true concerning glycolysis?

A

A net of 2 molecules of ATP are produced.

204
Q

Which of the following processes converts lactic acid to glucose?

A

Cori cycle

205
Q

In beta oxidation, free fatty acids are converted to

A

acetyl-CoA.

206
Q

In the liver, when large amounts of acetyl-CoA are produced, some of the acetyl-CoA is used to form

A

ketone bodies.

207
Q

In transamination, an amine group is transferred to ____________ to form a nonessential amino acid.

A

keto acid

208
Q

In oxidative deamination, an amine group is removed from an amino acid (usually glutamic acid) leaving ammonia and a keto acid. In this process ____________ is formed, which can enter the electron transport chain.

A

NADH

209
Q

Amino acids can be used for energy by converting them into various intermediate molecules of carbohydrate metabolism. Which intermediate molecule cannot be directly formed from an amino acid?

A

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

210
Q

People on strict diets or that have Type I Diabetes may check their urine periodically for ketones. Excessive production of ketones in the urine may indicate excessive

A

lipid metabolism.

211
Q

Which of the following processes is involved in using proteins as a source of energy?

A

oxidative deamination

212
Q

Which of the following substances are NOT stored in the body?

A

amino acids

213
Q

Excess glucose after a meal will first form glycogen in a process called

A

glycogenesis.

214
Q

Once glycogen stores are filled, glucose and amino acids are used to synthesize

A

lipids

215
Q

When liver glycogen levels are inadequate to supply glucose, especially to the brain, amino acids and glycerol are used to produce ___________ in a process called _______________.

A

glucose; gluconeogenesis

216
Q

Which of these does not occur for about four hours after a meal?

A

Glycerol is converted to glucose, fatty acids are converted to acetyl-CoA, and acetyl-CoA is used to produce ketone bodies.

217
Q

Which one of the following would not be a characteristic of the postabsorptive state which occurs late in the morning, late in the afternoon or early in the morning before breakfast?

A

Amino acids are used to synthesize proteins.

218
Q

Which of the following processes describes the formation of glycogen from excess glucose in the blood?

A

glycogenesis

219
Q

Which of the following substances is produced in limited quantities in glycolysis as a result of the metabolism of excessive amounts of alcohol (ethanol)?

A

NADH

220
Q

Which of the following processes is involved in converting amino acids into glucose?

A

gluconeogenesis

221
Q

Which of the following metabolic states describes the first 4 hours after eating a meal?

A

absorptive state

222
Q

After glycogen has been used up in the postabsorptive state, which of the following is usually used as the next source of energy?

A

lipids

223
Q

Two people who have the same weight and age are taking in the same kilocalories per day. Both people are doing the same exercise activities, but one person is gaining weight while the other is losing weight. This unfair situation can be explained because

A

the person gaining weight has more fat in the diet.

224
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the energy needed to keep the resting body functional. This BMR accounts for about _____% of the energy expended during the day.

A

60

225
Q

People shiver when cold because

A

about 60% of the total energy released by catabolism generates heat.

226
Q

Which of the following would be a use for metabolic energy?

A

A) thermic effect of food
B) basal metabolism
C) muscular activity
D) all of the above

D!!

227
Q

Which of the following persons would mostly likely have a decreased BMR?

A

a starving person

228
Q

Which of the following is the usual amount of energy given off as heat during the burning of food?

A

60%

229
Q

Which of the following conditions would produce malignant hyperthermia?

A

general anesthesia

230
Q

Essential nutrients

A

must be ingested.

231
Q

Each gram of carbohydrate or protein metabolized by the body releases about __________ kcal of energy, whereas each gram of fat metabolized by the body releases about __________ kcal.

A

4,9

232
Q

Which of these carbohydrates is NOT digestible and provides fiber, or “roughage” in humans?

A

cellulose

233
Q

All of these carbohydrates come from plants EXCEPT:

A

lactose

234
Q

Complex carbohydrates

A

A) include glycogen, cellulose, and starch.
B) consist of many glucose molecules bound together in long chains.
C) can be energy storage molecules.
D) are polysaccharides.
E) all of these

E!!!

235
Q

The brain relies almost entirely on __________ for energy production.

A

glucose

236
Q

For long-term storage, glucose is converted to __________, while for short-term storage, glucose is converted to ___________.

A

fat, glycogen

237
Q

All other monosaccharides absorbed into the blood are converted into __________ in the liver.

A

glucose

238
Q

Skeletal muscle cells derive most of their energy from

A

triglycerides.

239
Q

Which of these carbohydrates is a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules?

A

maltose

240
Q

Fish, safflower oil, sunflower oil, and corn oil are sources of

A

polyunsaturated fat.

241
Q

All of these foods contain cholesterol EXCEPT

A

coconut oil

242
Q

Cholesterol

A 
A)	is manufactured in the liver.
B)	is a component of the cell membrane.
C)	can be modified to form bile salts.
D)	can be modified to form steroid hormones.
E)	all of these

E!!

243
Q

Which of these statements concerning essential fatty acids is correct?

A

Linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid are two fatty acids that must be ingested.

244
Q

There are __________ amino acids in proteins, and __________ are considered to be essential amino acids.

A

20,9

245
Q

All of these are examples of proteins in the body EXCEPT

A

lecithin.

246
Q

Which vitamin is necessary for blood clotting?

A

Vitamin K

247
Q

Vitamins

A

can be manufactured in the body from provitamins.

248
Q

The two vitamins necessary for nucleic acid synthesis are folate and

A

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin).

249
Q

Which mineral is involved in blood clotting, muscle activity, and nerve function? A deficiency of this mineral causes spontaneous nerve discharge and tetany.

A

calcium

250
Q

Which of these is NOT a function of minerals in the body?

A

acting as a source of energy

251
Q

The energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules is

A

anabolism.

252
Q

The energy currency of the cell is

A

ATP

253
Q

Anaerobic respiration produces __________ ATPs and __________ as a waste product.

A

2, lactic acid

254
Q

Aerobic respiration produces _______ ATPs and ______ require oxygen.

A

38, does

255
Q

Lactic acid can be converted to __________ in the liver.

A

glucose

256
Q

Given these phases of aerobic respiration:
1. acetyl-coenzyme A formation
2. citric acid cycle
3. electron-transport chain
4. glycolysis
List the phases in the order they occur as a molecule of glucose is broken down.

A

4,1,2,3

257
Q

Electron-carrier molecules that are used in the electron-transport chain to generate additional ATP are

A

NADH and FADH2.

258
Q

Besides ATP, the end products of aerobic respiration are

A

carbon dioxide and water

259
Q

In the chemiosmotic model, __________ ions diffuse from the intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix; as a result, ADP is converted to ATP.

A

hydrogen

260
Q

At the end of aerobic respiration, all six carbon atoms from the glucose molecule are

A

found in carbon dioxide molecules.

261
Q

About 99% of the body’s energy storage is in the form of

A

lipids

262
Q

In the process of beta-oxidation, two carbon atoms are removed from the end of a(n) __________ to form __________.

A

fatty acid, acetyl-CoA

263
Q

The conversion of acetyl-CoA into acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid or acetone is called

A

ketogenesis.

264
Q

To produce a nonessential amino acid, keto acids are converted to amino acids by the process of

A

transamination.

265
Q

The process by which amino acids and glycerol can be converted to glucose is called

A

gluconeogenesis.

266
Q

During the absorptive state,

A

excess glucose is converted into glycogen or fats.

267
Q

Which of these forms of metabolic energy use is normally the smallest?

A

thermic effect of food

268
Q

One pound of body fat is equal to about

A

3500kcal

269
Q

The gain or loss of heat as infrared energy between two objects that are not in physical contact with each other is called

A

radiation

Anatomy (2 decks)

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